Section: Verbal Ability
Question 1
Fill in the blanks in questions 1 to 5
Slavery was not done away ______ until the last century
Slavery was not done away ______ until the last century
A with
To ‘do away with’ something means to “get rid of” something.
Question 2
Fill in the blanks in questions 1 to 5
Does he not take _______ his father ?
Does he not take _______ his father ?
C after
To ‘take after’ somebody means to “resemble” somebody in appearance, temperament or character.
Question 3
Fill in the blanks in questions 1 to 5
We will have to take _______ more staff if we're to take on more work
We will have to take _______ more staff if we're to take on more work
D on
To ‘take on’ someone means to “employ” someone.
Question 4
Fill in the blanks in questions 1 to 5
Mother takes everything in her _______
Mother takes everything in her _______
C stride
To “take something in one’s stride” means “to calmly deal with something that is unpleasant and not let it affect what you are doing”.
Question 5
Fill in the blanks in questions 1 to 5
Sales have really taken ______ now.
Sales have really taken ______ now.
D off
When something ‘takes off’ it has “increased in activity very rapidly and to a large degree”.
Question 6
The constituent phrases of a sentence are jumbled up in question no. 6-8. Select the most appropriate sequence to make the sentence meaningful.
(i) built on the site of a church destroyed
(ii) in the hilly area of the city is the famous Shandon Steeple
(iii) the bell tower of St. Anne's Church
(iv) when the city was besieged by the Duke of Marlborough
(i) built on the site of a church destroyed
(ii) in the hilly area of the city is the famous Shandon Steeple
(iii) the bell tower of St. Anne's Church
(iv) when the city was besieged by the Duke of Marlborough
A ii, iii ,i, iv
CLAT’s official answer key marks “b” as the correct answer. However, as per the article that contains these sentences, the correct answer must be “a”.
"In the hilly area of the city is the famous Shandon Steeple, the bell tower of St. Anne's Church, built on the site of a church destroyed when the city was besieged by the Duke of Marlborough."
The commas were also not given in the question, and this makes this simple question a little complicated!
"In the hilly area of the city is the famous Shandon Steeple, the bell tower of St. Anne's Church, built on the site of a church destroyed when the city was besieged by the Duke of Marlborough."
The commas were also not given in the question, and this makes this simple question a little complicated!
Question 7
The constituent phrases of a sentence are jumbled up in question no. 6-8. Select the most appropriate sequence to make the sentence meaningful.
(i) no law giving effect to the policy of the state towards securing all or any of the principles laid in part IV
(ii) notwithstanding anything contained in Article 13
(iii) and no law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy shall be called in question in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such policy
(iv) shall be deemed to be void on the ground that it is inconsistent with or takes away or abridges any of the rights conferred by Article 14 or 19
(i) no law giving effect to the policy of the state towards securing all or any of the principles laid in part IV
(ii) notwithstanding anything contained in Article 13
(iii) and no law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy shall be called in question in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such policy
(iv) shall be deemed to be void on the ground that it is inconsistent with or takes away or abridges any of the rights conferred by Article 14 or 19
A ii, i, iii, iv
(i) should come before (iii) as “iii” talks about one more law.
(iv) concludes about these laws and so should be the last sentence.
So the answers could be “a” or “d”.
When we check for the flow of ideas, we can see that “a” is a better choice than “d”.
(iv) concludes about these laws and so should be the last sentence.
So the answers could be “a” or “d”.
When we check for the flow of ideas, we can see that “a” is a better choice than “d”.
Question 8
The constituent phrases of a sentence are jumbled up in question no. 6-8. Select the most appropriate sequence to make the sentence meaningful.
(i) neither House shall proceed further with the Bill,
(ii) if he does so, the houses shall meet accordingly
(iii) but the President may at any time after the date of his notification summon the Houses to meet in a joint silting for the purpose specified in the notification and,
(iv) where the President has under clause (I) ratified his intention of summoning the Houses to meet in a joint sitting,
(i) neither House shall proceed further with the Bill,
(ii) if he does so, the houses shall meet accordingly
(iii) but the President may at any time after the date of his notification summon the Houses to meet in a joint silting for the purpose specified in the notification and,
(iv) where the President has under clause (I) ratified his intention of summoning the Houses to meet in a joint sitting,
A iv, i, iii, ii
In this the pronoun “he” should come after the noun “President” – so choice “a” is the best answer.
Question 9
Substitute the underlined phrases with any of the given choices to express the opposite meaning in the sentences in questions number 9 - 11
She always praises everything I say.
She always praises everything I say.
A picks holes in
To ‘pick holes in something’ means to “find faults in it”, which is clearly the opposite of ‘praising’.
Question 10
Substitute the underlined phrases with any of the given choices to express the opposite meaning in the sentences in questions number 9 - 11
He often says how wonderful his school is?
He often says how wonderful his school is?
D runs down
To ‘run something down’ means to “criticize someone or something, often unfairly”, hence it is clearly the opposite of ‘says how wonderful’.
Question 11
Substitute the underlined phrases with any of the given choices to express the opposite meaning in the sentences in questions number 9 - 11
She said I was the best boss they'd ever had. It was obvious she was praising me sincerely.
She said I was the best boss they'd ever had. It was obvious she was praising me sincerely.
B befooling me
Clearly ‘to befool someone’ i.e. to deceive somebody is the opposite of “praising sincerely”.
Question 12
Identity the part of speech of the underlined words in the given sentences from Questions number 12 to 14
I must perfect the operation to make the perfect robot.
I must perfect the operation to make the perfect robot.
A verb
Since the word follows the modal verb ‘must’ it must also be a verb.
Question 13
Identity the part of speech of the underlined words in the given sentences from Questions number 12 to 14
A kindly person is one who behaves kindly.
A kindly person is one who behaves kindly.
C adverb
The underlined word describes (or modifies) the verb ‘behaves’ (how does she behave? kindly) so it must be an adverb.
Question 14
Identity the part of speech of the underlined words in the given sentences from Questions number 12 to 14
He is not normally a very fast runner, but he runs fast in major events.
He is not normally a very fast runner, but he runs fast in major events.
A adverb
The underlined word describes (or modifies) the adjective ‘fast’ here (how fast does she run? ‘Very’ fast) so it must be an adverb.
Question 15
What is the main theme of the story of Mtigone?
C One must be true to one's kins
Choices “a” and “d” can be easily eliminated.
Choice “c” is better here. Refer to the lines, 'Antigone asks her sister Ismene as it was a challenge to her royal blood. "Now it is time to show weather or not you are worthy of your royal blood".'
Choice “c” is better here. Refer to the lines, 'Antigone asks her sister Ismene as it was a challenge to her royal blood. "Now it is time to show weather or not you are worthy of your royal blood".'
Question 16
Why did Antigone decide to defy the orders of Creon?
C She felt she was bound by her heavenly obligation
From the last two lines, we get the actual motivation behind Antigone’s decision to defy Creon: "If I die for it what happiness! Live, if you will live, and defy the holiest of laws of heaven."
Question 17
What, in your opinion, would have been the logical end of the story?
D Antigone might have been executed for defying the order of the king
The penalty of death was promulgated against anyone who defies Creon’s order. Also Creon had resolved to make an example out of his brother. Hence, if Antigone has decided to go against Creon, the logical conclusion seems that she will be executed by Creon.
Question 18
What was the status of women in the contemporary society? They
C considered themselves inferior and subordinate to men
Ismene responded to Antigone by saying, “we are women, it is not for us to fight against men". From this we can conclude that women in that era accepted themselves to be weaker than men.
