CLAT 2017 Question Paper With Solution

Question 1

Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

If they want to succeed, they ______ have to work very hard.

Amust

Bshould

Cwill

Dought

C will

The appropriate form of the verb is the simple future tense ‘will have’ as it describes a future action.

Question 2

Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

She stood ______ Amit, but could not utter a single word for quite some time.

Aabout

Bfor

Cto

Dbefore

D before

The preposition “before” is appropriate here. To ‘stand before’ someone means to ‘stand in front of someone’.

Question 3

Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

Kanak is endowed _______ many great qualities.

Aby

Bwith

Cin

Dof

B with

The preposition “with” is appropriate when used with the verb ‘endowed’.

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Question 4

Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

The doctor advised him to go ______ several medical tests.

Aunder

Bthrough

Cabout

Dinto

B through

The correct preposition with the verb ‘go’ here is “through”. To ‘go through’ something is to ‘experience or do’ something.

Question 5

Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

You have played a great role, for _______ your help I possibly would have landed myself into a problem.

Awithout

Bdespite

Calthough

Dafter

A without

The correct conjunction to be used here is ‘without’. It correctly expresses the fact that in the absence of something things would not have been the same.

Question 6

Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

The passengers were very happy _______ the friendly and warm treatment.

Ato

Bfrom

Cabout

Dby

C about

The correct preposition here is ‘about’. Generally people are happy ‘about’ something.

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Question 7

Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

We shall fail _______ we are industrious.

Aunless

Buntil

Cthough

Dwhether

A unless

The correct conjunction here is ‘unless’ which conveys the meaning that “if we are not industrious, we will fail”.

Question 8

Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

Sunita decided to set ______ some time every day for prayers.

Aup

Baside

Cin

Don

B aside

The correct preposition here is ‘aside’. It is usually common to ‘set aside’ time for some task, which means that ‘time has been allocated/apportioned for that task’.

Question 9

Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

The minister flew ______ the flooded areas in a helicopter.

Ain

Babout

Calong

Dover

D over

When flying in a helicopter, one ‘flies over’ an area. Hence the appropriate preposition here would be ‘over’.

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Question 10

Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

Would anybody ______ a mother have risked her life for the baby?

Abut

Bthan

Crather

Dhowever

A but

The correct conjunction here would be ‘but’. The sentence questions whether ‘anyone besides a mother would have risked here life for the baby’?

Question 11

The most likely reason for the acceptance of the WTO package by nations was that:

AThey recognized the need for a rule-based environment to protect the benefits of increased trade.

BIt has the means to prevent the US from taking unilateral measures.

CIts rule-based system leads to export gains.

DIt settles disputes more legally and more effectively.

A They recognized the need for a rule-based environment to protect the benefits of increased trade.

Choices 1 and 3 and close choices. In paragraph two the author states that “Finally, and perhaps most important, many countries at the Uruguay Round came to put a higher priority on the export gains than on the import losses that the negotiation would produce, and they came to associate the WTO and a rule based system with those gains” this would make “3” as correct answer. However in the same paragraph the author further states – “This reasoning – replicated in many countries – was contained in U. S. Ambassador Kantor’s defence of the WTO, and it announced to a recognition that international trade and its benefits cannot be enjoyed unless trading nations accept the discipline of a negotiated rule based environment”. This summarizes the rationale behind WTO and makes “1” a better choice.

Question 12

In the method of interpretation of the European Court of Justice:

AActions against member states needed to be evaluated against the said community goals.

BContracting party trade practices need to be consistent with stated rules.

CCurrent policies need to be consistent with stated goals.

DEnunciation of the most elementary community goals needed to be emphasized.

A Actions against member states needed to be evaluated against the said community goals.

Paragraph 4 “One means the Court used to expand integration was the ‘teleological method of interpretation’, whereby the actions of member states were evaluated against ‘the accomplishment of the most elementary goals set forth in the Preamble to the (Rome) treaty. The teleological method represents an effort to keep current policies consistent with slated goals” – this makes “1” the correct answer.

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Question 13

According to the passage, WTO promoted the technical legal values partly through.

ARules that create their own incentive for fulfilment.

BAmbiguities about the powers of contracting parties to make certain decisions.

CGrandfather rights exceptions and defects in dispute settlement procedures.

DIntegrating under one roof the agreements signed under GATT.

D Integrating under one roof the agreements signed under GATT.

In the last para the author states “The WTO codified the GATT institutional practice that had developed by custom over three decades, and it incorporated a new dispute settlement system that was necessary to keep both old and new rules from becoming a sham” – this makes choice “4” the correct answer.

Question 14

What would be the closest reason why WTO was not formed in 1970s?

AThe US government did not like it.

BImportant players did not find it in their best interest to do so.

CThe Tokyo Round negotiations was an attempt at constitutional reform.

DLawyers did not work for the dispute settlement system.

B Important players did not find it in their best interest to do so.

The author does mention that WTO could have been negotiated as part of the Tokyo Round of the 1970s. So what could be the reason for WTO’s not getting formed in 1970s? The author further states the reason that helped its creation in the 1990s’. So it would be a safe assumption that the benefits anticipated in the 1990s’ were not anticipated in the 1970s’. One of the benefits citied by the author is that important players found WTO to be in their own interests in 1990s’. So it’s quite possible they did not find WTOs’ formation in their own interest in the 1970s’.

Question 15

In the statement ‘... it amounted to a recognition that international trade and its benefits cannot be enjoyed unless trading nations accept the discipline of a negotiated rule-based environment’, it refers to:

AThe provision of a rule-based system by the WTO.

BAmbassador Kantor’s defence of the WTO.

CThe export gains many countries came to associate with a rule-based system.

DThe higher priority on export gains placed by many countries at the Uruguay Round.

C The export gains many countries came to associate with a rule-based system.

In paragraph two the benefit anticipated are the export gains.

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Question 16

In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence

During her lecture, the speaker tried to clarify directional terms, for not everyone in attendance was knowledgeable that winds are designed by the direction from which they come.

AWith everyone in attendance not knowing.

BFor everyone in attendance did not know.

CWith everyone attending not knowledgeable.

DFor not everyone attending knew.

D For not everyone attending knew.

The phrase ‘not everyone in attendance was knowledgeable’ means that while some did know about this, not everyone knew. This meaning is best conveyed by option d.

Question 17

In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence

Two valence states of uranium, one with a deficit of four electrons and the other one with a deficit of six occurs in nature and contributes to the diversity of uranium’s behaviour.

Athe other with a deficit of six, occur in Nature and contribute

Bthe other one a deficit of six, occur in Nature and contribute

Cthe other with a deficit of six, occurs in Nature and contributes

Done with six occurs in Nature and contributes

A the other with a deficit of six, occur in Nature and contribute

The subject of this sentence ‘Two valence states of uranium’ is a plural one and hence the verbs should also be plural to agree with it. Hence options c and d can be ruled out. Also, in option b the preposition ‘with’ is missing.

Question 18

In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence

Plausible though it sounds, the weakness of the hypothesis is that it does not incorporate all relevant facts.

Athough the hypothesis sounds plausible, its weakness

Beven though it sounds plausible, the weakness of the hypothesis

Cthough plausible, the hypothesis’ weakness

Dthe weakness of the hypothesis which sounds plausible.

A though the hypothesis sounds plausible, its weakness

There are two ideas being expressed in this sentence:

Firstly that the hypothesis sounds plausible and
Secondly it tell us what the weakness of the hypothesis is

Now since these ideas are contrary, the best way of expressing both is to use the conjunction ‘though’. In option c, the verb ‘sounds’ has been omitted - this would change the meaning of the sentence.

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Question 19

In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence

Many of them chiselled from solid rock centuries ago the mountainous regions are dotted with hundreds of monasteries:

AThe mountainous regions are dotted with hundreds of monasteries, many of them chiselled from solid rock centuries ago.

BHundreds of monasteries, many of them chiselled from solid rock centuries ago, are dotting the mountainous regions.

CThe mountainous regions are dotted with hundreds of monasteries, many of which are chiselled from solid rock centuries ago.

Dchiselled from solid rock centuries ago, the mountainous regions are dotted with many hundreds of monasteries.

A The mountainous regions are dotted with hundreds of monasteries, many of them chiselled from solid rock centuries ago.

The phrase ‘many of them chiselled from solid rock centuries ago’ is a modifier that describes the noun “monasteries”. Hence it should be placed right next to this noun.
In option b, the verb tense is incorrect as ‘are dotting’ in the present continuous refers to an action that is currently happening.
In option c, the verb tense is incorrect as ‘are chisseled’ in the simple present refers to this action as a habitual or regular one.
In option d, the phrase ‘chiselled from solid rock centuries ago’ modifies or describes the noun ‘mountainous regions’.

Question 20

In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence

Initiative and referendum, is a procedure that allows voters to propose and pass laws as well as to repeal them.

Awill allow laws on be proposed, passed, as well as repealed by voters

Ballows voters to propose to pass, and repeal laws

Cwill allow voter to propose, pass, as well as to repeal laws.

Dallows voters to propose, pass and to repeal laws

D allows voters to propose, pass and to repeal laws

Here option a, the preposition ‘on’ has been incorrectly used with ‘law’.
In option b, the meaning is changed due to the expression ‘to propose to pass’.
In option c, the singular countable noun “voter” is unaccompanied by an article so this option is incorrect.
Hence the best choice is option d.

Question 21

Choose the correct spellings in options given below.

AGhellows

BGhallows

CGellows

DGallows

D Gallows

Gallows

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Question 22

Choose the correct spellings in options given below.

ARenumeration

BRemuneration

CRenumaration

DRemunaration

B Remuneration

Remuneration

Question 23

Choose the correct spellings in options given below.

ABlashphemy

BBleshphemy

CBlasphamy

DBlasphemy

D Blasphemy

Blasphemy

Question 24

Choose the correct spellings in options given below.

AAccomadation

BAccommedation

CAccommodation

DAccomedation

C Accommodation

Accommodation

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Question 25

Choose the correct spellings in options given below.

AAnulment

BAnnulmant

CAnnulment

DAnnulement

C Annulment

Annulment

Question 26

Choose the correct spellings in options given below.

AHypthacation

BHyphothecation

CHypothecation

DHypathecation

C Hypothecation

Hypothecation

Question 27

Choose the correct spellings in options given below.

AGratitious

BGratuitus

CGratetious

DGratuitous

D Gratuitous

Gratuitous

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Question 28

Choose the correct spellings in options given below.

AInterogetion

BInterogation

CInteragation

DInterrogation

D Interrogation

Interrogation

Question 29

Choose the correct spellings in options given below.

AMoratorium

BMaratorium

CMoretorium

DMoratarium

A Moratorium

Moratorium

Question 30

Choose the correct spellings in options given below.

AAbhayence

BAbeyence

CAbeyance

DAbheyance

C Abeyance

Abeyance

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Question 31

In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part.

After being finished (A) the (B) last chapter of the book, return it (C) to me. (D)

AA

BD

CC

DB

A A

The verb here is expressed in the passive form ‘being finished’. Instead it should be in the active form and the present continuous tense i.e. ‘finishing’.

Question 32

In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part.

Five gallons of (A) petrol are (B) not enough (C) to cover the distance. (D)

AC

BA

CB

DD

C B

Here the subject is ‘Five gallons of petrol’ which is a verb phrase. Hence it is treated as a singular subject and the verb should also be singular i.e. ‘is’ instead of ‘are’.

Question 33

In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part.

Evidently (A) our product is the most (B) unique in (C) the market. (D)

AB

BA

CC

DD

A B

This is a case of redundancy – the adjective ‘unique’ means ‘one of a kind’, so it cannot be used in the superlative form ‘the most’.

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Question 34

In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part.

On listening (A) to the confession of love (B) she blushed until (C) she was purple. (D)

AD

BB

CA

DC

D C

The correct expression is ‘blushed until she was red’.

Question 35

In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part.

Since (A) I have forgotten (B) all the equations I will have (C) to start from the scratch. (D)

AB

BA

CC

DD

D D

The correct expression is ‘to start from scratch’.

Question 36

In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part.

The officer asked that (A) the report (B) be submitted (C) immediately. (D)

AC

BB

CA

DD

D D

The sentence is grammatically correct. Note that the verb ‘be submitted’ is used in the subjunctive form to go along with the order given by the verb ‘asked’.

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Question 37

In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part.

He gave me (A) a ticket so that (B) I may visit (C) the (D) book fair.

