Section: Verbal Ability
Question 1
In the question, there are five sentences. Each sentence has pairs of 'phrases that are italicized and highlighted. From the italicized and highlighted select the most appropriate 'phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then, from the options given, choose the best one.
The further [A]/ farther [B] he pushed himself, the more disillusioned he grew.
For the crowd it was more of a historical [A]/historic [B] event; for their leader it was just another day.
The old has a healthy distrust [A]/mistrust [B] for all new technology.
The film is based on a worthy [A]/true [B] story.
She coughed discreetly [A]/discretely [B] to announce her presence.
The further [A]/ farther [B] he pushed himself, the more disillusioned he grew.
For the crowd it was more of a historical [A]/historic [B] event; for their leader it was just another day.
The old has a healthy distrust [A]/mistrust [B] for all new technology.
The film is based on a worthy [A]/true [B] story.
She coughed discreetly [A]/discretely [B] to announce her presence.
B ABBBA
In the first sentence, ‘further’ will be appropriate as an adverb in describing the degree of how he pushed himself. ‘farther’ which is a measure of distance will be inappropriate here.
In sentence two, ‘historic’ which means ‘famous or important in history’ will be appropriate to describe the event; ‘historical’ on the other hand refers to something that ‘concerns history or past events’.
In sentence three, we need to choose between distrust and mistrust. Note that both refer to a lack of trust – while distrust is usually founded on past experience or reliable information, mistrust refers to general uncertainty or unease (not necessarily based on experience). Hence in this sentence the latter will be more appropriate.
In sentence four, ‘true’ is a better adjective for ‘story’ than ‘worthy’.
In sentence five, ‘discreetly’ (which means ‘in a careful or prudent manner to keep something confidential or avoid embarrassment’) is more appropriate to describe a cough. On the other hand ‘discretely’ which means ‘in an individually separate and distinct manner’ is totally inappropriate here.
In sentence two, ‘historic’ which means ‘famous or important in history’ will be appropriate to describe the event; ‘historical’ on the other hand refers to something that ‘concerns history or past events’.
In sentence three, we need to choose between distrust and mistrust. Note that both refer to a lack of trust – while distrust is usually founded on past experience or reliable information, mistrust refers to general uncertainty or unease (not necessarily based on experience). Hence in this sentence the latter will be more appropriate.
In sentence four, ‘true’ is a better adjective for ‘story’ than ‘worthy’.
In sentence five, ‘discreetly’ (which means ‘in a careful or prudent manner to keep something confidential or avoid embarrassment’) is more appropriate to describe a cough. On the other hand ‘discretely’ which means ‘in an individually separate and distinct manner’ is totally inappropriate here.
Question 2
In the question, there are five sentences. Each sentence has pairs of 'phrases that are italicized and highlighted. From the italicized and highlighted select the most appropriate 'phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then, from the options given, choose the best one.
Regrettably [A]/ Regretfully [B] I have to decline your invitation.
The critics censored [A]/censured [B] the new movie because of its social unacceptability
He was besides [A]/beside [B] himself with range when I told him what I had done.
Anita had a beautiful broach [A]/brooch [B] on the lapel of her jacket.
He has the same capacity as an adult to consent [A]/assent [B] to surgical treatment.
Regrettably [A]/ Regretfully [B] I have to decline your invitation.
The critics censored [A]/censured [B] the new movie because of its social unacceptability
He was besides [A]/beside [B] himself with range when I told him what I had done.
Anita had a beautiful broach [A]/brooch [B] on the lapel of her jacket.
He has the same capacity as an adult to consent [A]/assent [B] to surgical treatment.
D BABAB
In the first sentence, ‘regretfully’ will be more appropriate as it expresses regret for one’s actions; ‘regrettably’ though is when the regret is on account of something that one had no control on!
In the second sentence ‘censured’ which means ‘to criticize or to express disapproval of’ is appropriate. On the other hand ‘to censor’ means ‘to examine a book/movie etc. and suppress unacceptable parts of it’ – which is clearly inappropriate here.