Question 19
Why did a civil war break out in Thebes? The war broke out because
C there was a fight among sons of Oedipus for the inheritance of the kingdom
From line 5 in the passage we can conclude that “c” is the correct answer to this question.
Question 20
A carrion bird is a bird
C which eats dead bodies
A carrion bird is one that feeds on dead bodies.
Question 21
Why did Creon deny decent burial to Polynices? He did so because
B Polynices fought against Creon
Line 7 clearly gives this as the reason for Creon’s decision to deny proper burial to Polynices.
Question 22
Why did Ismene not support Antigone? Ismene
A was weak and did not have the courage to defy orders of the powerful king
From lines 6 and 7 of second para we can infer that Ismene is a weak person (she has accepted herself to be weaker than men).
Question 23
Why did the Gods curse Oedipus? Because Oedipus
A killed his father and married his mother
Lines 1 to 3 of the opening para provides us with the answer.
Question 24
Does the story approve the principle of vicarious liability? If so how?
B Yes, it does, because of the acts of Oedipus his children suffered
Considering the given facts on strict terms and parameters of law there is no question of vicarious liability being invoked in the case.
Vicarious Liability is a civil law concept which arises in following two situations-
1. Where there exists a Master-Servant Relationship between two persons, and/or,
2. Where the exists Principal- Agent relationship and:
3. The Servant or Agent does any act authorised by and on behalf of his Master or Principal and:
4. Then if such Servant or Agent does something wrong in such course of employment then:
5. It is presumed that the wrongful act has been committed by Master or Principal and they are equally held liable.
The above essentials of vicarious liability are in no manner fulfilled by the facts of the passage.
Vicarious Liability is a civil law concept which arises in following two situations-
1. Where there exists a Master-Servant Relationship between two persons, and/or,
2. Where the exists Principal- Agent relationship and:
3. The Servant or Agent does any act authorised by and on behalf of his Master or Principal and:
4. Then if such Servant or Agent does something wrong in such course of employment then:
5. It is presumed that the wrongful act has been committed by Master or Principal and they are equally held liable.
The above essentials of vicarious liability are in no manner fulfilled by the facts of the passage.
Question 25
Select the meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases in sentences in questions 25 to 30
I have hit upon a good plan to get rid of him.
I have hit upon a good plan to get rid of him.
A found
The underlined portion here must be ‘hit upon’ which means to ‘discover or realize something’.
Question 26
Select the meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases in sentences in questions 25 to 30
He is sticking out for better terms.
He is sticking out for better terms.
D persists in demanding
The underlined portion here means “to continue to demand or try to get something”.
Question 27
Select the meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases in sentences in questions 25 to 30
He broke off in the middle of the story.
He broke off in the middle of the story.
C stopped suddenly
To ‘break off’ means to “stop suddenly”.
Question 28
Select the meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases in sentences in questions 25 to 30
He refused to be led by the nose.
He refused to be led by the nose.
C to follow submissively
To ‘lead somebody by the nose’ means to “control someone and make them do exactly what you want”.
Question 29
Select the meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases in sentences in questions 25 to 30
The new cotton mill is mortgaged up to the eve.
The new cotton mill is mortgaged up to the eve.
B completely
While the underlined portion is not exactly an idiom, we can infer its meaning contextually. ‘eve’ means ‘the period or day before an important event’, hence to be mortgaged “up to the eve” would mean to be mortgaged “right up to the final point i.e. completely”.
Question 30
Select the meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases in sentences in questions 25 to 30
When they embraced a new religion, it is safe to say they did it for loaves and fishes.
When they embraced a new religion, it is safe to say they did it for loaves and fishes.
C material benefits
The phrase ‘loaves and fishes’ refers to the “tangible benefits or rewards, especially when they serve as one's motivation for action”.
Question 31
Choose the correct spelling out of four choices in questions no. 31 to 35
A Misogynists
Misogynists
Question 32
Choose the correct spelling out of four choices in questions no. 31 to 35
D Arachnophobia
Arachnophobia
Question 33
Choose the correct spelling out of four choices in questions no. 31 to 35
B Cinnamon
Cinnamon
Question 34
Choose the correct spelling out of four choices in questions no. 31 to 35
A Alcohol
Alcohol
Question 35
Choose the correct spelling out of four choices in questions no. 31 to 35
B Bioclimatalogy
Bioclimatalogy
Question 36
Select the correct meanings of the given words in question number 36 to 40
Lexicon
Lexicon
C dictionary
dictionary
Question 37
Select the correct meanings of the given words in question number 36 to 40
Hex
Hex
D evil spell
evil spell
Question 38
Select the correct meanings of the given words in question number 36 to 40
Seminary
Seminary
B college
college
Question 39
Select the correct meanings of the given words in question number 36 to 40
Laity
Laity
D church members who are not ordained priests
‘Laity’ is derived from ‘lay people’ i.e. ‘distinct from the clergy/priests’.
Question 40
Select the correct meanings of the given words in question number 36 to 40
Litergy
Litergy
C ritual
The correct word here must be ‘liturgy’ which means “a form/formulary/ritual according to which public religious worship, especially Christian worship, is conducted”.
Section: Quantitative Aptitude
Question 1
Select one of the given numbers to replace question mark in the series in questions 181 to 183
2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21,?
2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21,?
A 22
Notice the pattern of the series.
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Question 2
Select one of the given numbers to replace question mark in the series in questions 181 to 183
117, 104, 91, 78, ?
117, 104, 91, 78, ?
C 65
The series has consecutive multiples of 13 in decreasing order.
117 (13 x 9), 104 (13 x 8), 91 (13 x 7), 78 (13 x 6)
Clearly the next number would be 13 x 5 = 65
Question 3
Select one of the given numbers to replace question mark in the series in questions 181 to 183
88, 96, 104, ?
88, 96, 104, ?
D 112
Difference of terms is constant i.e. 8.
88, 88 + 8 = 96, 96 + 8 = 104, 104 + 8 = 112
88, 88 + 8 = 96, 96 + 8 = 104, 104 + 8 = 112
Question 4
Ram borrows Rupees 520 from Govind at a simple interest of 13% per annum. What amount of money should Ram pay to Govind after six months to be absolved of the debt? Rupees
B 553.80
Using options: Option c and d can easily be ruled out, but options a and b are quite close so we will need to do the actual calculations in this question!
Here, P = 520, R = 13% per annum and T = 6 months = 6/12 or 0.5 years
SI for 6 months = (P x R x T)/100 = (520 x 13 x 0.5)/100 = 33.8
Hence amount to be returned = 520 + 33.8 = Rs. 553.8
Here, P = 520, R = 13% per annum and T = 6 months = 6/12 or 0.5 years
SI for 6 months = (P x R x T)/100 = (520 x 13 x 0.5)/100 = 33.8
Hence amount to be returned = 520 + 33.8 = Rs. 553.8
Question 5
Which of the following is a prime number?
A 19
19
Question 6
The square root of 289 is
B 17
Even if you don’t remember the square root, simply check the options.
Remember, 202 = 400 so options c and d can be eliminated.
Check to see that 132 = 169 and 172 = 289
Remember, 202 = 400 so options c and d can be eliminated.
Check to see that 132 = 169 and 172 = 289
Question 7
Find the factors of 330
D 2x3x5x11
Clearly 330 will be divisible by 11, that is missing in options b and c so these can be eliminated.