AC

BD

CA

DB

C A

The sentence has two verbs ‘gave’ and ‘may visit’. While the former is in the simple past tense, the second verb is in the simple present tense. In order to correct this sentence the second verb can also be expressed in the simple past tense as ‘might visit’ or even better as ‘could visit’.

Question 38

In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part.

The most (A) difficult job is to bend (B) and then lifting (C) the weight. (D)

AD

BC

CA

DB

B C

There is parallelism error here. The parallel structure in this sentence is “A and then B”. Since the first part in the parallel structure is a verb in the simple present tense, the second verb in B should also be in the same form. Hence correct the second verb as ‘lift’.

Question 39

In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part.

The hope (A) to go through (B) the book today I have (C) almost read (D) half of it.

AB

BC

CA

DD

C A

There are two clauses in this sentence “The hope to go through the book today” and “I have almost read half of it”. The first clause here is the dependent clause and hence should be “Hoping to go through the book today”.

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Question 40

In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part.

Our boss always (A) asks us to pay (B) full (C) attention to the work at hand. (D)

AD

BA

CC

DB

C C

The meaning of the phrase ‘at hand’ is ‘close by’ and is inappropriate in this sentence. We can correct this sentence by using the phrase ‘in hand”. When something is ‘in hand’, we are referring to the job or matter that is important at the present moment.

Question 1

Keerthi’s father gave him some money to buy books. He spent half of the money equally to buy books and entertaining his friends. Whatever amount left with him, he deposited half in his savings account and gave ₹5 to a poor person as charity. Finally, Keerthi was left with ₹20 which he returned to his father. What amount did his father give him initially?

A₹160

B₹200

C₹100

D₹120

C ₹100

Method-1:
Simply check the options one-by-one.
Option a: ₹160
Books & entertaining = 160/2 = ₹80
To savings account = ½ (160 – 80) = ₹40
To charity = ₹5
Then amount left = 160 – 125 = ₹35. Incorrect choice!
Option b: ₹200
Books & entertaining = 200/2 = ₹100
To savings account = ½ (200 – 100) = ₹50
To charity = ₹5
Then amount left = 200 – 155 = ₹45. Incorrect choice!
Option c: ₹100
Books & entertaining = 100/2 = ₹50
To savings account = ½ (100 – 50) = ₹25
To charity = ₹5
Then amount left = 100 – 80 = ₹20. Correct choice!
Option d: ₹120
Books & entertaining = 120/2 = ₹60
To savings account = ½ (120 – 60) = ₹30
To charity = ₹5
Then amount left = 120 – 95 = ₹25. Incorrect choice!

Method-2:
Let initial sum given to Keerthi be ₹N.
Books & entertaining = N/2
To savings account = ½ (N – N/2) = N/4
To charity = ₹5
Then amount left = N – (N/2 + N/4 + 5) = 20
i.e. N – 3N/4 – 5 = 20
i.e. N/4 = 20 + 5 or N = 4 x 25 = ₹100

Question 2

The difference between simple interest and compound interest at the same rate for rupees 5,000 for two years is rupees 98. The rate of interest is:

A12%

B14%

C10 ½ %

D10%

B 14%

Formula for CI – SI for 2 years on same principal at same rate = R% of SI/CI in year-1 or R% of R% of P
So, 98 = R% of R% of 5000
i.e. (R/100)² = 98/5000 = 49/2500
Taking square root:
R/100 = 7/50
i.e. R = 7/50 x 100 = 14%

Question 3

There are two urns. One contains two white balls and four red balls, the other contains three white and nine red balls. All balls are of the same shape and size. From each urn, one ball is drawn. What is the probability of getting both the balls of the same colour?

A1/2

B1/12

C7/12

D1/24

C 7/12

First urn has 2W and 4R, while second urn has 3W and 9R
Total ways of drawing 1 ball each from the two urns = ⁶C₁ x ¹²C₁ = 6 x 12 = 72
Now, the favourable cases will be drawing 2 white balls or 2 red balls.
Ways of drawing 2 white balls = ²C₁ x ³C₁ = 2 x 3 = 6 ways
Ways of drawing 2 red balls ⁴C₁ x ⁹C₁ = 4 x 9 = 36 ways
By the ‘Or’ rule, the total favourable ways = 6 + 36 = 42
Hence required probability = 42/72 = 7/12

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Question 4

A clock was set correct at 12 O’ clock. It loses 10 minutes per hour. What will be the angle between the hour and minute hands of the clock after one hour?

A75˚

B85˚

C105˚

D90˚

A 75˚

The faulty clock loses 10 mins every hour, so it will show the time as 12:50 after an hour.
Hence we want angle between hands at 12:50
Speed of minute hand = 6˚ per minute (it covers 360˚ in 60 minutes)
Speed of hour hand = ½˚ per minute (it covers 360˚ in 12 hours)
Relative speed of minute hand w.r.t. hour hand = 6 – ½ = 5½˚ or 11/2˚ per minute
Now, Angle at 12:50 = 50 x 11/2˚ = 275˚
But this is the reflex angle between the hands.
The correct angle will be 360˚ – 275˚ = 75˚

Question 5

A vessel contains a mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 5:3 respectively. How much of the mixture must be siphoned off and replaced with water, so that the mixture may be half milk and half water?

A1/3

B1/4

C1/5

D1/7

C 1/5

There are two stages in this problem:

Removal of a part of the solution
Replacement with an equal volume of water

As shown above, let the initial volume of the solution be A litres and B litres of it be removed.
Important note: The ratio of milk and water will remain the same when some quantity is removed from it.
Hence Solution-2 will now have a volume of (A – B) litres with milk : water being unchanged as 5 : 3
So, water in solution-2 = 3/8^th of (A – B) = 3(A – B)/8 litres
Now, B litres of water is added to this solution.
As a result, solution-2 has volume of A litres and milk : water now becomes 1 : 1.
Hence water in solution-3 = ½ of A = A/2 litres
Clearly, Water in solution-2 + Water added = Water in solution-3
i.e. 3(A – B)/8 + B = A/2
i.e. (3A – 3B + 8B)/8 = A/2
i.e. 3A + 5B = 4A
i.e. A = 5B
Hence the fraction of volume of solution-1 that was originally removed = B/A = 1/5
Alternatively:
We can apply alligation to the replacement part of this problem.
Milk concentration in solution-2 = 5/8 x 100 = 62.5%
Milk concentration in water (that was added to solution-2) = 0%
Milk concentration in solution-3 = ½ x 100 = 50%

Hence, by the rule of alligation:
50/12.5 = (A – B)/B
i.e. 4/1 = (A – B)/B
i.e. A – B = 4B or A = 5B
Hence, B/A = 1/5

Question 6

A boat travels upstream from A to B and back from B to A in 5 hours. The speed of the boat in still water is 8 km/hour and the speed of the current is 4 km/hour. Then, the distance from A to B is:

A9 kms.

B10 kms.

C12 kms.

D15 kms

D 15 kms

Speed of boat = B = 8 km/hr
Speed of current = S = 4 km/hr
Effective speed going upstream = B – S = 4 km/hr
Effective speed going downstream = B + S = 12 km/hr
Let distance travelled in either direction be D kms.
Using Time = Distance/Speed we get:
Time to go upstream = D/4
Time to go downstream = D/12
But we are given, total time = 5 hours
i.e. D/4 + D/12 = 5
i.e. (3D + D)/12 = 5
i.e. D = 5 x 12/4 = 15 kms

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Question 7

A man rows to a place 45 kms distant and back in 12 hours. He realises that he can row 5 kms downstream in the same time as 3 kms against the stream. The velocity of the stream is:

A2 kms/hr

B1.5 kms/hr

C4 kms/hr

D1 km/hr

A 2 kms/hr

Let the speeds of the boat and current be B km/hr and S km/hr respectively.
Then speed upstream = B – S
And speed downstream = B + S
So, Time to go 5 km downstream = 5/(B + S)
And, Time to go 3 km upstream = 3/(B – S)
Hence, 5/(B + S) = 3/(B – S)
i.e. 5B – 5S = 3B + 3S
i.e. 2B = 8S or B = 4S ... (1)
Also, time to travel 45 km upstream and 45 km downstream = 12 hours
i.e. Time upstream (for 45 kms) + Time downstream (45 kms) = 12
i.e. 45/(B – S) + 45/(B + S) = 12
Using equation (1):
45/(4S – S) + 45/(4S + S) = 12
i.e. 45/3S + 45/5S = 12
i.e. 15/S + 9/S = 12
i.e. 24/S = 12 or S = 24/12 = 2 km/hr

Question 8

The average weight of three men ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ is 75 kgs. Another man ‘A’ joins the group and the average weight now becomes 80 kgs. If another person ‘B’ whose weight is 5 kgs more than ‘A’ replaces ‘X’, then the average weight of ‘Y’, ‘Z’, ‘A’ and ‘B’ will be 85 kgs. What is the weight of ‘X’?

A78 kgs.

B84 kgs.

C80 kgs.

D82 kgs.

C 80 kgs.

Let X, Y, Z, A and B be the ages of the five persons.
Then, (X + Y + Z)/3 = 75
i.e. X + Y + Z = 225 ... (1)
Also (A + X + Y + Z)/4 = 80
i.e. A + X + Y + Z = 320
Using (1): A + 225 = 320
i.e. A = 95 kg
Given, B = 5 + A = 100 kgs
Then, (A + B + Y + Z)/4 = 85
i.e. 95 + 100 + Y + Z = 340
i.e. Y + Z = 340 – 195 = 145
Using this in (1): X + 145 = 225
i.e. X = 225 – 145 = 80 kgs

Question 9

Gold and copper are as heavy as water by 19 and 9 times respectively. The ratio in which these two metals be mixed so that the mixture is 17 times as heavy as water is:

A4:1

B2:3

C3:2

D3:4

A 4:1

Note that here the word ‘heavy’ is used to describe the density i.e. weight per unit volume.
Hence we must understand the first statement as “Gold is 19 times as dense as water, and copper is 9 times as dense as water”.
Method-1:
Let A litres of gold be mixed with B litres of copper.
Now weight of gold = Volume x Density = A x 19w = 19Aw
And weight of copper = Volume x Density = B x 9w = 9Bw
Now the resultant mixture has a volume of (A + B) litres
And the resultant is 17 times as dense as water.
Hence, weight of the resultant mixture = (A + B) x 17w
But weight of gold + weight of copper = weight of the mixture
i.e. 19Aw + 9Bw = 17Aw + 17Bw
i.e. 2Aw = 8Bw
or A/B = 8/2 = 4/1

Method-2:
In this problem the density of the mixture will be a weighted average of the densities of the constituent metals. Hence, we can also use the rule of alligation here.

Hence, the ratio in which the two metals are mixed i.e. A : B = 8w : 2w or 4 : 1

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Question 10

Two men and seven boys can do a work in 14 days. Three men and eight boys can do the same work in 11 days. Further eight men and six boys can do three times the amount of this work in:

A24 days

B18 days

C30 days

D21 days

D 21 days

Let M and B be the work done by a man and a boy respectively in a day i.e. their rates.
Then, work done by 2 men and 7 boys in 14 days = 2M x 14 + 7B x 14 = 14(2M + 7B)
Also, work done by 3 men and 8 boys in 11 days = 3M x 11 + 8B x 11 = 11(3M + 8B)
Since the work done by both groups is the same we can equate these:
Work = 14(2M + 7B) = 11(3M + 8B)
i.e. 98B – 88B = 33M – 28M
i.e. 10B = 5M or M = 2B
Then initial work = 14(2 x 2B + 7B) = 14 x 11B
Now, work done by 8 men and 6 boys in a day = 8M + 6B = 16B + 6B = 22B
If this group takes D days to finish three times the previous work:
Work = 22B x D = 3 x 14 x 11B
i.e. D = 42 x 11/22 = 21 days

Question 11

Age of father 10 years ago was three times the age of his son. After 10 years, father’s age is twice that of his son. The ratio of their present ages is:

A11:7

B7:3

C9:5

D7:4

B 7:3

Let present ages of father and son be F and S years respectively.
Then, ages 10 years ago were (F – 10) and (S – 10) years
So, F – 10 = 3(S – 10) ... (1)
Also, ages 10 years later would be (F + 10) and (S + 10) years
So, F + 10 = 2(S + 10) ... (2)
On subtracting (1) from (2) we get:
F + 10 – (F – 10) = 2S + 20 – (3S – 30)
i.e. 20 = 50 – S
i.e. S = 50 – 20 = 30 years
And F = 10 + 3(30 – 10) = 10 + 3 x 20 = 70 years
So ratio of their present ages = 70 : 30 = 7 : 3

Question 12

The Banker’s discount on a sum of money for 18 months is ₹600 and the true discount on the same sum for 3 years is ₹750/-. The rate percentage is:

A15%

B12%

C20%

D10%

C 20%

Given, True discount = ₹750 for 3 years
Bankers discount = ₹600 for 18 months = ₹1200 for 3 years
Now we know: TD = BD x 100/(100 + RT)
So, 750 = 1200 x 100/(100 + 3R)
i.e. 100 + 3R = 120000/750 = 160
So R = 60/3 = 20%

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Question 13

A train ‘X’ leaves station ‘A’ at 3 p.m and reaches station ‘B’ at 4.30 p.m., while another train ‘Y’ leaves station ‘B’ at 3.00 p.m and reaches station ‘A’ at 4.00 p.m. These two trains cross each other at:

A3.20 p.m.