When somebody is ‘beside himself’, he or she is ‘almost out of one's senses from a strong emotion, like joy, delight, anger, fear, or grief’ – hence this would be appropriate in sentence three. On the other hand ‘besides’ means ‘moreover, furthermore or also’ which would be inappropriate in this sentence. Note that there is an error in this sentence – it should be ‘rage’ and not ‘range’.
In sentence four, ‘brooch’ is appropriate as it refers to ‘an ornament fastened to clothing’. On the other hand, ‘broach’ means ‘to raise a usually difficult subject in a discussion’.
In sentence five, the correct word would be ‘consent’ which means ‘to give permission’. On the other hand ‘assent’ means ‘express approval or agreement’. Do note that ‘consent’ is usually required and can be withheld, which gives the person who gives it greater power. On the other hand ‘assent’ is simply agreement with a statement made by another equal.
In the second sentence ‘censured’ which means ‘to criticize or to express disapproval of’ is appropriate. On the other hand ‘to censor’ means ‘to examine a book/movie etc. and suppress unacceptable parts of it’ – which is clearly inappropriate here.
When somebody is ‘beside himself’, he or she is ‘almost out of one's senses from a strong emotion, like joy, delight, anger, fear, or grief’ – hence this would be appropriate in sentence three. On the other hand ‘besides’ means ‘moreover, furthermore or also’ which would be inappropriate in this sentence. Note that there is an error in this sentence – it should be ‘rage’ and not ‘range’.
In sentence four, ‘brooch’ is appropriate as it refers to ‘an ornament fastened to clothing’. On the other hand, ‘broach’ means ‘to raise a usually difficult subject in a discussion’.
In sentence five, the correct word would be ‘consent’ which means ‘to give permission’. On the other hand ‘assent’ means ‘express approval or agreement’. Do note that ‘consent’ is usually required and can be withheld, which gives the person who gives it greater power. On the other hand ‘assent’ is simply agreement with a statement made by another equal.
Question 3
In the question, there are five sentences. Each sentence has pairs of 'phrases that are italicized and highlighted. From the italicized and highlighted select the most appropriate 'phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then, from the options given, choose the best one.
The prisoner's interment [A]/internment [B] came to an end with his early release.
She managed to bite back the ironic [A]/caustic [B] retort on the tip of her tongue.
Jeans that flair [A]/flare [B] at the bottom are in fashion these days.
They heard the bells peeling [A]/pealing [B] far and wide.
The students baited [A]/bated [B] the instructor with irrelevant questions.
The prisoner's interment [A]/internment [B] came to an end with his early release.
She managed to bite back the ironic [A]/caustic [B] retort on the tip of her tongue.
Jeans that flair [A]/flare [B] at the bottom are in fashion these days.
They heard the bells peeling [A]/pealing [B] far and wide.
The students baited [A]/bated [B] the instructor with irrelevant questions.
D BBBBA
‘interment’ refers to ‘burial of a corpse in a grave’ while ‘internment’ means ‘the state of being confined as a prisoner’, hence clearly ‘internment’ is appropriate in sentence one.
‘ironic’ refers to ‘something that happens contrary to expectations and that causes wry amusement’ while ‘caustic’ means ‘being sarcastic in a scathing or bitter way’. In sentence two, the latter is clearly more appropriate.
In sentence three, ‘flare’ is appropriate as it refers to ‘something that spreads out’. On the other hand ‘flair’ is an adjective that means ‘a special or instinctive ability to do something well’.
To ‘peel’ is to ‘remove the outer covering or skin’ while ‘peal’ refers to the ‘loud ringing of a bell’. Clearly, the latter is appropriate in sentence four.
To ‘bait’ someone means to ‘deliberately annoy or taunt’ them, while ‘bated’ means ‘in great suspense or anxiously’. In sentence five, clearly the former word is appropriate.
‘ironic’ refers to ‘something that happens contrary to expectations and that causes wry amusement’ while ‘caustic’ means ‘being sarcastic in a scathing or bitter way’. In sentence two, the latter is clearly more appropriate.
In sentence three, ‘flare’ is appropriate as it refers to ‘something that spreads out’. On the other hand ‘flair’ is an adjective that means ‘a special or instinctive ability to do something well’.
To ‘peel’ is to ‘remove the outer covering or skin’ while ‘peal’ refers to the ‘loud ringing of a bell’. Clearly, the latter is appropriate in sentence four.