Now, 33 is also divisible by 3 (that is missing in option a) so option d must be the correct choice.
Question 8
Find the factors of 1122
B 3x11x17x2
Sum of digits = 1 + 1 + 2 + 2 = 6
So this number will not be divisible by 9, and so options a, c and d can be ruled out.
Hence option b must be the correct choice!
Question 9
Which of the following is not a prime number
D 21
21
Question 10
If the numbers from 1 to 24, which are divisible by 2 are arranged in descending order, which number will be at the 8th place from the bottom
C 16
The 12 numbers will be 24, 22, 20, 18, 16, 14, 12, 10, 8, 6, 4, 2
Hence 8th from the bottom would be 16.
Note: 1st from bottom will be 2 x 1, so 8th from the bottom will be 2 x 8 = 16
Hence 8th from the bottom would be 16.
Note: 1st from bottom will be 2 x 1, so 8th from the bottom will be 2 x 8 = 16
Question 11
Average age of ten persons learning yoga is 32 years. When the age of their instructor is added, the average age becomes 34 years. The age of their instructor is?
A 54
We know Average = Sum/N
Hence, Sum of ages of the 10 persons = Average x N = 32 x 10 = 320 years
When the age of the instructor is included, the average of 11 persons becomes 34 years.
Hence Sum of ages of 11 persons = 34 x 11 = 374 years
Clearly the age of the instructor will be the difference of these sums i.e. 374 – 320 = 54 years
Hence, Sum of ages of the 10 persons = Average x N = 32 x 10 = 320 years
When the age of the instructor is included, the average of 11 persons becomes 34 years.
Hence Sum of ages of 11 persons = 34 x 11 = 374 years
Clearly the age of the instructor will be the difference of these sums i.e. 374 – 320 = 54 years
Question 12
Find 12% of 5000
B 600
We want 12% of 5000 = 12/100 x 5000 = 12 x 50 = 600
Question 13
Square root of 400 is
C 20
Simply check option choices. (Most probably you will already know this and won’t need the options!)
Question 14
What is the place (location) value of 5 in 3254710 ?
D 50000
The place value of a digit is the value it holds in that number.
Hence, place value of 5 in 3254710 is 50000.
Hence, place value of 5 in 3254710 is 50000.
Question 15
6 x 3(3-1) is equal to
B 36
We have 6 x 3(3 – 1)
Using BODMAS rule:
= 6 x 3 x 2 = 36
Question 16
Y travels 15 kilometers due South, then 5 kilometers due west, then 18 kilometers due north, then 3 kilometers due south, then 5 kilometers due East. How far is he from the starting point?
C 0 kilometers
Question 17
Select appropriate numbers to fill in the blanks in the series given in questions no. 197 and 198
3, 9...... 6561
3, 9...... 6561
C 81
Here each term is the square of the term before it.
3, 32 = 9, 92 = 81, 812 = 6561
3, 32 = 9, 92 = 81, 812 = 6561
Question 18
Select appropriate numbers to fill in the blanks in the series given in questions no. 197 and 198
100, 50, 33.33 ,....., 20
100, 50, 33.33 ,....., 20
A 25
Divide 100 by N to get the Nth term
100, 100/2 = 50, 100/3 = 33.33, 100/4 = 25, 100/5 = 20
100, 100/2 = 50, 100/3 = 33.33, 100/4 = 25, 100/5 = 20
Question 19
Which of the following fractions has the highest value 3/5, 4/3, 2/5, 1/2
B 4/3
Clearly option b is the only one which exceeds 1 so it must have the highest value!
Question 20
Four gardeners with four grass mowers mow 400 square meters of ground in four hours. How long would it take for eight gardeners with eight grass mowers to mow 800 square meters of ground?
D 4 hours
Each gardener mows 400/4 = 100 square metre of ground in 4 hours.
So, 8 gardeners can mow 800 square metres of ground.
But each gardener will still take 4 hours! Hence time taken for the entire garden will still be 4 hours.
So, 8 gardeners can mow 800 square metres of ground.
But each gardener will still take 4 hours! Hence time taken for the entire garden will still be 4 hours.
Section: General Knowledge
Question 1
In Malaysia, the word 'Bhumiputra' refers to
A Malays
Malays
Question 2
What was the real name of Munshi Premchand?
B Dhanpat Rai
Dhanpat Rai
Question 3
Who is the author of Old Man and the Sea'?
D Ernest Hemingway
Ernest Hemingway
Question 4
Prophet Mohammed was born in
A 570 A.D.
570 A.D.
Question 5
When was the First World War declared?
A 1914
1914
Question 6
Deodhar trophy is given for the game of
A Cricket
Cricket
Question 7
Periyar Wild-Life sanctuary is situated in the state of
C Kerala
Kerala
Question 8
Napanagar in Madhya Pradesh is known for
D news print factory
news print factory
Question 9
Who destroyed the Somnath temple in Gujrat?
B Mahmud Ghaznavi
Mahmud Ghaznavi
Question 10
In Cape Trafalgar, the famous battle of Trafalgar was fought in 1805. Where is Cape Trafalgar situated?
C Spain
Spain
Question 11
Lumbini is the place where the Buddha
C was born
was born
Question 12
Galvanometer is an instrument to measure
B electric currents
electric currents
Question 13
Who wrote 'Mudra Rakshasa'?
A Vishakhadatta
Vishakhadatta
Question 14
The venue of Asian Games in 1970 was
C Bangkok
Bangkok
Question 15
1929 is known for
B congress resolution for complete independence of India
congress resolution for complete independence of India
Question 16
LN.S. Airavat is India's
A amphibious ship
amphibious ship
Question 17
Astra missile is
D air to air missile
air to air missile
Question 18
Nehm Institute of Mountaineering is situated at
D Uttarkashi
Uttarkashi
Question 19
The chief guest on the 60th Republic day of India was the President of
C Kajakistan
Kajakistan
Question 20
Which of the following was not the base of L.T.T.E. before being captured by Srilankan Forces'?
D Murid ke
Murid ke
Question 21
Who was given Col. C. K. Nayudu Life Time Achievement Award for 2007-2008 for exemplary contribution to cricket?
B Gundappa Vishwanath
Gundappa Vishwanath
Question 22
Who is the foreign minister of European Union?
A Baroness Ashlon
Baroness Ashlon
Question 23
Who is the author of `Godan'?
B Premchand
Premchand
Question 24
Which political party does Raj Babbar belong to?
C Congress
Congress
Question 25
In which year Bastille fell on 14 of July?
B 1789
1789
Question 26
Alberto Fujimori is the former president of
B Peru
Peru
Question 27
Which of the following is the national river of India?
C Ganga
Ganga
Question 28
The highest number of telephone users are in
A China
China
Question 29
The president of Maldives is
D Mohammed Nasheed
Mohammed Nasheed
Question 30
Arabinda Rajkhowa is a member of
D ULFA
ULFA
Question 31
The breakthrough in the ideas of Darwin on the evolution of species came after his visit to a cluster of islands, where he saw that each island supported its own form of finch. Name the islands'?
C Galapagos
Galapagos
Question 32
Mahatma Gandhi never became a Nobel Laureate, but he was nominated five times. In which of the following years he was not nominated?
C 1948
1948
Question 33
Which of the following countries has not, till the end of 2009, decoded the entire genome of a human being?
B Russia
Russia
Question 34
When was the University of Bombay established?