B3.40 p.m.

C3.30 p.m.

D3.36 p.m.

D 3.36 p.m.

Train X takes 1.5 hours to cover the distance AB.
Train Y takes 1 hour to cover the same distance AB.
Let the distance AB be 3 kms.
Then, speed of X = 3/1.5 = 2 km/hr
And speed of Y = 3/1 = 3 km/hr
Now, relative speed = 3 + 2 = 5 km/hr
Hence time taken for them to cross each other = D/S_R = 3/5 hours or 3/5 x 60 = 36 minutes
Hence, time when they cross will be 3:36 p.m.

Question 14

In an office, 1/3 of the workers are Men, ½ of the men are married and 1/3 of the married men have children. If ¾ of the women are married and 2/3 of the 2/3 of the married women have children, then the part of workers without children are:

A5/18

B17/36

C11/18

D4/9

D 4/9

All the information can be expressed in the diagram shown below:

Let there be 900 employees in total.
Then, Number of men = 1/3 x 900 = 300
And, Number of women = 900 – 300 = 600
Now, Men who are married = ½ of 300 = 150
Married men who have children = 1/3 x 150 = 50
Similarly, Women who are married = ¾ x 600 = 450
Married women who have children = 2/3 x 2/3 x 450 = 200
So total employees who have children = 50 + 250 = 250
Hence the others (without children) = 900 – 250 = 650
i.e. these form 650/900 = 13/18^th part of employees

Question 15

A can do a piece of work in 8 days and B alone can do the same work in 10 days. A and B agreed to do the work together for ₹720. With the help of C, they finished the work in 4 days. How much C is to be paid?

A₹82

B₹72

C₹70

D₹80

B ₹72

Let the work be 40 units.
Using Rate = Work/Time:
Rate of A = 40/8 = 5 units/day
Rate of B = 40/10 = 4 units/day
Also combined rate of A, B and C = 40/4 = 10
Hence rate of C = 10 – 5 – 4 = 1 unit/day
Now they will receive money in proportion to their rates i.e. 5 : 4 : 1
So C will be paid 1/10^th of 720 = ₹72

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Question 16

A piece of cloth costs rupees 75. If the piece is four meters longer and each meter costs rupees 5 less, the cost remains unchanged. What is the length of the piece?

A10 meters

B6 meters

C8 meters

D12 meters

B 6 meters

Method-1:
We can quickly check the options one-by-one:
Option a: 10 metres
Each metre costs 75/10 = ₹7.5
Check: (7.5 – 5) x (4 + 10) = 2.5 x 14 = ₹35 which is not the same as actual cost.
Option b: 6 metres
Each metre costs 75/6 = ₹12.5
Check: (12.5 – 5) x (6 + 4) = 7.5 x 10 = ₹75 which is the same as actual cost!
Option c: 8 metres
Each metre costs 75/8 = ₹9.375
Check: (9.375 – 5) x (8 + 4) = 4.375 x 12 = ₹52.5 which is not the same as actual cost.
Option d: 12 metres
Each metre costs 75/12 = ₹6.25
Check: (6.25 – 5) x (12 + 4) = 1.25 x 16 = ₹20 which is not the same as actual cost.

Method-2:
Let the length of the piece be N metres.
Then cost per metre = 75/N
New cost per metre = 75/N – 5
New length = N + 4
Then, (75/N – 5)(N + 4) = 75
i.e. (75 – 5N)(N + 4) = 75N
i.e. 75N + 300 – 5N² – 20N = 75N
i.e. 5N² + 20N – 300 = 0
i.e. N² + 4N – 60 = 0
i.e. N² + 10N – 6N – 60 = 0
i.e. (N + 10)(N – 6) = 0
Since N cannot be negative, N must be 6.

Question 17

Praveen has Rs. 4,662 in the form of 2, 5 and 10 rupee notes. If these notes are in the ratio of 3:5:8, the number of five rupees notes with him is:

A250

B210

C336

D84

B 210

Let the number of notes of ₹2, ₹5 and ₹10 be 3n, 5n and 8n respectively.
Then, Value of ₹2 notes = 2 x 3n = 6n
Value of ₹5 notes = 5 x 5n = 25n
Value of ₹10 notes = 10 x 8n = 80n
Hence total value of all notes = 6n + 25n + 80n = 4662
i.e. 111n = 4662 or n = 4662/111 = 42
Hence number of ₹5 notes = 5 x 42 = 210

Question 18

Taps ‘A’ and ‘B’ can fill a tank in 37½ minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Both taps are opened and after some time tap ‘B’ is turned off.
The tank is filled completely in exactly 30 minutes, if tap ‘B’ is turned off after:

A10 minutes

B15 minutes

C12 minutes

D9 minutes

D 9 minutes

Let the capacity of the tank be 225 litres.
Using Rate = (Work or capacity)/Time we get:
Rate of A = 225/37.5 = 6 litres/minute
Rate of B = 225/45 = 5 litres/minute
Let tap B be turned off after N minutes.
Then, A & B will together fill for first N mins and then A alone will fill for remaining (30 – N) mins.
So, Work done by A and B together + Work done by A alone = Capacity of the tank
i.e. (6 + 5) x N + 6 x (30 – N) = 225
i.e. 11N + 180 – 6N = 225
i.e. N = 45/5 = 9 minutes
Hence tap B is turned off after 9 minutes.

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Question 19

‘A’ and ‘B’ complete a work in 12 days, ‘B’ and ‘C’ in 8 days and ‘C’ and ‘A’ in 16 days. ‘A’ left after working for 3 days. In how many days more will ‘B’ and ‘C’ finish the remaining work?

A7 ¾

B6 ⅚

C3 ¾

D4 ¾

D 4 ¾

Note that in this question it is not clear who begins the task. Does A alone start working or do all three start the work for the initial three days?
Let the work be 48 units. Also let A, B and C be the rates of the three persons respectively.
Using Rate = Work/Time we get:
A + B = 48/12 = 4 units/day          ... (1)
B + C = 48/8 = 6 units/day             ... (2)
C + A = 48/16 = 3 units/day          ... (3)
Adding these: 2(A + B + C) = 13
or A + B + C = 6.5
Using (1): 4 + C = 6.5 or C = 2.5 units/day
Using (2): A + 6 = 6.5 or A = 0.5 units/day
Using (3): B + 3 = 6.5 or B = 3.5 units/day
Now, initially A, B and C work together for 3 days.
So work done = (A + B + C) x 3 = 6.5 x 3 = 19.5 units
Hence, work left = 48 – 19.5 = 28.5 units
Now using Time = Work/Rate,
Time taken by B and C to finish remaining work = 28.5/6 = 4.75 days

Question 20

A trader sells rice at a profit of 20% and uses weights which are 10% less than the correct weight. The total gain earned by him is:

A331/3%

B222/9%

C30%

D35%

A 331/3%

Let the trader’s cost price of 1000 gms be ₹1000
Using the faulty weight he actually gives 1000 – 10% of 1000 = 900 gm
Also, profit = 20% means that the trader sells at SP = CP + profit
i.e. SP = 1000 + 20/100 x 1000 = ₹1200
So the trader charges ₹1200 for 900 gms
Hence, for 1000 gms he will charge 1200/900 x 1000 = 4000/3
So total gain% = (4000/3 – 1000)/1000 x 100 = 100/3 = 33¹/₃%

Question 1

Volvo has launched the world’s largest bus that can carry up to:

A260 passengers

B320 passengers

C150 passengers

D300 passengers

D 300 passengers

300 passengers

Question 2

Immediately before Antonio Guterres was appointed the U.N Secretary General in October 2016, he was:

AThe Prime Minister of Portuguese

BCommissioner General of UNRWA

CUnited Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights

DUnited Nations High Commissioner for Refugees

D United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees

United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees

Question 3

India emerged as ___________ largest holder of the U.S Government Securities at the end of 2016:

ATwelfth

BTwenty fourth

CFifteenth

DTwenty eighth

A Twelfth

Twelfth

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Question 4

Juno is the name of a:

ASolar powered space craft

BAtomic powered submarine

CHydrogen fuelled submarine

DHydrogen fuelled space craft

A Solar powered space craft

Solar powered space craft

Question 5

Among the following M.L.As, who was disqualified by the Governor during January 2017 under Article 192 of the Constitution for undertaking government contracts?

AUma Shankar Singh of Bihar

BJayalalithaa of Tamil Nadu

CP.C. George of Kerala

DSrinivas Prasad of Karnataka

A Uma Shankar Singh of Bihar

Uma Shankar Singh of Bihar

Question 6

Who called the immigration the ‘Trojan horse of Terrorism’?

ADonald Trump, President of the U.S

BAngela Merkel, Chancellor of Germany

CViktor Orban, Prime Minister of Hungary

DTheresa May, Prime Minister of U.K

C Viktor Orban, Prime Minister of Hungary

Viktor Orban, Prime Minister of Hungary

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Question 7

Solar Impulse – 2 is:

ASolar powered airplane that completed the first around the world

BImpact of climate change for overall increase of 2oC a year

CSolar powered ship

DHybrid airplane

A Solar powered airplane that completed the first around the world

Solar powered airplane that completed the first around the world

Question 8

The world’s first artificial intelligence lawyer, a robot, is named as:

ARoss

BWatson

CBoss

DIBM-LaBrain

A Ross

Ross

Question 9

Which of the following individuals was called a ‘deceptive actor’ by China’s foreign ministry during March 2017?

ASirisena

BDonald Trump

CNarendra Modi

DDalai Lama

D Dalai Lama

Dalai Lama

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Question 10

The bowler who has claimed the fastest 250 wickets in Cricket test matches is:

ADennis Lillee

BAnil Kumble

CRavichandran Ashwin

DRangana Herath

C Ravichandran Ashwin

Ravichandran Ashwin

Question 11

India’s third largest trading partner during 2016 is

ADubai

BKuwait

CU.A.E

DSaudi Arabia

C U.A.E

U.A.E

Question 12

Highest number of open prisons in India as on 2015 are in

AMaharastra

BTamil Nadu

CKerala

DRajasthan

D Rajasthan

Rajasthan

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Question 13

The Union Cabinet has recently approved the setting up of a Permanent Tribunal for resolving:

AInterstate water disputes

BInterstate boundary disputes

CElection disputes

DComplaints from three services

A Interstate water disputes

Interstate water disputes

Question 14

India’s voting rights at the International Monetary Fund increased from 2.3 % to

A2.8%

B2.4%

C2.5%

D2.6%

D 2.6%

2.6%

Question 15

Prithvi Defence Vehicle is

AThe name of India’s Nuclear Intercepter Missile

BThe name of an amphibious Naval vessel

CThe name of a newly developed tank

DThe name of a single seated aircraft developed by HAL

A The name of India’s Nuclear Intercepter Missile

The name of India’s Nuclear Intercepter Missile

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Question 16

Which of the following country enacted a law during August 2016 providing for the right to register the marriages of Hindus?

ASaudi Arabia

BAfghanistan

CIran

DPakistan

D Pakistan

Pakistan

Question 17

During 2017, which SAARC country has notified the Right to Information Act?

ASri Lanka

BNepal

CBhutan

DAfghanistan

A Sri Lanka

Sri Lanka

Question 18

Who has been selected for 2016 BC Roy Award?

ADr. N. Bhaskaran

BDr. P. Raghu Ram

CDr. Jagat Ram

DDr. J. Rajendra

B Dr. P. Raghu Ram

Dr. P. Raghu Ram

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Question 19

The Happiness Index Department or a Wing has been established in the states of:

AMadhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

BMadhya Pradesh and Goa

CAndhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh

DAndhra Pradesh and Sikkim

C Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh

Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh

Question 20

Which country offered asylum seekers 1,200 Euros to leave by withdrawing their application for protection?