To ‘bait’ someone means to ‘deliberately annoy or taunt’ them, while ‘bated’ means ‘in great suspense or anxiously’. In sentence five, clearly the former word is appropriate.
Question 4
Identify the incorrect sentence/sentences.
A) I want to do an MBA before going into business.
B) Priti’s husband has been on active service for three months.
C) The horse suddenly broke into a buckle.
D) I need to file an insurance claim.
A) I want to do an MBA before going into business.
B) Priti’s husband has been on active service for three months.
C) The horse suddenly broke into a buckle.
D) I need to file an insurance claim.
B C only
The expression ‘broke into a buckle’ does not make any sense here. The correct sentence should be something like ‘The horse suddenly broke into a gallop’.
Question 5
Identify the incorrect sentence/sentences.
A) I must run fast to catch up with him.
B) The newly released book is enjoying a popular run.
C) The doctor is on a hospital round.
D) You can't run over him like that.
A) I must run fast to catch up with him.
B) The newly released book is enjoying a popular run.
C) The doctor is on a hospital round.
D) You can't run over him like that.
B D only
The expression ‘run over him’ is incorrect in the fourth sentence. Usually this phrase means that you are knocking somebody down with a vehicle. However the sense of this sentence seems to be more on the lines of ‘You cannot dominate somebody in that manner’. The correct sentence would be “You can’t walk all over somebody like that”.
Question 6
Identify the incorrect sentence/sentences.
A) The letter was posted to the address.
B) Your stand is beyond all reasons.
C) How do you deal with friend who doesn't listen to a reason?
D) My wife runs profitable business in this suburb.
A) The letter was posted to the address.
B) Your stand is beyond all reasons.
C) How do you deal with friend who doesn't listen to a reason?
D) My wife runs profitable business in this suburb.
D C and D
Ideally besides the first sentence, all the other sentences given here are grammatically incorrect.
In the second sentence the phrase ‘beyond all reasons’ is an incorrect one. The sentence should be “Your stand is beyond all reason” which basically means that ‘your stand is wrong to a foolishly excessive degree’.
In the third sentence, the error is in relation to article usage. Remember that a singular uncountable noun must always be accompanied by an article. In this sentence, the singular countable noun ‘friend’ must be preceded by an article (preferably ‘a’). Also the phrase “doesn’t listen to a reason” has been used incorrectly – this must be “doesn’t listen to reason” which means ‘does not allow himself to be persuaded to act sensibly’. Thus the correct sentence should be “How do you deal with a friend who doesn’t listen to reason”.
In the fourth sentence, the error is again one of article usage – the singular countable noun ‘business’ needs to have an article preceding it. Thus the correct sentence would be “My wife runs a profitable business in this suburb”.
In the second sentence the phrase ‘beyond all reasons’ is an incorrect one. The sentence should be “Your stand is beyond all reason” which basically means that ‘your stand is wrong to a foolishly excessive degree’.
In the third sentence, the error is in relation to article usage. Remember that a singular uncountable noun must always be accompanied by an article. In this sentence, the singular countable noun ‘friend’ must be preceded by an article (preferably ‘a’). Also the phrase “doesn’t listen to a reason” has been used incorrectly – this must be “doesn’t listen to reason” which means ‘does not allow himself to be persuaded to act sensibly’. Thus the correct sentence should be “How do you deal with a friend who doesn’t listen to reason”.
In the fourth sentence, the error is again one of article usage – the singular countable noun ‘business’ needs to have an article preceding it. Thus the correct sentence would be “My wife runs a profitable business in this suburb”.
Question 7
Fill up the blanks numbered [1] [2] [3] [4] [5] and [6] in the passage given below the most appropriate from the options given for each blank.
Between the year 1946 and the year 1995, I did not file any income tax returns." With that [1] statement, Soubhik embarked on an account of his encounter with the Income Tax Department. "I originally owed Rs. 20,000 in unpaid taxes. With [2] and [3] the 20,000 became 60,000. The Income Tax Department then went into action, and I learned first-hand just how much power the Tax Department wields. Royalties and trust funds can be [4]; automobiles may be [5] and auctioned off. Nothing belongs to the [6] until the case is settled."