B 1857
1857
Question 35
Harare is the capital of
C Zimbabwe
Zimbabwe
Question 36
Before the Indian team left for Conference on Climate Change at Copenhagen, Jairam Ramesh announced that India would work for voluntary reduction of ___________ in energy intensity in 2020 compared to 2005.
B 20 to 25 percent
20 to 25 percent
Question 37
Which is the largest island in the world (if Australia is not considered an island)?
D Greenland
Greenland
Question 38
Indo-Pak summit between Parvez Musharraf and Atal Bihari Vajpayee was held in 2001 at
C Agra
Agra
Question 39
In May 2009, in the final of Sultan Azlan Shah Championship Indian men's Hockey team was defeated by
B Argentina
Argentina
Question 40
Which of the following is not a union territory?
A Tripura
Tripura
Question 41
Who was the founder editor of "Kesari"?
B Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Question 42
With whose permission did the English set up their first factory at Surat?
C Jahangir
Jahangir
Question 43
The group of nations known as G-8 started as G-7. Which among the following was not one of them?
C Russia
Russia
Question 44
Emperor Akbar the Great, died in the year
B 1605
1605
Question 45
What was the name of Emperor Shahjahan before he became Emperor?
B Khurram
Khurram
Question 46
Which of the following trees has medicinal value?
D neem
neem
Question 47
Identify the main principle on which the Parliamentary system operates?
C Rule of law
Rule of law
Question 48
Great tennis player Bjorn Borg belongs to which country?
D Sweden
Sweden
Question 49
Which of the following is the national song of India?
A Vande Mataram….
Vande Mataram….
Question 50
Which country was known as sick man of Europe?
C Turkey
Turkey
Section: Logical Reasoning
Question 1
In this question, two words are paired which have a certain relation. Select a correct option to substitute question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::)
Constituent Assembly : Constitution :: Parliament : ?
Constituent Assembly : Constitution :: Parliament : ?
A Statute
The Constituent Assembly was elected to write the constitution of India – similarly the Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body in India which passes statutes.
Question 2
In this question, two words are paired which have a certain relation. Select a correct option to substitute question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::)
Right : duty :: Power : ?
Right : duty :: Power : ?
D Liability
With rights comes duties similarly with power comes liability.
Question 3
In this question, two words are paired which have a certain relation. Select a correct option to substitute question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::)
Elephant : Calf :: Tiger: ?
Elephant : Calf :: Tiger: ?
C Cub
A young elephant is called a calf similarly a cub is a young tiger.
Question 4
In this question, two words are paired which have a certain relation. Select a correct option to substitute question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::)
Patient : Doctor :: Litigant :?
Patient : Doctor :: Litigant :?
D Lawyer
A patient visits a doctor similarly a litigant visits a lawyer.
Question 5
In this question, two words are paired which have a certain relation. Select a correct option to substitute question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::)
Prosecutor : Accused :: plaintiff : ?
Prosecutor : Accused :: plaintiff : ?
B Defendant
A prosecutor institutes legal proceeding against the accused similarly a plaintiff is a person who brings a case against the defendant.
Question 6
In this question, two words are paired which have a certain relation. Select a correct option to substitute question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::)
Lok Sabha : Meera Kumar :: Rajya Sabha : ?
Lok Sabha : Meera Kumar :: Rajya Sabha : ?
A Hameed Ansati
Meira Kumar was the speaker of Lok Sabha – Hameed Ansari was the chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Question 7
In this question, two words are paired which have a certain relation. Select a correct option to substitute question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::)
President of India : 35 :: Member of Parliament (Rajya Sabha) :
President of India : 35 :: Member of Parliament (Rajya Sabha) :
D 30
To be the President of India one has to be at least 35 years old. To be the member of Parliament Rajya Sabha one has to be 30 years old.
Question 8
In this question, two words are paired which have a certain relation. Select a correct option to substitute question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::)
India : Parliamentary System :: U.S.A. : ?
India : Parliamentary System :: U.S.A. : ?
B Presidential System
India is a parliamentary system where the executive branch derives its democratic legitimacy from its ability to command the confidence of the legislative branch, that is, a parliament and is also held accountable to the parliament. US on the other hand follows a presidential system where the executive is elected and is not responsible to the legislature.
Question 9
In this question, two words are paired which have a certain relation. Select a correct option to substitute question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::)
Executive : President :: Judiciary : ?
Executive : President :: Judiciary : ?
B Chief Justice
The head of the executive is the President, similarly the head of the Judiciary is the Chief Justice.
Question 10
In this question, two words are paired which have a certain relation. Select a correct option to substitute question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::)
World War II : United Nalions :: World War I : ?
World War II : United Nalions :: World War I : ?
C League of Nations
The League of Nations was an organization founded as a result of the Paris Peace Conference that ended the First World War.
Question 11
Statement I: School education has been made free for children of poor families
Statement II: Literacy rate among the, poor is steadily growing.
Statement II: Literacy rate among the, poor is steadily growing.
A (a)
One way to solve such questions is put "therefore" between the two sentences – this will help you to decide whether there exists a cause and effect relationship or not.
School education has been made free for children of poor, therefore, literacy rate among the, poor is steadily growing.
So I is the cause and II is the effect.
School education has been made free for children of poor, therefore, literacy rate among the, poor is steadily growing.
So I is the cause and II is the effect.
Question 12
Statement I: Hallmarking of gold jewellary has been made compulsory
Statement II: Many persons do not prefer to buy Hallmarked jewellary
Statement II: Many persons do not prefer to buy Hallmarked jewellary
C (c)
One way to solve such questions is put therefore between the two sentences – this will help you to decide whether there exists a cause and effect relationship or not.
"Hallmarking of gold jewelry has been made compulsory, therefore, many persons do not prefer to buy Hallmarked jewelry." There is no cause and effect relationship here.
"Many persons do not prefer to buy hallmarked jewelry, therefore, hallmarking of gold jewelry has been made compulsory." There is no cause and effect relationship here either.
Since there is no cause and relationship relationships the correct answer could be either “c” or “d”.
As per CLAT’s answer key the correct answer is “c” i.e. both are independent causes.
However, when there is no cause and effect relationship we would suggest that students mark the choice which states that both are independent effects (CLAT usually rewards this choice actually!).
"Hallmarking of gold jewelry has been made compulsory, therefore, many persons do not prefer to buy Hallmarked jewelry." There is no cause and effect relationship here.
"Many persons do not prefer to buy hallmarked jewelry, therefore, hallmarking of gold jewelry has been made compulsory." There is no cause and effect relationship here either.
Since there is no cause and relationship relationships the correct answer could be either “c” or “d”.
As per CLAT’s answer key the correct answer is “c” i.e. both are independent causes.
However, when there is no cause and effect relationship we would suggest that students mark the choice which states that both are independent effects (CLAT usually rewards this choice actually!).
Question 13
Statement I: Many vegetarians are suffering from stomach ailments.
Statement II: Many dead fish were found near the lake shore.
Statement II: Many dead fish were found near the lake shore.
D (d)
One way to solve such questions is put therefore between the two sentences – this will help you to decide whether there exists a cause and effect relationship or not.
Many vegetarians are suffering from stomach ailments, therefore, many dead fish were found near the lake shore.
Many dead fish were found near the lake shore, therefore, many vegetarians are suffering from stomach ailments.
From above statements we can see that there is no cause and relationship relationship, so the correct answer could be either “c” or “d”.
When there is no cause and effect relationship we suggest students to mark the choice which states both are independent effects i.e. "d".