ADenmark

BGermany

CItaly

DFrance

B Germany

Germany

Question 21

Among the following professors of Indian origin who has received Knighthood for the work as a co-inventor of next generation DNA Sequencing called Solexa Sequencing is?

ASatyendraNath Bose

BMehnad Saha

CShankar Balasubramanian

DP. C. Mahalanobis

C Shankar Balasubramanian

Shankar Balasubramanian

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Question 22

The Japanese Prime Minister who offered ‘sincere and everlasting condolences’ to the people of the United States for killing more than 2,400 soldiers in the attack on Pearl harbour was:

AShinzo Abe

BHayato Ikeda

CKakuei Tanaka

DJuniciro Koizumi

A Shinzo Abe

Shinzo Abe

Question 23

Among the following, who has won the maximum number of titles?

ASaina Nehwal

BSrikant

CP. V. Sindhu

DGopichand

A Saina Nehwal

Saina Nehwal

Question 24

How many billionaires India has lost since demonetization on November 8, 2016?

ATwo

BEight

CEleven

DEighteen

C Eleven

Eleven

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Question 25

COIN, a software programme developed by J. P. Morgan supports:

AFinancial accounting

BBitcoin

CInterpreting commercial documents

DRobotic surgery

C Interpreting commercial documents

Interpreting commercial documents

Question 26

Name the President elect of France who is likely to take the oath on 14 May 2017.

AFrancois Fillon

BEmmanuel Macron

CFrancois Holland

DMarine Le Pen

B Emmanuel Macron

Emmanuel Macron

Question 27

Which shoe company in the United States of America has won an IPR dispute against China recently for using their logo?

ANew Balance

BReebok

CAdidas

DNike

A New Balance

New Balance

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Question 28

According to the Survey Report released by Transparency International during March 2017 on India, the most corrupt are

AGovernment officials

BPolice

CLocal Councillors

DBusiness executives

B Police

Police

Question 29

With the development of Terahertz (THz) transmitter, it is expected to be faster than 5G mobile networks by:

AFour times

BFive times

CTen times

DTwo times

C Ten times

Ten times

Question 30

Which country 3D – Printed a home of 37 sq.mts?

ATaiwan

BSpain

CSouth Korea

DRussia

D Russia

Russia

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Question 31

As on 31st January 2016, the highest number of law colleges were present in:

AMaharashtra

BUttar Pradesh

CAndhra Pradesh

DMadhya Pradesh

B Uttar Pradesh

Uttar Pradesh

Question 32

The first country to have announced euthanasia of a child is:

AFinland

BBelgium

CNorway

DDenmark

B Belgium

Belgium

Question 33

The first country in the world to have begun shutting down the entire Frequency Modulation (FM) radio network to be replaced by Digital Audio Broadcasting is:

ANorway

BChina

CUnited States of America

DSwitzerland

A Norway

Norway

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Question 34

Which court has stayed the execution of death sentence of Kulbhushan Jadhav in May 2017?

AInternational Court of Justice

BSupreme Court of Pakistan

CSupreme Court of India

DInternational Criminal Court

A International Court of Justice

International Court of Justice

Question 35

The World Bank had cut India’s GDP growth for 2016 – 2017 to:

A7%

B7.6%

C8.6%

D8%

A 7%

7%

Question 36

World’s longest rail tunnel is about:

A32 kms.

B47 kms.

C23 kms.

D57 kms.

D 57 kms.

57 kms.

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Question 37

The first elected civilian President in Myanmar is:

AHtin Kyaw

BAung San Suu Kyi

CAung San

DKhin Ayi

A Htin Kyaw

Htin Kyaw

Question 38

The first Commercial Court and Commercial Disputes Resolution Centre was inaugurated at

ARaipur, Chattisgarh

BMumbai, Maharastra

CVisakapatinam, Andhra Pradesh

DAhmedabad, Gujarat

A Raipur, Chattisgarh

Raipur, Chattisgarh

Question 39

The Hubble telescope of NASA is located in

ANASA headquarters

BSpace

CIceland

DCanada

B Space

Space

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Question 40

The 2016 Nobel Peace Prize was won by the President of:

AColumbia

BSri Lanka

CUnited States of America

DSouth Africa

A Columbia

Columbia

Question 41

Among the following who was crowned as ‘Miss Supernational’ during 2016?

ASrinidhi Shetty

BAishwarya Rai

CShilpa Shetty

DAlia Bhat

A Srinidhi Shetty

Srinidhi Shetty

Question 42

‘Scorpion kick’ is a phrase used in

AKabaddi

BKung Fu

CKalari Fight

DKick Boxing

A Kabaddi

Kabaddi

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Question 43

Donald Trump is _____________ President of the United States.

A44th

B46th

C45th

D43rd

C 45th

45th

Question 44

Till the end of 2016, the total number of UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites in India is:

A18

B35

C42

D21

B 35

35

Question 45

NASA rediscovered India’s lunar spacecraft that was lost in the space during the past eight years known as:

AMangalayaan – I

BChandrayan – II

CMangalayaan – II

DChandrayan – I

D Chandrayan – I

Chandrayan – I

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Question 46

Japan is threatening to drag India to W.T.O on issues relating to the export of its:

ASteel

BElectronic goods

CTea

DSmall ships

A Steel

Steel

Question 47

In terms of steel production in the world during 2015 – 2016, India stood at:

AFourth

BThird

CFifth

DSecond

B Third

Third

Question 48

The first statue of a woman in Parliament Square in England is that of:

AMother Theresa

BMillicent Fawcett

CMargaret Thatcher

DQueen Elizabeth – II

B Millicent Fawcett

Millicent Fawcett

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Question 49

‘World’s longestall women Non-stop flight’ from New Delhi to San Francisco covering 14,500 kms was operated by:

AAmerican Airlines

BUnited Airlines

CAir India

DJet Airways

C Air India

Air India

Question 50

The top destination for domestic tourists in India for the past three consecutive years has been:

ARajasthan

BKerala

COrissa

DTamil Nadu

D Tamil Nadu

Tamil Nadu

Question 1

Who is a Dancer?

AC

BE

CD

DA

A C

Using clue (iii) we can infer that A and C cannot be a doctor and that three people prefer rice while two people prefer chappatis. Also, that B is not a painter. Also, since B likes chappati B cannot be a doctor. Also, D and E can only be a doctor or a painter. The table will look as follows -

Using (iv) we can infer that D and A are not a teacher. Since A prefers rice, teacher and D will prefer chappatis. From (iii) we know that the doctor prefers rice. Since, now we know that D likes chappati D cannot be a doctor and will be a painter and so E will be a doctor. Since B prefers chappatis , B could be either a painter or a teacher. Since D is a painter B will be a teacher. The updated table will look as follows:-

Using (v) we can conclude that C is not a singer. With this the table will be complete and will look as follows:-

C is the dancer.

Question 2

Who is a Singer?

AD

BA

CB

DC

B A

Using clue (iii) we can infer that A and C cannot be a doctor and that three people prefer rice while two people prefer chappatis. Also, that B is not a painter. Also, since B likes chappati B cannot be a doctor. Also, D and E can only be a doctor or a painter. The table will look as follows -

Using (iv) we can infer that D and A are not a teacher. Since A prefers rice, teacher and D will prefer chappatis. From (iii) we know that the doctor prefers rice. Since, now we know that D likes chappati D cannot be a doctor and will be a painter and so E will be a doctor. Since B prefers chappatis , B could be either a painter or a teacher. Since D is a painter B will be a teacher. The updated table will look as follows:-

Using (v) we can conclude that C is not a singer. With this the table will be complete and will look as follows:-

A is the singer.

Question 3

Who is a Teacher?

AD

BC

CB

DE

C B

Using clue (iii) we can infer that A and C cannot be a doctor and that three people prefer rice while two people prefer chappatis. Also, that B is not a painter. Also, since B likes chappati B cannot be a doctor. Also, D and E can only be a doctor or a painter. The table will look as follows -

Using (iv) we can infer that D and A are not a teacher. Since A prefers rice, teacher and D will prefer chappatis. From (iii) we know that the doctor prefers rice. Since, now we know that D likes chappati D cannot be a doctor and will be a painter and so E will be a doctor. Since B prefers chappatis , B could be either a painter or a teacher. Since D is a painter B will be a teacher. The updated table will look as follows:-

Using (v) we can conclude that C is not a singer. With this the table will be complete and will look as follows:-

B is the teacher.

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Question 4

Which of the following combination gets South-facing flats?

AU, R, P

BU, P ,T

CQ, T, S

Ddata inadequate

A U, R, P

From (iii) and (iv) we can conclude that S gets a north facing flat. From (ii) we get two possible scenarios. These are:-

U gets diagonally opposite flat to S and R gets a flat next to U. Also, T gets a north facing flat, this means that the north facing flats are Q, T and S and south facing flats are U, R and P. The possible cases are: -

So, U, R and P are south – facing flats.

Question 5

Whose flat is between Q and S?

AP

BR

CU

DT

D T

From (iii) and (iv) we can conclude that S gets a north facing flat. From (ii) we get two possible scenarios. These are:-

U gets diagonally opposite flat to S and R gets a flat next to U. Also, T gets a north facing flat, this means that the north facing flats are Q, T and S and south facing flats are U, R and P. The possible cases are: -

T is between Q and S.
From (iii) and (iv) we can conclude that S gets a north facing flat. From (ii) we get two possible scenarios. These are:-

U gets diagonally opposite flat to S and R gets a flat next to U. Also, T gets a north facing flat, this means that the north facing flats are Q, T and S and south facing flats are U, R and P. The possible cases are: -

The information is irrelevant as the only flat next to U will be R.

Question 6

If the flats of T and P are interchanged, who’s flat will be next to that of U?

AT

BR

CQ

DP

B R

From (iii) and (iv) we can conclude that S gets a north facing flat. From (ii) we get two possible scenarios. These are:-

U gets diagonally opposite flat to S and R gets a flat next to U. Also, T gets a north facing flat, this means that the north facing flats are Q, T and S and south facing flats are U, R and P. The possible cases are: -

The information is irrelevant as the only flat next to U will be R.

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Question 7

‘Only ignorant people believe in witchcraft’ is equivalent to:

AThere is no link between ignorance and witchcraft.

BSome ignorant persons are not those who believe in witchcraft.

CAll persons who believe in witchcraft are ignorant.

DNo ignorant persons are those who do not believe in witchcraft.

C All persons who believe in witchcraft are ignorant.

As per the statement given - Can you have any other group of people other than ignorant people who could believe in witchcraft? No. Therefore, anybody who believes in witchcraft has to be ignorant. For detailed theory on deductive logic refer to our theory books or get in touch with us at the number given on the website.

Question 8

‘There is no man that is not naturally good’ is equivalent to the proposition:

ASome men are not naturally good.

BAll men are naturally good.

CNo men are good.

DSome men are naturally good.

B All men are naturally good.

There is not even a single man who is not naturally good is equivalent to All men are naturally good.

Question 9

Find the odd one out from the following:

ACampaign

BCruise

CCrusade

DExpedition

B Cruise

Campaign means - a series of military operations intended to achieve a goal
Crusade means - a vigorous campaign for political, social, or religious change
Expedition means - an organized journey for a particular purpose
Cruise means - sail about in an area without a precise destination, especially for pleasure
As could be seen, cruise does not belong to the group.

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Question 10

Find the odd one out from the following:

AOnly choice

BClearly visible

COpen secret

DExact estimate

B Clearly visible

As per CLAT key the answer is 2.

Question 11

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

‘Some of the valuable books are seldom read’, means:

ASome of the valuable books are read.

BAll the valuable books are not read.

CSome of the valuable books are not read.

DAll the valuable books are read.

C Some of the valuable books are not read.

From some of the books are seldom read we can safely conclude that some valuable books are not read.

Question 12

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy is girl's:

ABrother

BSon

CSon-in-law

DUncle

A Brother

From the information provided there are two cases possible. In case 1 the son is the brother of the girl, in case 2 the son is the cousin of the girl. Since cousin and cannot be determined are not our choices we will go with brother as the correct choice.

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Question 13

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

Mare is to Horse as –

AGeese is to Duck

BDeer is to Buck

CPony is to Donkey

DSow is to Boar

D Sow is to Boar

The female of a horse is called a mare, similarly the female of a Boar is called Sow.

Question 14

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

If in a certain code, the word MILITARY is written as 12324567, then in the same code, the word TAIL will be written as:

A3254

B5432

C2345

D4523

D 4523

The pattern is M = 1, I = 2, L = 3, I = 2, T = 4 , A = 5, R = 6 and Y =7. The letters are already coded we just have to write their values. So TAIL will be written as 4523.