Fill up the blank [1]
Between the year 1946 and the year 1995, I did not file any income tax returns." With that [1] statement, Soubhik embarked on an account of his encounter with the Income Tax Department. "I originally owed Rs. 20,000 in unpaid taxes. With [2] and [3] the 20,000 became 60,000. The Income Tax Department then went into action, and I learned first-hand just how much power the Tax Department wields. Royalties and trust funds can be [4]; automobiles may be [5] and auctioned off. Nothing belongs to the [6] until the case is settled."
Fill up the blank [1]
B blunt
This statement starts by describing the previous statement, and the word in the blank would be an adjective that describes the statement. A quick look at the statement clarifies that this statement can definitely be called ‘devious’ or ‘pretentious’. Even ‘tactful’ is too much of a description for such a short statement. Hence the most appropriate word would be ‘blunt’.
Question 8
Fill up the blanks numbered [1] [2] [3] [4] [5] and [6] in the passage given below the most appropriate from the options given for each blank.
Between the year 1946 and the year 1995, I did not file any income tax returns." With that [1] statement, Soubhik embarked on an account of his encounter with the Income Tax Department. "I originally owed Rs. 20,000 in unpaid taxes. With [2] and [3] the 20,000 became 60,000. The Income Tax Department then went into action, and I learned first-hand just how much power the Tax Department wields. Royalties and trust funds can be [4]; automobiles may be [5] and auctioned off. Nothing belongs to the [6] until the case is settled."
Fill up the blank [2]
Between the year 1946 and the year 1995, I did not file any income tax returns." With that [1] statement, Soubhik embarked on an account of his encounter with the Income Tax Department. "I originally owed Rs. 20,000 in unpaid taxes. With [2] and [3] the 20,000 became 60,000. The Income Tax Department then went into action, and I learned first-hand just how much power the Tax Department wields. Royalties and trust funds can be [4]; automobiles may be [5] and auctioned off. Nothing belongs to the [6] until the case is settled."
Fill up the blank [2]
A interest
This blank and the next would be a description of why the amount payable as taxes changed from 20000 to 60000. Clearly ‘taxes’ would be inappropriate here. Also ‘principal’ and ‘return’ have no relation to the context of taxes. Hence the most appropriate word would be ‘interest’.
Question 9
Fill up the blanks numbered [1] [2] [3] [4] [5] and [6] in the passage given below the most appropriate from the options given for each blank.
Between the year 1946 and the year 1995, I did not file any income tax returns." With that [1] statement, Soubhik embarked on an account of his encounter with the Income Tax Department. "I originally owed Rs. 20,000 in unpaid taxes. With [2] and [3] the 20,000 became 60,000. The Income Tax Department then went into action, and I learned first-hand just how much power the Tax Department wields. Royalties and trust funds can be [4]; automobiles may be [5] and auctioned off. Nothing belongs to the [6] until the case is settled."
Fill up the blank [3]
Between the year 1946 and the year 1995, I did not file any income tax returns." With that [1] statement, Soubhik embarked on an account of his encounter with the Income Tax Department. "I originally owed Rs. 20,000 in unpaid taxes. With [2] and [3] the 20,000 became 60,000. The Income Tax Department then went into action, and I learned first-hand just how much power the Tax Department wields. Royalties and trust funds can be [4]; automobiles may be [5] and auctioned off. Nothing belongs to the [6] until the case is settled."
Fill up the blank [3]
D fines
Like the previous blank, this word too must be description of the amount payable to the Income Tax Department. ‘sanctions’ is totally irrelevant here (unless Soubhik is a nation of course!), and ‘refunds’ is contrary to the situation here. Also, ‘fees’ would be paid for a service that one avails of which is not the case here. Hence the most appropriate word would be ‘fines’.
Question 10
Fill up the blanks numbered [1] [2] [3] [4] [5] and [6] in the passage given below the most appropriate from the options given for each blank.