Many vegetarians are suffering from stomach ailments, therefore, many dead fish were found near the lake shore.
Many dead fish were found near the lake shore, therefore, many vegetarians are suffering from stomach ailments.
From above statements we can see that there is no cause and relationship relationship, so the correct answer could be either “c” or “d”.
When there is no cause and effect relationship we suggest students to mark the choice which states both are independent effects i.e. "d".
Question 14
Statement I: Ahmed is a healthy boy
Statement II: His mother is very particular about the food he eats
Statement II: His mother is very particular about the food he eats
B (b)
One way to solve such questions is put therefore between the two sentences – this will help you to decide whether there exists a cause and effect relationship or not.
His mother is very particular about the food he eats, therefore, Ahmed is a healthy boy.
So II is the cause and I is the effect.
His mother is very particular about the food he eats, therefore, Ahmed is a healthy boy.
So II is the cause and I is the effect.
Question 15
Statement I: Rate of crime is very low in this city
Statement II: The police is efficient in this city
Statement II: The police is efficient in this city
B (b)
One way to solve such questions is put therefore between the two sentences – this will help you to decide whether there exists a cause and effect relationship or not.
The police is efficient in this city, therefore, rate of crime is very low in this city.
So II is the cause and I is effect.
The police is efficient in this city, therefore, rate of crime is very low in this city.
So II is the cause and I is effect.
Question 16
Statement: If Ram has finished reading the instructions, let him begin activities accordingly
Assumption I: Ram has understood the instructions
Assumption II: Ram would be able to act accordingly
Assumption I: Ram has understood the instructions
Assumption II: Ram would be able to act accordingly
C (c)
Both the assumptions are essential for the statement to be correct.
Question 17
Statement: Children below the age of seven should not be prosecuted for crimes.
Assumption I: Generally children below seven cannot distinguish between right and wrong.
Assumption II: Children below the age of seven are generally mentally unsound.
Assumption I: Generally children below seven cannot distinguish between right and wrong.
Assumption II: Children below the age of seven are generally mentally unsound.
A (a)
Only assumption I is implicit; the second one doesn’t make sense and is illogical.
Question 18
Statement: The employer has a right to reject the application of any candidate for employment without assigning any reason while short listing candidates for interview.
Assumption I: The employer is impartial and believes in transparency in employment practices.
Assumption II: The employer wants to call only those candidates for interview, who in his opinion are eligible.
Assumption I: The employer is impartial and believes in transparency in employment practices.
Assumption II: The employer wants to call only those candidates for interview, who in his opinion are eligible.
D (d)
If the employer is transparent he/she won’t mind sharing the reasons. II is not implicit as the employer can hire an applicant for other reasons too (as a favor to someone the employer knows, for instance).
Question 19
Statement: The government has decided to reduce custom duty on computers
Assumption I: The government wants to make computer accessible to larger number of people
Assumption II: Prices in domestic market may go up in near future
Assumption I: The government wants to make computer accessible to larger number of people
Assumption II: Prices in domestic market may go up in near future
A (a)
With the reduction in import duty, prices are expected to go down and so I is a possible assumption.
From the statement we can imply II – if at all the prices do go down in the future.
From the statement we can imply II – if at all the prices do go down in the future.
Question 20
Statement: You can win over new friends by your warm smile
Assumption I: It is necessary to win over new friends
Assumption II: It is always better to smile warmly to new persons
Assumption I: It is necessary to win over new friends
Assumption II: It is always better to smile warmly to new persons
D (d)
One may desire (or want) to have more friends but it is not necessary. From the statement it is difficult to imply II.
Question 21
Six students A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting. A and B are from Mumbai, rest are from Delhi. D and F are tall but others are short. A, C, and D are girls, others are boys. Which is the tall girl from Delhi?
B D
D and F are tall and others are short. This makes D the tall girl.
Question 22
P is the brother of Q. R is the sister of Q. S is the Sister of R. How is Q relatod to S?
C brother or sister
They all are siblings. From the information provided we cannot determine the gender of Q. So Q can be brother or sister of S.
Question 23
In this question, two sets of words have a certain relation. Select a word to replace the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the other word in the third set.
Cat-Kitten; Goat-kid; Sheep-?
Cat-Kitten; Goat-kid; Sheep-?
C lamb
Lamb is a young sheep just like kitten is a young cat and kid is a young goat.
Question 24
In this question, two sets of words have a certain relation. Select a word to replace the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the other word in the third set.
Cataract-eye; jaundice-liver; pyorrhea-?
Cataract-eye; jaundice-liver; pyorrhea-?
D teeth
Pyorrhea relates to teeth just like cataract relates to eyes and jaundice to liver.
Question 25
In this question, two sets of words have a certain relation. Select a word to replace the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the other word in the third set.
Blue-moon; blue-black; black-?
Blue-moon; blue-black; black-?
A sheep
Black Sheep means a member of a family or group who is regarded as a disgrace to it.
Question 26
A principle/principles and a fact situation are given in this question. Decide only on the basis of the principle(s).
Principles
(i) Neighbour principle-A person is liable if he harms his neighbour. A neighbour is one whose action affects another
(ii) One is liable only for contractual relations
Facts
X manufactures a food item and sells his food item to Y, a whole seller. Y appoints Z, a retailer to retail these items. Z sells the food item to a consumer who after eating them falls ill. X is liable to the consumer because
Principles
(i) Neighbour principle-A person is liable if he harms his neighbour. A neighbour is one whose action affects another
(ii) One is liable only for contractual relations
Facts
X manufactures a food item and sells his food item to Y, a whole seller. Y appoints Z, a retailer to retail these items. Z sells the food item to a consumer who after eating them falls ill. X is liable to the consumer because
C the consumer is the neighbor of X
As per the principle, a neighbor is a person whose action affects another.
In the given facts, X is the neighbor of Z since X’s act caused harm to Z.
So, X is liable.
In the given facts, X is the neighbor of Z since X’s act caused harm to Z.
So, X is liable.
Question 27
A principle/principles and a fact situation are given in this question. Decide only on the basis of the principle(s).
Principles
(i) Freedom consists in making choices out of two or more alternatives
(ii) Everyone has freedom to speak
Facts
X says his freedom to speech includes freedom not to speak. X's assertion is
Principles
(i) Freedom consists in making choices out of two or more alternatives
(ii) Everyone has freedom to speak
Facts
X says his freedom to speech includes freedom not to speak. X's assertion is
D right because X may opt to speak or not to speak
The most obvious opposite of 'freedom to speak' is 'freedom not to speak', hence, X may opt to speak or not to speak.
Question 28
A principle/principles and a fact situation are given in this question. Decide only on the basis of the principle(s).
Principles
(i) A master is liable for the wrongful acts of his servant
(ii) A person can be called a servant only if there is a relation of employment and he acts under the order and on behalf of his master
Facts
X bank launched a saving scheme for poor sections of the society and the customer can deposit Rs. 10 per day. Y an unemployed youth collected money from several customers, and on behalf of them deposited the money at the Bank every day. The bank gave to Y a small commission. After sometime, Y disappeared without depositing the money given by the customers. The customers bring a suit alleging that the Bank is liable.
Decide.
Principles
(i) A master is liable for the wrongful acts of his servant
(ii) A person can be called a servant only if there is a relation of employment and he acts under the order and on behalf of his master
Facts
X bank launched a saving scheme for poor sections of the society and the customer can deposit Rs. 10 per day. Y an unemployed youth collected money from several customers, and on behalf of them deposited the money at the Bank every day. The bank gave to Y a small commission. After sometime, Y disappeared without depositing the money given by the customers. The customers bring a suit alleging that the Bank is liable.