Question 15

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

If in a code language, ‘ABANDON’ is written as ‘aramoim’; ‘BORE’ iswritten as ‘rits’ and ‘BASIL’ is written as ‘rabut’, then what is the original word for the code: ‘bituo’?

ASOLID

BSOFIA

CNASIA

DSOMAD

A SOLID

If we observe this is a simple rearrangement of words in which the first term of the original is replaced by the first term of the replaced word. For example A of “ABANDON” becomes “a” of “aramoim” and d of “ABANDON” becomes “o” of “aramoim”. By this logic original word of ‘bituo’ will be ‘SOLID’.

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Question 16

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

In the series of alphabets given below, which is the missing alphabet series?

AX, DU, GR, ____, ML

AJN

BIK

CHQ

DJO

D JO

A of AX becomes D of DU, that is +3, and D of DU becomes D + 3 = G of GR. By this logic the first term of the missing word will be G + 3 = J.
X of AX becomes U of DU, that is -3, and U of DU becomes U – 3 = R of GR. By this logic the last term of the missing alphabet will become R – 3 = O. So the missing alphabets are JO.

Question 17

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

John wants to go the university. He starts from his house which is in the East and comes to a crossing. The road to his left ends in a theatre, straight ahead is the hospital. In which direction is the University?

ASouth

BNorth

CEast

DWest

B North

It is given that John starts from East but it is not mentioned towards which direction he moves. For lack of this information the answer should have been cannot be determined. However since that is not an option choice we will assume that he moved towards West. Using the given information we can come up with the following diagram –

Now we cannot place University unless we assume that the hospital, theater and the University are all in different directions. After doing so we can place University in North. This was an extremely vague question.

Question 18

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

A person who renounces religious or political belief or principle is called:

AApostle

BAscetic

CAntiquarian

Dapostate

D apostate

Apostle means - an important early Christian teacher or pioneering missionary, a vigorous and pioneering advocate or supporter of a particular policy, idea, or cause
Ascetic means - characterized by severe self-discipline and abstention from all forms of indulgence, typically for religious reasons
Antiquarian means - relating to or dealing in antiques or rare books
Apostate means - a person who renounces a religious or political belief or principle

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Question 19

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

Identify the statement which cannot be accepted

AAlmost one third of the human body is made up of water

BThe earth revolves around the sun in 366 days

CHuman race will become extinct sooner or later

DOdyssey is an ancient epic

A Almost one third of the human body is made up of water

The average adult human body is more than 34% water.

Question 20

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

Two ladies and two men are playing bridge and seated at North, East, South and West of a table. No lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to each other are not of the same sex. One man is facing South. Which direction are the ladies facing to?

AEast and West.

BNone of these.

CSouth and East.

DNorth and West.

D North and West.

From the information we’ll get the diagram as follows:-

So the two ladies are facing North and West.

Question 21

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

Sunil’s school bus is facing North when it reaches his school. After starting from Sunil’s house, it turned right twice and then left before reaching the school. What direction the bus was facing when it left the bus stop in front of Sunil’s house?

ANorth

BWest

CSouth

DEast

B West

The bus was facing west before leaving his house.

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Question 22

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

The birthday of Ms. Y was celebrated six days before Ms. X, who was born on 4th October 1999. The independence day of that year fell on Sunday. On which day did Ms. Y celebrate her birthday, if it was not a leap year?

ATuesday

BSunday

CWednesday

DMonday

A Tuesday

Ms Y’s birthday is 6 days before 4^th October, that is, on 28^th September. 15^th of August of this year was a Sunday. From 15^th of August to 28^th September we have a total of 44 days. 44/7 = 2 remainder or 2 odd days. So, 28^th September will be Sunday plus 2 = Tuesday.

Question 23

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

When Ravi saw Ramesh, he recalled, ‘He is the son of the father of my daughter’. Who is Ramesh?

AUncle

BBrother-in-law

CCousin

DBrother

B Brother-in-law

This is a question with all incorrect choices. As per the CLAT answer key the correct answer is 2.
The question “Who is Ramesh?” is vague. Even if we take the question as how is Ramesh related to Ravi the answer will be son which is not given in the option choices.

Question 24

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

What is meant by ‘Alliteration’?

AActs of an environmentally conscious person.

BWords which sound alike but have different meanings.

CAct of literary modification.

DThe occurrence of the same letter or sound at the beginning of adjacent or closely connected words.

D The occurrence of the same letter or sound at the beginning of adjacent or closely connected words.

Alliteration means - the occurrence of the same letter or sound at the beginning of adjacent or closely connected words

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Question 25

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

A man walks 1 km. towards East and then he turns to South and walks 5 kms. Again he turns to East and walks 2 kms. After this he turns to North and walks 9 kms. Now, how far is he from his starting point?

A5 kms.

B9 kms.

C4 kms.

D10 kms.

A 5 kms.

Distance = AC.
AC ²= AB ²+ BC ²; 3² + 4² = 25. AC = 5

Question 26

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

No parrots are black.
All crows are black.
From the above premises which one of the following conclusions is true?

ASome parrots are not crows.

BNo conclusion can be drawn.

CNo crows are parrots.

DSome crows are not parrots.

C No crows are parrots.

The option choices are weird in this question. Even 1 and 4 are correct. But since we can mark only one and 1 and 4 are basically making the same conclusion we will mark choice 3.

Question 27

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

In a company, 60 % workers are males. If the number of female workers in the company is 800, what is the number of male workers in the company?

A1600

B1200

C1900

D1400

B 1200

40% are females. This is equal to 800. So 60% will be equal to (800 x 60) / 40 = 1200.

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Question 28

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

Pointing to a photograph, Prakash said, ‘She is the daughter of my grandfather’s only son’ How is Prakash related to the girl in the photograph?

AUncle

BFather

CBrother

DCousin

C Brother

CLAT’s official key states 3 as the correct answer. The correct answer could be 3 or 4. In this year’s questions CLAT assumed only son to be the only child. Also, we had to assume Prakash to be a male.

Question 29

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

wave: crest as _________ : peak.

ARiver

Bland

CWater

DMountain

D Mountain

Crest is the top of a wave just like peak is the top of a mountain.

Question 30

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

Crumb : Bread is as

AWater : Vessel

BPowder : Face

CInch : Unit

DSplinter : Wood

D Splinter : Wood

Crumb is a small fragment of bread just like splinter is a small piece of wood.

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Question 31

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

________ is a hater of knowledge and learning.

AMystique

BMisologist

CMisogynist

DMoroccan

B Misologist

Misology is defined as the hatred of reasoning

Question 32

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

Ravi was showing a photograph to his friend, Gopi. Pointing at a boy in the photograph, Ravi said: ‘The boy sitting at the left is the son of the wife of the only son of the grandmother of my younger brother’. What is the relation between the boy in the photograph and Ravi?

ANephew and uncle

BFirst Cousins

CBrothers

DRavi’s brother-in-law

C Brothers

The question can be solved by using two interpretations:-
Interpretation 1 – only son of grandmother could imply she had only one child.

In this case the answer is they are brothers.
Interpretation 2 – only son of grandmother – she might have a daughter and Ravi could be the son of that daughter.

In this case they are cousins. Apparently CLAT marked the answers using first interpretation.

Question 33

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

Coding and decoding 9: 72 : : 8 : ?

A64

B34

C43

D18

A 64

9 x 8 = 72 , so 8 x 8 = 64.

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Question 34

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

In a military secret service map, South-East is shown as North, North East as West and so on. What will West become?

ANorth-West

BNorth-East

CSouth-West

DSouth-East

D South-East

If South East becomes North the other changes will be as follows:-

So West will become South East.

Question 35

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

How many times from 4 pm to 10 pm, the hands of a clock are at right angles?

A10

B11

C9

D6

B 11

In every hour the hands of a clock are at right angles twice. So in six hours, that is, from 4 to 10 they would be at right angles to each other 12 times. However, since 3 o clock is the common time in time range 2 to 3 and 3 to 4, thus we subtract this once due to repetition in counting. So 11 times the hands will be at right angle.

Question 36

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

If 27th March, 2011 was Sunday, what was the day on 27th June, 2011?

ASunday

BTuesday

CSaturday

DMonday

D Monday

Between 27^th March’2011 to 27^th June 2011 there are 92 days. So 92 / 7 = 1 is the remainder or one odd day. So 27^th June will be a Monday.

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Question 37

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

Pointing to a girl in the photograph, Ram said, ‘Her mother`s brother is the only son of my mother's father’. How is the girl`s mother related to Ram?

AMother

BSister

CGrandmother

DAunt

D Aunt

Again there are two ways by which one can go about solving this question –
Case 1: My mother’s father had only one daughter.

In this case the girl’s mother is also Ram’s mother.
Case 2: My mother’s father had one more daughter and the girl is the daughter of this person.

In this case the girl’s mother is the aunt of Ram.

Question 38

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

There were twelve dozens of chocolates with a shopkeeper. Ten chocolates were distributed by the shopkeeper to the children of his colony. The shopkeeper then added two more dozens of chocolates in his stock. If the shopkeeper divided the total chocolates equally in two different packets, then how many chocolates were there in each packet?

A152

B158

C89

D79

D 79

Initially the shopkeeper had twelve dozens of chocolates = 12 x 12 = 144.
He distributed 10 so he will be left with 134 chocolates. He added 2 dozens more, that is, 24. So now he has 134 + 24 = 158. He divided them equally in two packets, so each packet will have 158/2 = 79 chocolates.

Question 39

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

Vaishnavi prefers Economics to Maths, English to Social science, and Political Science to History. If she prefers Maths to History, and Social science to Maths, which is Vaishnavi’s least preferred subject?

AMaths

BHistory

CEconomics

DSocial science

B History

In this case it is better to work with options. Maths is preferred to History, Social Science to Maths and also Economics to Maths.

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Question 40

Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on, what will West become?

ANorth

BSouth-East

CEast

DNorth-West

B South-East

If South East becomes North the other changes will be as follows:-

So West will become South East.

Question 1

Principle: A contract would be invalid and unlawful, if the contract is for an immoral or illegal purpose.
Facts: P, was a young and helpless widow, living on the pavement. R, a neighbour gave her a house, registered in her name, on the condition that she should allow R to keep his smuggled goods and drugs in her house. After the registration was done, according to the condition in the contract, R’s agents went to keep some packets in her house, she refused. R told her the condition under which the house was given to her. She still refused. Is P justified in her action?

AR can take back the house by cancelling the transfer deed.

BP is right as she did not like smuggled goods to be kept in her house.

CP is not justified as she did not have the right to deny R’s request.

DAs R was making the contract for illegal activities, P’s stand is valid in law.

D As R was making the contract for illegal activities, P’s stand is valid in law.

Since as per the principle, any contract for immoral or illegal purpose would be invalid, hence P can refuse to keep smuggled goods and drugs in the house.

Question 2

Principle: Acceptance of a proposal must be absolute and unqualified.
Facts: ‘A’ made a proposal to sell his motorcycle to ‘B’ for rupees 25,000/.‘B’ agreed to buy it for rupees 24,000/.‘A’ sold his motorcycle to ‘C’ for 26,000/the next day. ‘B’ sues ‘A’ for damages.

A‘B’ will get the difference of rupees 1,000/only

B‘B’ can proceed against ‘C’

C‘B’ will not get any damages from ‘A’

D‘B’ will get damages from ‘A’

C ‘B’ will not get any damages from ‘A’

B will not get any damages from A because acceptance must be absolute and unqualified as given in the principle.

Question 3

Principle: Negligence is actionable in law. In simple terms, negligence is the failure to take proper care over something.
Facts: A, a doctor, conducted a hysterectomy sincerely on B and left a small cotton swab inside the abdomen. As a consequence of which B developed some medical problems and had to undergo another surgery. Is A liable?

AAs only a small swab was left in the abdomen, there was no negligence.

BA is not liable as he did not foresee any consequences at the time of surgery.

CLiability for negligence does not arise here as A performed the operation sincerely

DA is liable for the negligence as he failed to take proper care during the surgery.

D A is liable for the negligence as he failed to take proper care during the surgery.

A is liable for the negligence as he failed to take proper care during the surgery. The principle given is completely applicable over fact.

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Question 4

Principle: When a person consented to an act to be done by another, he cannot claim any damages resulting from doing that act, provided the act done is the same for which consent is given.
Facts: 'P' submitted a written consent to a surgeon 'S' for undergoing a surgical operation for removal of appendicitis. The surgeon while doing surgery also removed the gall bladder of 'A':

A'P' is not bound to pay expenses of the surgery

B'P' is required to pay expenses for surgery for Appendicitis but not for Gall Bladder

C'P' can claim damages from 'S'

D'P' cannot claim damages from 'S'

C 'P' can claim damages from 'S'

P can claim damages from S because the consent was given for the removal of appendicitis and not for the gall bladder.

Question 5

Principle: Ownership in property consists of right to possess, right to use, right to alienate and right to exclude others. Sale is complete when property gets transferred from the seller to the buyer on sale.
Facts: ‘A’ sold his car to ‘B’. After this, ‘B’ requested ‘A’ to keep the car in his care on behalf ‘B’ for one month. ‘A’ agreed.

ASale of car is not complete

BSale of car is complete.

CSale will be automatically completed after the expiry of one month

DSale will be completed when ‘B’ will take the delivery of the car.

B Sale of car is complete.

Sale of car is complete and it is absolutely immaterial that B asks A to keep the car on his behalf for a temporary period of time.

Question 6

Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence.
Facts: ‘A’, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill ‘B’. ‘B’ to save his life kills ‘A’.

A‘A’ has committed the offence of attempt to murder.

B‘B’ has not committed any offence.

C‘A’ has not committed an offence because he was mad.

D‘B’ has committed an offence.

B ‘B’ has not committed any offence.

B has not committed any offence because it is immaterial that against whom the right of private defence is exercised.

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Question 7

Principle: The Constitution of India guarantees certain fundamental rights to its citizens. The Constitution also provides that these rights cannot be taken away by state even by a law. For violation of this, the person adversely affected by the law may approach the High Court or the Supreme Court for the issuance of an appropriate writ. One of these rights includes the freedom to form association that implies the right to join an association or not to join such an association.
Facts: Owing to some industrial disturbances created by XATU, one of the several trade unions in AB Chemicals (Pvt) Ltd., the Company issued a circular to all its employees that as far as possible the employees may disassociate with XATU. Navin is an employee of AB Chemicals and the current General Secretary of XATU. Aggrieved by this circular, which affected the fundamental rights of his and other members of the Union, approaches the High Court of the state for a relief. Identify the most reasonable legal proposition.

ACircular issued by a Company amounts to law in the constitutional sense and hence the High Court can issue a writ as pleaded for by Navin.

BThe Company’s circular is illegal and has to be quashed by the Court.

CThe prohibition against any imposition of restriction against a fundamental right is not applicable to anybody other than the state and hence Navin will not get any relief from the High Court.

DThe circular interferes with the freedom guaranteed by the Constitution and hence the High Court can issue an appropriate writ.

C The prohibition against any imposition of restriction against a fundamental right is not applicable to anybody other than the state and hence Navin will not get any relief from the High Court.

The prohibition against any imposition of restriction against a fundamental right is not applicable to anybody other than the state and hence Navin will not get any relief from the High Court since Navin does not fall within the category of state as given in the principle.

Question 8

Principle: In criminal law, misappropriation is the intentional, illegal use of the property or funds of another person for one's own use or other unauthorized purpose, particularly by a public official, a trustee of a trust, an executor or administrator of a dead person's estate or by any person with a responsibility to care for and protect another's assets. Embezzlement is misappropriation when the funds involved have been lawfully entrusted to the embezzler. On the contrary, theft is the illegal taking of another person's property or services without that person's permission or consent with the intent to deprive the rightful owner of it.
Facts: A went for swimming at the Municipal Swimming Pool. A handed over all his valuables, including some cash to X, the guard on duty for safe custody, as notified by the Municipality. After swimming for an hour, A came out and searched for X. He found another guard on duty and that guard informed A that X had gone home after completing his shift and did not hand over anything to be given to A. A registered a complaint with the police. X was traced but he told the police that he sold all the valuables and the entire cash was used for drinking liquor. What offence, if any, was/were committed by X?

AX is liable for criminal misappropriation and embezzlement.

BX is not guilty of criminal misappropriation as he did not make any personal gain out of those items with him.

CIf at all X is liable, it is for criminal misappropriation only.

DX is liable for theft as he took A’s property without X’s permission.

A X is liable for criminal misappropriation and embezzlement.

X is liable for criminal misappropriation because he illegally used the property of another person for one’s own purpose and is liable for embezzlement because he was entrusted the valuable by A.

Question 9

Principle: Contract is a written or spoken agreement, with specific terms between two or more persons or entities in which there is a promise to do something in return for a valuable benefit known as consideration. Such an agreement is intended to be enforceable by law. A unilateral contract is one in which there is a promise to pay or give other consideration in return for actual performance.
Facts: A Toilet Soap Manufacturing Company in India in order to promote the sale of their product, published an advertisement in all the Newspapers on January 1, 2017 that the Company has kept a model ignition key of an Audi A3 Car. The advertisement also stated that whoever gets the said key before December 31, 2017 from a soap bar will be gifted with the Audi A3 Car. Mr. Martin, a foreigner who came to India as a Tourist who was staying in a Hotel found a Key similar to same Car Ignition Key. Mr. Martin brought this matter to the notice of the Hotel Manager. The Manager informed Mr. Martin about the Company’s advertisement on January 1, 2017. Mr. Martin wants to claim the Car.
Will he succeed?

AThe Hotel Manager who could legally claim the Car as he was the one actually purchased the soap for the use in the Hotel.

BNo. Actual intention of the Company was to promote the sale of the Soap.

CNo. The Soap Company has not entered into a contract with Mr. Martin as he was not in India on January 1, 2017 when the advertisement was published.

DMr. Martin obtained the Key before the stipulated date from the Soap Bar. So he is covered by the offer of the Soap Company and can claim the car.

D Mr. Martin obtained the Key before the stipulated date from the Soap Bar. So he is covered by the offer of the Soap Company and can claim the car.

Mr. Martin obtained the Key before the stipulated date from the Soap Bar. So he is covered by the offer of the Soap Company and can claim the car.

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Question 10

Principle: The concept of natural justice is against bias and for the right to a fair hearing. While the term natural justice is often retained as a general concept, and it has largely been replaced and extended by the general ‘duty to act fairly’.
Facts: ‘X’, a male employee of a company was dismissed by the employer just on the basis of a complaint by ‘Y’, a female employee of the company that ‘X’ was trying to be too friendly with her and often requested her to accompany him to the canteen. Is the dismissal of ‘X’ valid?

AYes, because men are not supposed to behave improperly with women and hence there is no violation of any principles of law

BYes, moral law is antique and therefore, not applicable in modern times, therefore the termination is valid and no violations of the principles of natural justice occurred

CNo, because the employer did not give a chance to ‘X’ to explain his side, thereby violated the principles of natural justice.

DNo, because in the modern times this type of behaviour is common

C No, because the employer did not give a chance to ‘X’ to explain his side, thereby violated the principles of natural justice.

No, because the employer did not give a chance to ‘X’ to explain his side, thereby violated the principles of natural justice.

Question 11

Principle: A violation of a legal right of someone, whether results in a legal injury or not, gives rise to an action in tort for compensation. At the same time, an action by someone, which results in some loss or damage to somebody else is not actionable, if there is no violation of a right of that somebody.
Facts: AB Coaching Centre was a popular CLAT coaching academy with several good trainers. A lot of aspirants used to attend its coaching classes from all over and was making good profit. This was going on for the past several years. During a session, T, one of the very good and popular trainers of ABCC, had some difference of opinion with the owner of ABCC and left the coaching centre. In August 2016, T started another Entrance Coaching Centre closer to ABCC which resulted in a substantial drop in its students and huge financial loss. The owner of ABCC wants to file a case against T for the loss sustained by ABCC. What do you think is the right legal position?

AT started the new coaching centre near ABCC intentionally, and shall be liable to compensate the loss of ABCC.

BT has not violated any of ABCC’s legal right though they sustained some financial loss, and not legally bound to compensate ABCC.

CT will be liable to compensate the loss to ABCC.

D‘T’ should have consulted ABCC before starting his coaching centre.

B T has not violated any of ABCC’s legal right though they sustained some financial loss, and not legally bound to compensate ABCC.

T has not violated any of ABCC’s legal right though they sustained some financial loss, and not legally bound to compensate ABCC because as per the principle if there is no violation of a right even if some loss is caused it is not actionable.

Question 12

Principle: Where one of the parties to a contract was in a position to dominate the decision of the other party, the contract is enforceable only at the option of the party who was in a position to dominate the decision of the other party.
Facts: A doctor asked his patient to make a payment of rupees Ten Lakh for treatment of his fever. The patient paid an amount of rupees Five Lakh and promised to pay the remaining amount after the treatment. After treatment the patient recovered from fever. The doctor demanded the remaining amount from the patient. The patient refused to pay.

AThe contract is enforceable against the doctor.

BThe contract is not enforceable as doctor was in dominating position.

CThe contract is enforceable against the patient by the doctor.

DThe contract is not enforceable without the consent of the patient.

C The contract is enforceable against the patient by the doctor.

The contract is enforceable against the patient by the doctor since as per the principle doctor is in the position to dominate the decision of the other party.

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Question 13

Principle: Every agreement, by which any party is restricted absolutely from enforcing his right in respect of any contract, by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary Tribunals, is void to that extent. The law also provides that nobody can confer jurisdiction to a civil court by an agreement between parties.
Facts: A and B entered into a valid contract for rendering certain service. A clause in the contract was that in case of any dispute arose out of the contract; it shall be referred to for Arbitration only. Is the contract valid?

AThe parties were trying to confer jurisdiction to some authority to decide a dispute and hence the clause would be invalid.

BArbitration is also a valid dispute settlement machinery recognized by law and hence the entire contract is valid.

CThe contract is valid but the clause regarding Arbitration is void.

DArbitrator cannot be termed as an ordinary Tribunal. Hence, the agreement is void and would be unenforceable.

B Arbitration is also a valid dispute settlement machinery recognized by law and hence the entire contract is valid.

Arbitration is also valid dispute settlement machinery recognized by law and hence the entire contract is valid. As given in the principle, the agreement does not absolutely restrict the parties from enforcing the right in respect of contract.

Question 14

Principle: It is a case of fraud where a party to a contract knows or believes a fact to be true, but conceals it actively from the other party with a view to induce that person to enter into the contract.
Facts: While taking a life insurance policy, in reply to questions by the insurance company during the inquiry into his proposal, Zameer deliberately concealed the fact of his medical treatment for a serious ailment, which he had undergone only a few weeks ago.

AThe act of Zameer did not amount to fraud, as disclosing the fact would have resulted in exposure of his privacy.

BThe concealment of fact by Zameer amounted to fraud.

CThe act of Zameer did not amount to any misrepresentation.

DThe act of Zameer amounted to innocent misrepresentation.

B The concealment of fact by Zameer amounted to fraud.

The concealment of fact by Zameer amounted to fraud because Zameer deliberately concealed the fact of his medical treatment for a serious ailment, which he had undergone only a few weeks ago.

Question 15

Principle: When a person falsifies something with the intent to deceive another person or entity is forgery and is a criminal act. Changing or adding the signature on a document, deleting it, using or possessing the false writing is also considered forgery. In the case of writing to fall under the definition, the material included must have been fabricated or altered significantly in order to represent something it is actually not.
Facts: John was a publisher of ancient books and papers. In one of his books on the World Wars, he gave photograph of some letters written by famous historic personalities. A researcher in history noted that in the pictures of some of the letters printed in the book, John had added some words or sentences in his own handwriting to give completeness to the sentences, so that the readers will get a clear picture of the writer’s intention. The researcher challenges the originality of those pictures and claims that the book containing the forged letters should be banned. Examine the validity of the researcher’s demand.

AAllowing forged publications to be circulated among the public is as good as committing fraud on the public, so the publication should be banned.

BThe additions in the letters were made by the publisher in his own handwriting would have made material alteration to the original meaning and hence amounted to forgery.

CThe additions were made to give clarity to the original document and did not in any sense change the contents of the documents and hence there is no forgery as alleged by the researcher.

DAs forgery amounts to adding or deleting anything from an original document, the demand of the researcher is valid.

C The additions were made to give clarity to the original document and did not in any sense change the contents of the documents and hence there is no forgery as alleged by the researcher.

The additions were made to give clarity to the original document and did not in any sense change the contents of the documents and hence there is no forgery as alleged by the researcher.

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Question 16

Principle: Whoever takes away with him any minor less than sixteen years of age if a male, or less than eighteen years of age if a female, out of the custody of parents of such minor without the consent of such parents, is said to commit no offence.
Facts: ‘A’, a man, took away a girl below sixteen years to Mumbai without informing the parents of the girl.