Decide.
C the Bank is not liable because Y was not their servant
Bank is not liable because Y was not their servant, there is no relation of employment nor is it the case that Y collected the money under the order and on behalf of his Bank.
Question 29
A principle/principles and a fact situation are given in this question. Decide only on the basis of the principle(s).
Principle
X propounds the principle that everyone in this world always speaks lies
Facts
X wants to know weather this principle is logically true or false
Principle
X propounds the principle that everyone in this world always speaks lies
Facts
X wants to know weather this principle is logically true or false
C logically X is also speaking lies.
logically X is also speaking lies.
Question 30
A principle/principles and a fact situation are given in this question. Decide only on the basis of the principle(s).
Principle
Whosoever enters into or upon the property in the possession of another, with intent to commit an offence or to intimidate or annoy any person in possession of the property, and remains there with intent thereby to intimidate or annoy another person or with intent to commit an offence is guilty of criminal trespass
Facts
The accused entered at night into a house to carry on intimate relations with an unmarried major girl on her invitation and information that her family members are absent. However, he was caught by her uncle before he could get away. Is the accused guilty of criminal trespass? He is
Principle
Whosoever enters into or upon the property in the possession of another, with intent to commit an offence or to intimidate or annoy any person in possession of the property, and remains there with intent thereby to intimidate or annoy another person or with intent to commit an offence is guilty of criminal trespass
Facts
The accused entered at night into a house to carry on intimate relations with an unmarried major girl on her invitation and information that her family members are absent. However, he was caught by her uncle before he could get away. Is the accused guilty of criminal trespass? He is
D not guilty of criminal trespass
Accused is not guilty of any offence as the essentials of criminal trespass are not strictly being fulfilled in the given facts. The accused entered into the house but with NO intention to commit an offence or to intimidate or annoy any person in possession of the property. Rather he went on invitation of a girl who is major. No offence is made out in light of the given principle.
Question 31
In a code every letter of the alphabet is replaced by some other letter. The code. for the name Ram Kumar is
A Ten Ronet
Ram Kumar – the code for Ram and mar should match in the options. Only in option “a” are these matched. The code for Ram is Ten; R = T, a = e, and m = n; mar in the option is coded as “net”. So “a” is the correct choice.
Question 32
Four of the giving five are alike in a certain way and form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group:
(I) 217 (II) 143 (III) 214 (IV) 157 (V) 131
(I) 217 (II) 143 (III) 214 (IV) 157 (V) 131
D III
It is the only even number.
Question 33
Four of the giving five are alike in a certain way and form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group:
(1) gourd (2) radish (3) spinach (4) cucumber (5) beetroot
(1) gourd (2) radish (3) spinach (4) cucumber (5) beetroot
D Spinach
Spinach is the only leafy vegetable.
Question 34
Point out the entry which does not form a class with the other entries.
C hypothecation
Mortgage generally refers to an immovable property whereas a hypothecation refers to a movable property.
Question 35
Point out the entry which does not form a class with the other entries.
C Morality
Morality is not a part of the group (Law, Court and Judge). It means principles concerning the distinction between right and wrong or good and bad behavior.
Question 36
Point out the entry which does not form a class with the other entries.
D Right to make contract
All the others are fundamental rights.
Question 37
Question: Should there be complete ban on manufacture of lire crackers in India?
Argument I: No, This will render thousands of workers jobless
Argument II: Yes, the fire cracker manufacturers use child labour
Argument I: No, This will render thousands of workers jobless
Argument II: Yes, the fire cracker manufacturers use child labour
A (a)
Argument I is strong - unless alternative employment opportunities are created, banning an industry will render workers jobless.
Argument II is weak - child labor can be eliminated by simply enforcing stringent laws and not necessarily banning the whole industry.
Argument II is weak - child labor can be eliminated by simply enforcing stringent laws and not necessarily banning the whole industry.
Question 38
Question: Should private operators be allowed to operate passenger train service in India?
Argument I: No private operators do not agree to operate on non profitable sectors.
Argument II: Yes, it will improve the quality of Indian Railway Service
Argument I: No private operators do not agree to operate on non profitable sectors.
Argument II: Yes, it will improve the quality of Indian Railway Service
B (b)
The question is whether private operators should be allowed or not.
I is weak as that is not an answer to the question posed - if allowed it will be a personal choice whether they want to operate or not.
II is a strong argument as it provides an answer to the question being asked.
I is weak as that is not an answer to the question posed - if allowed it will be a personal choice whether they want to operate or not.
II is a strong argument as it provides an answer to the question being asked.
Question 39
Question: Should the system of reservation of posts for scheduled castes be introduced in private sector?
Argument I: Yes, this would give more opportunity of development to these groups
Argument II: No, this would affect merit
Argument I: Yes, this would give more opportunity of development to these groups
Argument II: No, this would affect merit
C (c)
Argument I is strong as primary education is important and will help in the development of children from the backward classes.
II is also strong. If this is implemented without proper thought (say 50% reservation), it will then affect the merit as well as the overall quality of education in private schools as well.
II is also strong. If this is implemented without proper thought (say 50% reservation), it will then affect the merit as well as the overall quality of education in private schools as well.
Question 40
Question: Would the problem of old parents be solved if children are made legally responsible to take care of their parents in old age?
Argument I: Yes, such problems can be solved only through law.
Argument II: Yes this will bring relief to old parents.
Argument I: Yes, such problems can be solved only through law.
Argument II: Yes this will bring relief to old parents.
B (b)
Argument I is too extreme, whereas II gives a positive reason for implementing this. This will definitely bring relief to old parents, who are suffering because of neglect by their children.
Question 41
Question: Should right to primary education be made a fundamental right?
Argument I: We should first complete other developmental project, education of children may wait
Argument II: Yes, without primary education for all there cannot be inclusive development
Argument I: We should first complete other developmental project, education of children may wait
Argument II: Yes, without primary education for all there cannot be inclusive development
B (b)
I is weak as multiple projects can be done simultaneously. Further, it has not been established that other developmental projects will be more effective is achieving development goals as compared to investing in education.
II is strong as primary education lays the basic foundation that makes a person employable.
II is strong as primary education lays the basic foundation that makes a person employable.
Question 42
Pramesh is heavier than Jairam but lighter than Gulab. Anand is heavier than Gulab. Mohan is lighter than Javam. Who among them is the heaviest?
B Anand
Ascending order is Mohan, Jairam , Pramesh, Gulab, Anand.
Anand is heaviest amongst them.
Anand is heaviest amongst them.
Question 43
Ravi is the brother of Amit's son. How is Amit related to Ravi?
B Father
Ravi and Amit’s son are siblings, so Amit is Ravi’s parent.
Question 44
If CABLE is coded ZCDAY, then STABLE will be coded as
C TPCDAY
In CABLE and STABLE, the letters “ABLE” are common – So in ZCDAY and the correct choice, the last four letters should be common.
This happens in choice “c” i.e. CDAY are common in both.
This happens in choice “c” i.e. CDAY are common in both.
Question 45
If CHARTER is coded UMOEPYE then PARTNER will be coded as
D AOEPCYE
In the two words “ARTER” are common. These are coded as OEPYE – Only choice “d” matches this and is the correct answer.