A‘A’ committed an offence against the girl as well as her parents

B‘A’ committed an offence against the girl.

C‘A’ committed no offence against the girl as well as her parents.

D‘A’ committed no offence against the parents of the girl.

C ‘A’ committed no offence against the girl as well as her parents.

Candidates are advised to be careful while reading such questions since the principle given here in is absolutely contrary to the general concept but since the act prescribed in the principle is no offence the candidate is suppose to mark accordingly. Therefore, ‘A’ committed no offence against the girl as well as her parents.

Question 17

Principle: There are legal provisions to give authority to a person to use necessary force against an assailant or wrongdoer for the purpose of protecting one’s own body and property as also another’s body and property when immediate aid from the state machinery is not readily available; and in so doing he is not answerable in law for his deeds.
Facts: X, a rich man was taking his morning walk. Due to the threat of robbers in the locality, he was carrying his pistol also. From the opposite direction, another person was coming with a ferocious looking dog. All of a sudden, the dog which was on a chain held by the owner, started barking at X. The owner of the dog called the dog to be calm. They crossed each other without any problem. But suddenly, the dog started barking again from a distance. X immediately took out his pistol. By seeing the pistol the dog stopped barking and started walking with the owner. However, X shot at the dog which died instantly. The owner of the dog files a complaint against X, which in due course reached the Magistrate Court. X pleads the right of private defence. Decide.

AThere was no imminent danger to X as the dog stopped barking and was walking with the owner. Hence, shooting it amounted to excessive use of the right of private defence and hence liable for killing the dog.

BAs there was no guarantee that the dog would not bark again, shooting it was a precautionary measure and hence within the right available to X under law.

CThe right of private defence is available to persons against assailants or wrongdoers only and a dog does not fall in this category.

DShooting a fierce dog is not to be brought under the criminal law. So the case should be dismissed.

A There was no imminent danger to X as the dog stopped barking and was walking with the owner. Hence, shooting it amounted to excessive use of the right of private defence and hence liable for killing the dog.

There was no imminent danger to X as the dog stopped barking and was walking with the owner. Hence, shooting it amounted to excessive use of the right of private defence and hence liable for killing the dog.

Question 18

Principle: A person is said to do a thing fraudulently, if he does that thing with intent to defraud, but not otherwise.
Facts: 'A' occasionally hands over his ATM card to 'B' to withdraw money for 'A'. On one occasion 'B' without the knowledge of 'A', uses 'A's ATM card to find out the balance in 'A's account, but does not withdraw any money.

A'B' has committed misappropriation

B'B' has committed the act fraudulently

C'B' has not committed the act fraudulently

D'B' has committed breach of faith

C 'B' has not committed the act fraudulently

'B' has not committed the act fraudulently because there was no intent to defraud, hence not liable.

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Question 19

Principle: Section 34 of Indian Penal Code provides that ‘When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone.’
Facts: Three vagabonds, Sanju, Dilbag and Sushil decided to commit burglary. In the night, Sushil opened the lock and they broke into a rich man’s house when the entire family was on a pilgrimage. Sanju had gone to that house earlier in connection with some cleaning job. There was only a servant lady in the house. Hearing some sounds from the master bed room, the servant switched on the lights and went up to the room from where she heard the sound. Noticing that the servant was going to cry for help, Sanju grabbed her and covered her mouth with his hands and dragged her into the nearby room. The other two were collecting whatever they could from the room. When they were ready to go out of the house, they looked for Sanju and found him committing rape on the servant. They all left the house and the servant reported the matter to the police and identified Sanju. Subsequently, all three were arrested in connection with the offences of house breaking, burglary and rape. Identify the legal liability of the three.

AAll three are liable for all the offences as there was common intention to commit the crimes.

BSanju will be liable only for housebreaking and rape as he did not participate in the burglary.

COnly Sanju will be liable for rape as he was the one who actually committed the offence.

DOnly Dilbag and Sushil are liable for burglary in looting the house, and all three will be liable for housebreaking and rape as they did not stop Sanju from committing the offence and hence were accomplice to the offence.

C Only Sanju will be liable for rape as he was the one who actually committed the offence.

Only Sanju will be liable for rape as he was the one who actually committed the offence. There is no common intention between Sanju, Dilbag and Sushil to commit rape.

Question 20

Principle: Every agreement, of which the object or consideration is opposed to public policy, is void. An agreement which has the tendency to injure public interest or public welfare is one against public policy. What constitutes an injury to public interest or public welfare would depend upon the times and the circumstances.
Facts: ‘A’ promises to obtain for ‘B’ an employment in the public service, and ‘B’ promises to pay rupees 5,00,000/-to ‘A’.

AThe agreement is valid, as it is with consideration for public service.

BThe agreement is valid, as it is a contract between two parties with their free consent.

CThe agreement is void because rupees 5,00,000/- is excessive.

DThe agreement is void, as the object and consideration for it is opposed to public policy.

D The agreement is void, as the object and consideration for it is opposed to public policy.

The agreement is void, as the object and consideration for it is opposed to public policy. Obtaining employment in public service for someone is unlawful as well as against public policy.

Question 21

Principle: If a party to a contract agrees to it under undue influence of any other party then the party under the undue influence may refuse to perform in accordance with the agreement.
Facts: A, a rich youngster became a member of a religious group and soon he was appointed by P the head of the group as his personal secretary. As per the rules of the group, all officials and staff of the group were supposed to stay in the group’s official premises itself. Some days later, A was asked by P to execute a Gift deed in favour of P, in which it was mentioned that all immovable properties in his name are being gifted to P. A was unwilling to execute the deed, but he was forcefully restrained by P and his body guards in P’s office and made A sign the gift deed. Soon after this A left the group and refused to hand over the property as agreed to in the gift deed. Is A’s action valid?

AAs the gift deed was executed by A, he cannot refuse.

BA executed the deed, under compulsion and undue influence, and was right in withdrawing from the contract.

CAs Gift is also a contract, the consent of A was not obtained by P while executing the deed.

DIt is illegal for religious groups acquire property from its members.

B A executed the deed, under compulsion and undue influence, and was right in withdrawing from the contract.

A executed the deed, under compulsion and undue influence, and was right in withdrawing from the contract.

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Question 22

Principle: Penal laws provide that whoever voluntarily has carnal intercourse against the order of nature with any man or woman, shall be punished for rape.
Facts: A Police Officer found a man engaged in carnal intercourse with an animal. The Police Officer arrested the man and produced him before the Court.

ACourt will not punish the man for rape.

BCourt will punish the police officer.

CCourt will not punish the police officer.

DCourt will punish the man for rape.

A Court will not punish the man for rape.

Court will not punish the man for rape because as per the given principle intercourse only with the man or woman constitutes rape but in the given case the man has committed intercourse with the anima, hence rape has not been committed.

Question 23

Principle: When a person makes such a statement which lowers other person's reputation in the estimation of other persons, is liable for committing defamation.
Facts: 'A' writes a letter to 'B' in which he uses abusive language against 'B' and also states that 'B' is a dishonest person. 'A' put the letter in a sealed envelope and delivered it to 'B'.

A'A' has committed defamation

B'A' has not committed moral wrong

C'A' has committed a moral wrong

D'A' has not committed defamation

D 'A' has not committed defamation

'A' has not committed defamation because the letter in the sealed envelope has only been delivered, it has not been opened yet and hence the principle is not applicable.

Question 24

Principle: When a person falsifies something with the intent to deceive another person or entity is forgery and is a criminal act. Changing or adding the signature on a document, deleting it, using or possessing the false writing is also considered forgery. In the case of writing/painting to fall under the definition, the material included must have been fabricated or altered significantly in order to represent something it is actually not.
Facts: David made a living traveling from city to city, selling paintings that he claimed were done by great artists. Since the artists’ signatures were in place, many people fell for them and purchased the paintings. One of these artists saw three of his alleged paintings in a City gallery containing his name. He knew these were not his works and he complained to the police. Police traced David and initiated legal proceedings. Is David guilty of any offence?

ADavid is not guilty of any offence as he was selling the art pieces for his living.

BThere is no point in taking legal action against David as the signature has not done any alteration to the art work.

CDavid is guilty of forgery as the addition of the signature was with an intention to make people believe that those were the paintings of the great artists.

DThose who buy the art pieces from David ought to have been careful in checking it and ensuring that they were originals before purchasing it.

C David is guilty of forgery as the addition of the signature was with an intention to make people believe that those were the paintings of the great artists.

David is guilty of forgery as the addition of the signature was with an intention to make people believe that those were the paintings of the great artists.

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Question 25

Principle: According to Sec. 2 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, ‘Industrial dispute means any dispute or difference between employers and employers or between employers and workmen or between work men and workmen, which is connected with the employment or non-employment or the terms of employment or with the conditions of labour of any person’.
Facts: The employees of DK Enterprises met the management and requested half a day leave to allow them to celebrate a lunar eclipse, which was going to happen two days later. The management refused the request. Does this situation amount to an ‘industrial dispute’?

ANo as Lunar eclipse is unconnected with employment.

BNo as declaring holidays is a prerogative of the employer. So no industrial dispute.

CYes, because there is some difference of opinion it would be an industrial dispute.

DAs the difference of opinion between the employees and employer is on declaration of holiday it amounts to an issue connected with employment or with the terms of employment and hence, an industrial dispute.

D As the difference of opinion between the employees and employer is on declaration of holiday it amounts to an issue connected with employment or with the terms of employment and hence, an industrial dispute.

As the difference of opinion between the employees and employer is on declaration of holiday it amounts to an issue connected with employment or with the terms of employment and hence, an industrial dispute.

Question 26

Principle: A master shall be liable for the fraudulent acts of his servants committed in the course of employment. However, the master and third parties must exercise reasonable care in this regard.
Facts: Rahul was a door to door salesman with United Manufacturing
Company (the Company). The Company was manufacturing Water Purifiers. Rahul, along with the Company’s products, used to carry Water Purifiers manufactured by his Cousin in a local Industrial Estate. He used to sell the local product at a lower rate giving the impression to the buyers that he is offering a discount on the Company’s product. The Company Management detected the fraudulent activity of Rahul and dismissed him from service. Rahul still continued to carry on with his activity of selling the local product pretending that he was still a salesman of the Company. Several customers got cheated in this process. The fraud was noticed by the Company when the customers began to complain about the product. The customers demanded the Company to compensate their loss.

AThe Company is liable to compensate all the customers as it did not inform the public about Rahul’s fraudulent conduct and the subsequent dismissal.

BThe Company is not liable as Rahul was dismissed by the Company.

CThe Company is liable to the customers who purchased the local product from Rahul only till he remained as a salesman of the Company.

DThe liability rests with the local manufacturer as it was a defective product.

A The Company is liable to compensate all the customers as it did not inform the public about Rahul’s fraudulent conduct and the subsequent dismissal.

The Company is liable to compensate all the customers as it did not inform the public about Rahul’s fraudulent conduct and the subsequent dismissal.

Question 27

Principle: When a person who has made a promise to another person to do something does not fulfill his promise, the other person becomes entitled to receive, from the person who did not fulfill his promise, compensation in the form of money.
Facts: ‘X’ made a promise to ‘Y’ to repair his car engine. ‘Y’ made the payment for repair. After the repair, ‘Y’ went for a drive in the same car. While driving the car, ‘Y’ met with an accident due to bursting of a tyre.

A‘X’ will be entitled to receive compensation from ‘Y’ in the form of money.

B‘Y’ will not be entitled to receive compensation from ‘X’.

C‘Y’ will be entitled to receive compensation from ‘X’ in the form of money.

D‘X’ will not be entitled to receive compensation.

B ‘Y’ will not be entitled to receive compensation from ‘X’.

‘Y’ will not be entitled to receive compensation from ‘X’ because Y met with an accident due to bursting of tire which was absolutely different from X’s promise to repair the car engine.

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Question 28

Principle: According to law, a person who find goods belonging to another and takes them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a bailee. Bailee is a person or party to whom goods are delivered for a purpose, such as custody or repair, without transfer of ownership. The finder of the goods legally can sell the goods found by him under certain circumstances including the situation that the owner refuses to pay the lawful charges of the finder.
Facts: P, a college student, while coming out of a Cricket stadium found a necklace, studded with apparently precious diamonds. P kept it for two days thinking that the owner would notify it in a local newspaper. Since he did not notice any such notification, P published a small classified advertisement in a local newspaper. In two days’ time, P was contacted by a film actor claiming that it was her Necklace and requested P to return it to her. P told her that she should compensate him for the advertisement charges then only he would return it otherwise he will sell it and make good his expenses. The film star told P that she had advertised in a national newspaper about her lost Necklace which was lost somewhere in the Cricket Stadium. The advertisement was published for three consecutive days incurring a large expenditure for her. Mentioning all this she refuses to pay P and claims the Necklace back. Which among the following is the most appropriate answer to this?

AP was requesting the film star for the actual expenditure incurred by him before returning the Necklace. This request is legally sustainable.

BAs it was wrong on the part of P to bargain over a property belonging to a celebrity and he should have accepted some gift which might have been given by the film star and returned the Necklace instead of threatening her that he would sell it.

CThe film star was right in refusing P, as she did not offer any reward for anyone who would return the Necklace.

DAs the film star had notified in the newspaper, P ought to have read it and contacted her instead of publishing another notification. So he cannot claim any compensation.

A P was requesting the film star for the actual expenditure incurred by him before returning the Necklace. This request is legally sustainable.

P was requesting the film star for the actual expenditure incurred by him before returning the Necklace. This request is legally sustainable.

Question 29

Principle: Assault is causing bodily injury to another person by use of physical force.
Facts: Rustum while entering into compartment of a train raised his fist in anger towards a person Sheetal, just in front of him in the row, to get way to enter into the train first, but did not hit him. Rustum has:

Acommitted an assault on Sheetal

Binsulted Sheetal

CRightly showed his anger

Dnot committed an assault on Sheetal

D not committed an assault on Sheetal

Rustom has not commited assault on Sheetal because no bodily injury has been caused to Sheetal by use of physical force.

Question 30

Principle: Under the Employees Compensation Act, 1923, an employer is liable to pay compensation to his workmen for injuries sustained by them by an accident arising out of and in the course of employment.
Facts: M, the Manager of SRK Industries asked his secretary S to submit a report at the Government Labour Office. ‘S’ submitted the report as directed. On his way back S met one of his class mates. He then decided to have a cup of tea together on a way side restaurant. Sometime later, ‘S’ got a message from his office to report back as it was long time since he left the office. ‘S’ rushed back on his Motor Cycle. On his way back a Truck which was coming from a side road hit ‘S’. He was admitted in a nearby hospital with multiple injuries. He claims compensation under the Employees Compensation Act from his employer.

AThe Employer is not liable as he was admitted in a private hospital and not a Government Hospital.

BThe Employer is not liable as the truck driver was negligent.

CThe Employer is liable to pay compensation as the accident took place arising out of and in the course of employment.

DThe Employer is liable as S had to rush back to the office, because of the message from the office.

C The Employer is liable to pay compensation as the accident took place arising out of and in the course of employment.

The Employer is liable to pay compensation as the accident took place arising out of and in the course of employment.

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Question 31

Principle: According to the law of trade unions in India, no suit or other legal proceeding shall be maintainable in any civil court against any registered trade union or any officer or member thereof in respect of any act done in contemplation or in furtherance of a trade dispute.
Facts: Soloman, the Secretary of a registered Trade Union took a loan from a Bank for the higher education of his daughter. Soon after completing the course she was married to an NRI Engineer. Solomon did not repay the loan. The Bank demanded the payments from Soloman and warned him that the Bank will take suitable legal action against him. Identify the legal position in this regard.

AThe Bank cannot initiate any action against Soloman as he is the Secretary of a Registered Trade Union.

BThe Bank can recover the loan amount from the Trade Union as Soloman is the Secretary of the Union.

CThe Bank can file a suit for recovery of the loan amount against Soloman as he took the loan for a personal purpose and in such case no immunity will work.

DAs Soloman did not use the loan amount for his use and hence, no action can be initiated against him.

C The Bank can file a suit for recovery of the loan amount against Soloman as he took the loan for a personal purpose and in such case no immunity will work.

The Bank can file a suit for recovery of the loan amount against Soloman as he took the loan for a personal purpose and in such case no immunity will work.

Question 32

Principle: An agreement, the terms of which are not certain, or capable of being made certain, is void.
Facts: Sunder agreed to take Bhola’s penthouse on rent for three years at the rate of rupees 12, 00,000/per annum provided the house was put to thorough repairs and the living rooms were decorated according to contemporary style.

AThere is no valid contract because it has vague and uncertain terms, as the term ‘present style’ may mean one thing to Sunder and another to Bhola.

BThere is a valid contract because all the terms of contract are certain and not vague as the rent is fixed by both of them and the term ‘present style’ only can be interpreted to mean the latest style.

CThere is a valid contract because there is an offer from Sunder and acceptance from Bhola

DIt is voidable contract at the option of Bhola.

A There is no valid contract because it has vague and uncertain terms, as the term ‘present style’ may mean one thing to Sunder and another to Bhola.

There is no valid contract because it has vague and uncertain terms, as the term ‘present style’ may mean one thing to Sunder and another to Bhola.

Question 33

Principle: According to law, a person is deemed to have attained the age of majority when he completes the age of 18 years, except in the case of a person where a guardian of a minor’s person or property has been appointed under the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 or where the superintendence of a minor’s property is assumed by a Court of Wards. Indian law expressly forbids a minor from entering into a contract. Hence, any contract entered into by a minor is void-ab-initio regardless of whether the other party was aware of his minority or not. Further, though a minor is not competent to contract, nothing in the Contract Act prevents him from making the other party bound to the minor.
Facts: Lal executed a promissory note in favour of Gurudutt, aged 16years stating that he would pay Gurudutt a sum of Rs. 2 Lakhs when he attains the age of majority. On attaining the age of 18, Gurudutt demanded the amount from Lal, who refused to pay. Gurudutt wants to take legal action against Lal. Identify the most appropriate legal position from the following:

AA promissory note duly executed in favour of a minor is not void and can be sued upon by him, because he though incompetent to contract, may yet accept a benefit.

BGurudutt should not have entered into a contract with Lal when he was a minor.

CLal was not aware of the fact that Gurudutt was a minor.

DLal argues that as per the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890, Gurudutt can claim the money only after he attains the age of 21.

A A promissory note duly executed in favour of a minor is not void and can be sued upon by him, because he though incompetent to contract, may yet accept a benefit.

A promissory note duly executed in favour of a minor is not void and can be sued upon by him, because he though incompetent to contract, may yet accept a benefit.

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Question 34

Principle: When a person interferes with peaceful possession of another person without the permission of the person in possession of those premises, commits trespass to land.
Facts: 'T' just walked over the land of 'P' to reach his house as it was a short cut. 'P' had displayed a notice that it is not a thoroughfare. 'P' did not cause any damage to the land.

A'T' has committed trespass to land

B'T' has not committed any trespass on the land of 'P'.

C'T' has violated privacy of 'P'

D'T' has created nuisance for 'P'

A 'T' has committed trespass to land

'T' has committed trespass to land because he has interfered with peaceful possession of another person without the permission of the person in possession of those premises. It is immaterial that damage has been caused to the land or not.

Question 35

Principle: An offer made by one party when accepted by another makes it a contract.
Transactions:
1. P offered to sell his house for Rs. 20 lakhs to R; R told P that he was interested to buy a house for 15 lakhs only.
2. C was looking for a house for not more than 25 lakhs; P informed C that his house was available for 20 lakhs.
3. K wanted to buy some old furniture; L told K that he would sell his furniture for Rs. 10, 000.
4. R advertised to sell his old car for a price of Rs. Three lakhs; S found the advertisement and offered to buy it for Rs. 2 lakhs 50 thousand; R agrees to sell it to S.
Which among the above is actually a contract?

ASituation 4 only is a contract

BSituations 1 and 2 are contracts

CSituation 3 only is a contract

DSituations 2 and 4 are contracts

A Situation 4 only is a contract

It is only in situation 4 that the principle given is being fulfilled as the offer given by S to buy car for Rs. 2 lakh 50 thousand has been accepted by R and he sells it to S consequently.

Question 36

Legal phrases are followed by four meanings. Choose the most appropriate option:

Paripassu

AOn equal footing

BSupremacy of law

CDiverse nature

DOn an unequal status

A On equal footing

On equal footing

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Question 37

Legal phrases are followed by four meanings. Choose the most appropriate option:

Malus animus

APhysical force

BGood intention

CAnimal farm

DBad intention

D Bad intention

Bad intention

Question 38

Legal phrases are followed by four meanings. Choose the most appropriate option:

In pari delicto

AWhere both parties to a dispute are equally at fault

BWhere the petitioner is at fault

CWhere the judge is at fault

DWhere the lawyer is at fault

A Where both parties to a dispute are equally at fault

Where both parties to a dispute are equally at fault

Question 39

Legal phrases are followed by four meanings. Choose the most appropriate option:

Lispendens

APending suit

BDecided case

CFacts of case proved

DNo legal issues involved

A Pending suit

Pending suit

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Question 40

Legal phrases are followed by four meanings. Choose the most appropriate option:

Per incuriam

AMistaken identity

BSupremacy of law

CSupremacy of the Constitution

DMistaken decision

D Mistaken decision

Mistaken decision

Question 41

Legal phrases are followed by four meanings. Choose the most appropriate option:

Bona vacantia

AVacant land

BOrder of the court for eviction

CVacant building

DGoods that have no owner

D Goods that have no owner

Goods that have no owner

Question 42

Legal phrases are followed by four meanings. Choose the most appropriate option:

‘PunctumTemporis’ means:

APoint of time

BTemporary position

CTimely assistance

DFunctional authority

A Point of time

Point of time

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Question 43

Legal phrases are followed by four meanings. Choose the most appropriate option:

Faux pas

ATactless mistake

BCheating

CPassage of time

DPausing for a while

A Tactless mistake

Tactless mistake

Question 44

Legal phrases are followed by four meanings. Choose the most appropriate option:

Caveat venditor

ATransporter beware

BBuyer beware

CManufacturer beware

DSeller beware

D Seller beware

Seller beware

Question 45

Legal phrases are followed by four meanings. Choose the most appropriate option:

Autrefois convict

ATo be convicted

BFormerly convicted

CFailed prosecution

DDoubtful conviction

B Formerly convicted

Formerly convicted

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Question 46

Legal phrases are followed by four meanings. Choose the most appropriate option:

Lex loci

AItalian laws

BLaw of a place

CDomestic laws

DLatin regualtions

B Law of a place

Law of a place

Question 47

Legal phrases are followed by four meanings. Choose the most appropriate option:

Animus posssidendi’ means:

AIntention to return

BIntention to harm

CIntention to possess

DIntent to contract

C Intention to possess

Intention to possess

Question 48

Legal phrases are followed by four meanings. Choose the most appropriate option:

‘JusGentium’ means:

ALaw among Nations

BGlobal administrative law

CLaw of Societies

DGlobal justice

A Law among Nations

Law among Nations

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Question 49

Legal phrases are followed by four meanings. Choose the most appropriate option:

‘Sine die’ means:

AAdjourned for the day and meet after one week.

BAdjourned without fixing any date for the next meeting.

CAdjourned for the day and meet after one month.

DAdjourned for the day and scheduled to meet next day again.

B Adjourned without fixing any date for the next meeting.

Adjourned without fixing any date for the next meeting.

Question 50

Legal phrases are followed by four meanings. Choose the most appropriate option:

Turpis arbiter’ means:

AInefficient lawyer

BCorrupt judge

CCorrupt prosecutor

DInefficient judge

B Corrupt judge

Corrupt judge

CLAT 2017 Question Paper With Solution

Section: Verbal Ability

Question 1

Question 2

Question 3

Question 4

Question 5

Question 6

Question 7

Question 8

Question 9

Question 10

Question 11

Question 12

Question 13

Question 14

Question 15

Question 16

Question 17

Question 18

Question 19

Question 20

Question 21

Question 22

Question 23

Question 24

Question 25

Question 26

Question 27

Question 28

Question 29

Question 30

Question 31

Question 32

Question 33

Question 34

Question 35

Question 36

Question 37

Question 38

Question 39

Question 40

Section: Quantitative Aptitude

Question 1

Question 2

Question 3

Question 4

Question 5

Question 6

Question 7

Question 8

Question 9

Question 10

Question 11

Question 12

Question 13

Question 14

Question 15

Question 16

Question 17

Question 18

Question 19

Question 20

Section: General Knowledge

Question 1

Question 2

Question 3

Question 4

Question 5

Question 6

Question 7

Question 8

Question 9

Question 10

Question 11

Question 12

Question 13

Question 14

Question 15

Question 16