Section: Legal Aptitude
Question 1
Which of the following judges had never been the chairman of the Law Commission of India?
A Justice R.C. Lahoti
Justice R.C. Lahoti had never been the Chairman of Law Commission of India. Law Commission of India is an executive body established by an order of the Government of India. Its major function is to work for legal reform. Its membership primarily comprises of legal experts, appointed by the Government. The Commission is established for a fixed tenure and works as an advisory body to the Ministry of Law and Justice.
Question 2
Who among the following was the first chief Information Commissioner of India?
A Wajahat Habibullah
Wajahat Habibullah was the first Chief Information Commissioner of India. The Commission includes 1 Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) and not more than 10 Information Commissioners (IC) who are appointed by the President of India.
Question 3
R.T.I. stands for
D Right to information
Right to Information (RTI) is an Act of the Parliament of India to provide for setting out the practical regime of right to information for citizens and replaces the erstwhile Freedom of information Act, 2002.
Question 4
Fiduciary relationship is relationship based on
B trust
Fiduciary relationship is a relationship in which one party places special trust, confidence, and reliance in and is influenced by another who has a fiduciary duty to act for the benefit of the party — also called confidential relationship.
Question 5
Human rights day is observed on
D 10th December
Human Rights Day is observed every year on 10 December. It commemorates the day on which, in 1948, the United Nations General Assembly adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
Question 6
‘No-fault liability' means
C absolute liability even without any negligence or fault
No-Fault Liability is the absolute legal responsibility for an injury that can be imposed on the wrongdoer without proof of carelessness or fault. Generally, a person is liable for his own wrongful acts and one does not incur any liability for the acts done by others. If an individual commits a fault, he is liable for it. However, there is a principle which claims an individual liable without his being at fault. This is the 'no fault liability principle'.
Question 7
An ‘encumbrance' in legal parlance is a
A liability on property
An encumbrance is a right to, interest in, or legal liability on real property that does not prohibit passing title to the property but that diminishes its value. Encumbrances can be classified in several ways. They may be financial (ex: liens) or non-financial (ex: easements, private restrictions).
Question 8
A husband and wife have a right to each other's company. This right is called
D conjugal right
Conjugal Rights mean Right to stay together. If either the husband or the wife, without reasonable excuses, withdraws from the society of the other, the aggrieved party may approach the Court for restitution of conjugal rights.
Question 9
Release of prisoner before completion of his sentence is called
B parole
Parole is a temporary release of a prisoner who agrees to certain conditions before the completion of the maximum sentence period, originating from the French parole ("voice", "spoken words"). The term became associated during the Middle Ages with the release of prisoners who gave their word.
Question 10
Result of successful prosecution is
B discharge
A formal declaration by the verdict or the decision of a judge in a court of law that someone is guilty of a criminal offence.
Question 11
The manager of waqf is known as
C Mutawalli
Wakf means the permanent dedication of a person, who professes the Mussalman faith, towards any property, for any purpose recognized by the Mussalman law as religious, pious or charitable.
There is an act as well for this: Mussalman Wakf Validating Act, 1913, which came into force on the 7th March 1913. It has a retrospective effect, and applies to all wakfs, whether create before or after the date. A wakf puts an end to the right of the wakif or dedicator and transfer the ownership to God and the mutawalli is a manager of the wakf but the property does not vest in him.
There is an act as well for this: Mussalman Wakf Validating Act, 1913, which came into force on the 7th March 1913. It has a retrospective effect, and applies to all wakfs, whether create before or after the date. A wakf puts an end to the right of the wakif or dedicator and transfer the ownership to God and the mutawalli is a manager of the wakf but the property does not vest in him.
Question 12
"Ipso facto" means
B by reason of that fact
Ipso facto literally means "by that very fact" in Latin, and it's often used in legal documents, although writers, philosophers, and scientists use it too.
Question 13
'Requisition' means
C taking control of property temporarily
Requisition is an official order laying claim to the use of property or materials.
Question 14
'Corroborative evidence' means
B evidence which supports other evidence
Corroborating evidence (or corroboration) is evidence that supports a proposition already supported by initial evidence, thereby confirming the original proposition. For example, W, a witness, testifies that she saw X drive his automobile into a green car.
Question 15
Ex parte decision means a decision given
D without hearing the opponent
Ex parte matters are usually temporary orders (like a restraining order or temporary custody) pending a formal hearing, or an emergency request for a continuance. Most jurisdictions require at least a diligent attempt to contact the other party's lawyer at the time and place of any ex parte hearing.
Question 16
Which of the following constitutions is a unitary constitution?
B British
Constitutions are either unitary or federal. A unitary system is governed constitutionally as one single unit, with one constitutionally created legislature. This means that all powers of the Government are centralized in one Government that is Central Government.
Question 17
Which of the following is not a fundamental right in India?
C right to property
The Constitution 44th Amendment Act, 1978 removed right to property as a fundamental right. It was instead made a constitutional legal right under Article 300A which states that "No person can be deprived of his property except by authority of law."
Question 18
Which of the following marriages is approved by Islamic law? Between a Muslim
A male and a Christian female
Islamic marriage rules between Muslim men and non-Muslim women are regulated by Islamic principles. There are restrictions to whom a Muslim man can marry. Muslim men are forbidden from marrying polytheist women. A polytheist woman would have to convert to Islam if she would want to get married to a Muslim man, according to Islamic principles. According to all four schools of Sunni law and Shia law, interfaith marriages are condoned only between a Muslim male and a non-Muslim female from the People of the Book (that is, Christians and Jews) and not vice versa.
Question 19
Which of the following constitutions when framed did not provide for judicial review?
C U.S.
In the United States, judicial review is the ability of a court to examine and decide if a statute, treaty or administrative regulation contradicts or violates the provisions of existing law, a State Constitution, or ultimately the United States Constitution. While the U.S. Constitution does not explicitly define a power of judicial review, the authority for judicial review in the United States has been inferred from the structure, provisions, and history of the Constitution. The Constitution of other countries subsequently borrowed the concept from US.
Question 20
Ratio decidendi means
B part of the judgment which possesses authoritv
Ratio decidendi (Latin plural rationes decidendi) is a Latin phrase meaning "the reason" or "the rationale for the decision". ... In other words, ratio decidendi is a legal rule derived from, and consistent with, those parts of legal reasoning within a judgment on which the outcome of the case depends.
Question 21
'Dyarchy' under the government of India Act 1919 meant
A division of powers between the central and provincial government
Government of India Act 1919 was passed by British Parliament to further expand the participation of Indians in the Government of India. Since the act embodied reforms as recommended by a report of Edwin Montagu (Secretary of State for India) and Lord Chelmsford (Viceroy and Governor General), it is also called as Montague-Chelmsford Reforms or simply Mont-Ford Reforms. The most notable feature of the act was “end of benevolent despotism” and introduction of responsible government in India. This act covered 10 years from 1919 to 1929.
Question 22
Fringe benefit tax is a tax
A paid by an employer in respect of the fringe benefits provided or deemed to have been provided by an employer to his employee
Fringe Benefit Tax (FBT) is fundamentally a tax that an employer has to pay in lieu of the benefits that are given to his/her employees. It was an attempt to comprehensively levy tax on those benefits, which evaded the taxman.
Question 23
Which of the following is not true about a criminal proceeding?
B the court may order the transfer of the ownership of the property
In a criminal proceeding the court cannot order the transfer of the ownership of the property. It can order to attach or seize a property but cannot order to transfer the ownership.
Question 24
In Ram v/s Shayam, Ram cannot be a
D prosecutor
Ram is a plaintiff if he files a civil case against Shyam. He can be an appellant in case he moves an appeal from subordinate to superior court. He can also be a prosecutor if he initiates prosecution against Shyam in a criminal case but he cannot be a defendant. Even if Shyam moves an appeal in the superior court court against Ram, Ram will be termed as a respondent and not the defendant.
Question 25
Cr.P.C. stands for
D Criminal Procedure code
Criminal Procedure Code (Cr.P.C)-1973 is the main legislation for conduct of proceedings against any person who has committed an offence under any Indian Criminal law. The object of Criminal Procedure Code is to provide machinery for the punishment of offenders against the substantive Criminal law.
Question 26
Medical Science used for investigating crimes is known as
C Forensic science
Forensic science is the application of science to criminal and civil laws, mainly—on the criminal side—during criminal investigation, as governed by the legal standards of admissible evidence and criminal procedure.
Question 27
A puisne judge of a High Court is
A a judge other than a Chief Justice
Puisne judge refers to a junior judge. Puisne judge is a judge without a distinction or title. This was the title formerly used in English common law courts for a judge other than a chief judge. Today also, puisne judge refers to any judge of the court, other than the chief justice.
Question 28
Intra vires means
A within the powers
If an act requires legal authority and it is done with such authority, it is characterised in law as intra vires ("within the powers"). If it is done without such authority, it is ultra vires.
Question 29
X, the servant of Y, takes a hundred rupee note from Y's pocket and hides it under the carpet in the house of Y X tells Z another servant of Y, about the currency note and both agree to share the money when the currency note is taken by X from the hiding place. Before X could recover the note, it was found by Y. Decide if an offence was committed and if so who committed the offence?
B Only X committed the offence
Basic essentials of crime are Mens Rea i.e. guilty intention and Actus Reus is the guilty act committed in pursuance of mens rea. In the given case only ‘X’ has accomplished both the essentials and is liable. ‘Z’ only has the knowledge that ‘X’ had stolen money but there is no actus reus on part of ‘Z’. If ‘Z’ would have found the currency note then both would have been liable but since ‘Y’ found his currency note only ‘X’ will be liable.
Question 30
Moots, in law schools, are
B legal problems in the form of imaginary cases, argued by two opposing students before a bench pretending to be a real court
Moot court is an extracurricular activity at many law schools in which participants take part in simulated court proceedings, usually involving drafting memorials or memoranda and participating in oral argument.
Question 31
Scheduled Tribe status is
B religiously neutral
The Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) are various officially designated groups of historically disadvantaged people in India. The terms are recognised in the Constitution of India and the various groups are designated in one or other of the categories. For much of the period of British rule in the Indian subcontinent, they were known as the Depressed Classes. The combined percentage of people in scheduled castes and scheduled tribes is essentially the official percentage of people in the lowest part of Indian society. Conferment of Schedule Tribe status has nothing to do with the religion of the community.
Question 32
Which of the following has not been a woman judge of the Supreme Court of India, till 2009?
B Justice Sujata Manohar
Justice Gyan Sudha Misra is a former Supreme Court judge of India. Justice Misra was elevated as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India on 30 April 2010. Justice Misra has passed several landmark and notable judgements in the Supreme Court of India including judgements on conflict of interest in the Srinivasan-BCCI matter, landmark euthanasia judgement - Aruna shaunbaug matter and most recently the Delhi Uphaar fire tragedy dissenting judgment holding the management liable for colossal loss of human lives and directing them to pay heavy compensation to be used for social causes like building trauma center.
Question 33
What is the meaning of chattel ?
C movable property
Chattel is an item of tangible movable personal property (as livestock or an automobile) that is not permanently connected with real estate.
Question 34
In a civil suit, the person who files suit and the person against whom the suit is filled are called
D plaintiff, defendant
The person suing is the plaintiff and the person against whom the suit is brought is the defendant.
Question 35
In a criminal case, an accused person, who in consideration of his non- prosecution offers to give evidence against other accused, is called
C approver
Approver is a participant in or accomplice to a crime being tried who gives evidence against his own fellow participants of crime on the condition that he will be treated favourably by the court.
Question 36
The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of
D all the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and all the elected members of all the Legislative Assemblies
A president is elected by an electoral college. This Electoral College consists of the following: Elected members of parliament (MPs from Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha), Elected members of State legislative, including that of NCT of Delhi and Pondicherry.
Question 37
Which of the following is not a fundamental right?
D right to work
The Indian Constitution does include the right to work (via Article 41) but this is not a part of the Fundamental Rights, figuring only in the Directive Principles.
Question 38
International Labour Organization has its headquarters at
B Geneva
The International Labour Organization (ILO) in Geneva is a United Nations agency dealing with labour problems, particularly international labour standards, social protection, and work opportunities for all. The ILO has 187 member states: 186 of the 193 UN member states plus the Cook Islands are members of the ILO.
Question 39
The Child Marriage Restraint Act 2006 is applicable to
C all irrespective of religion
If an adult male who is above 18 years of age contracts child marriage, he shall be punishable with rigorous imprisonment for 2 years or with fine which may extend to one lakh rupees or both. Religion of the offender is immaterial.
Question 40
X, a shopkeeper, leaves a sealed S kilogram bag of a branded wheat flour at the door of Y with a note "you will like this quality wheat flour and pay Rupees 100 for this bag" without being asked to do so. Y on coming back, collects the bag from his door, opens the seal of the bag, and usesa quarter of kilogram for making chapattis (unleavened bread). But next day returns the bag. Is he bound to pay for the bag ? He is
C bound to pay only for the quantity used
The question is based on the principle of Quantum meruit i.e. the latin for "as much as he deserves"; in other words, the actual value of services performed.
Quantum meruit determines the amount to be paid for services when no contract exists or when there is doubt as to the amount due for the work performed but done under circumstances when payment could be expected.
Quantum meruit determines the amount to be paid for services when no contract exists or when there is doubt as to the amount due for the work performed but done under circumstances when payment could be expected.
Question 41
Within the jurisdiction of which High Court does Lakshdweep fall
B Kerala High Court
The High Court of Kerala, Ernakulam is the High Court for Lakshadweep also.
Question 42
Which of the following is not the function of the International Court of Justice? It
B gives advisory opinion at the request of Security Council
The primary functions of ICJ: To settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted by States; and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized UN organs and specialized agencies; and interpreting treaties when considering legal disputes brought before it by nations. International crimes do not fall within the jurisdiction of ICJ.
Question 43
Bank nationalization case relates to the nationalization of
B some banks under a law during the Prime Ministership of Mrs. Indira Gandhi.
The Government of India issued an ordinance ('Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Ordinance, 1969') and nationalised the 14 largest commercial banks with effect from the midnight of 19 July 1969. These banks contained 85 percent of bank deposits in the country.
Question 44
Which of the following is not included within the meaning of intellectual property
D Properly of an intellectual
Intellectual property (IP) refers to creations of the mind, such as inventions; literary and artistic works; designs; and symbols, names and images used in commerce. It includes Patents, Copyright, Trademark, Geographical Indications, Industrial Designs etc.
Question 45
The main aim of the Competition Act 2002 is to protect the interests of
C the consumers
An Act to provide, keeping in view of the economic development of the country, for the establishment of a Commission to prevent practices having adverse effect on competition, to promote and sustain competition in markets, to protect the interests of consumers and to ensure freedom of trade.