Between the year 1946 and the year 1995, I did not file any income tax returns." With that [1] statement, Soubhik embarked on an account of his encounter with the Income Tax Department. "I originally owed Rs. 20,000 in unpaid taxes. With [2] and [3] the 20,000 became 60,000. The Income Tax Department then went into action, and I learned first-hand just how much power the Tax Department wields. Royalties and trust funds can be [4]; automobiles may be [5] and auctioned off. Nothing belongs to the [6] until the case is settled."
Fill up the blank [4]
Between the year 1946 and the year 1995, I did not file any income tax returns." With that [1] statement, Soubhik embarked on an account of his encounter with the Income Tax Department. "I originally owed Rs. 20,000 in unpaid taxes. With [2] and [3] the 20,000 became 60,000. The Income Tax Department then went into action, and I learned first-hand just how much power the Tax Department wields. Royalties and trust funds can be [4]; automobiles may be [5] and auctioned off. Nothing belongs to the [6] until the case is settled."
Fill up the blank [4]
C attached
The word needed here must describe a course of action that applies to ‘royalties and trust finds’. Here ‘closed’ is irrelevant as we are not talking about an establishment, file etc that can be closed. Similarly, ‘impounded’ is usually used for a vehicle and can be eliminated in this context. Finally ‘detached’ is a word that means ‘disconnected’ or ‘aloof’ – both of which are irrelevant in this context. Hence the most appropriate word would be ‘attached’.
Question 11
Fill up the blanks numbered [1] [2] [3] [4] [5] and [6] in the passage given below the most appropriate from the options given for each blank.
Between the year 1946 and the year 1995, I did not file any income tax returns." With that [1] statement, Soubhik embarked on an account of his encounter with the Income Tax Department. "I originally owed Rs. 20,000 in unpaid taxes. With [2] and [3] the 20,000 became 60,000. The Income Tax Department then went into action, and I learned first-hand just how much power the Tax Department wields. Royalties and trust funds can be [4]; automobiles may be [5] and auctioned off. Nothing belongs to the [6] until the case is settled."
Fill up the blank [5]
Between the year 1946 and the year 1995, I did not file any income tax returns." With that [1] statement, Soubhik embarked on an account of his encounter with the Income Tax Department. "I originally owed Rs. 20,000 in unpaid taxes. With [2] and [3] the 20,000 became 60,000. The Income Tax Department then went into action, and I learned first-hand just how much power the Tax Department wields. Royalties and trust funds can be [4]; automobiles may be [5] and auctioned off. Nothing belongs to the [6] until the case is settled."
Fill up the blank [5]
B seized
The most appropriate word for this blank would be ‘siezed’. Note that this is a course of action prescribed for an automobile. Here ‘frozen’ is completely irrelevant. Also the word ‘smashed’ and ‘dismantled’, while applicable for an automobile are rarely actions that the Income Tax Department would recommend.
Question 12
Fill up the blanks numbered [1] [2] [3] [4] [5] and [6] in the passage given below the most appropriate from the options given for each blank.
Between the year 1946 and the year 1995, I did not file any income tax returns." With that [1] statement, Soubhik embarked on an account of his encounter with the Income Tax Department. "I originally owed Rs. 20,000 in unpaid taxes. With [2] and [3] the 20,000 became 60,000. The Income Tax Department then went into action, and I learned first-hand just how much power the Tax Department wields. Royalties and trust funds can be [4]; automobiles may be [5] and auctioned off. Nothing belongs to the [6] until the case is settled."
Fill up the blank [6]
Between the year 1946 and the year 1995, I did not file any income tax returns." With that [1] statement, Soubhik embarked on an account of his encounter with the Income Tax Department. "I originally owed Rs. 20,000 in unpaid taxes. With [2] and [3] the 20,000 became 60,000. The Income Tax Department then went into action, and I learned first-hand just how much power the Tax Department wields. Royalties and trust funds can be [4]; automobiles may be [5] and auctioned off. Nothing belongs to the [6] until the case is settled."
Fill up the blank [6]
B victim
The word in this blank would be the concerned party in the previously highlighted courses of actions. Hence ‘purchaser’, ‘victim’ and ‘investor’ are incorrect. The correct word here would be ‘offender’.
Question 13
Four alternative summaries are given the text. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.
Some decisions be fairly obvious-"no-brainers". Your bank account is law, but you have a two-week vacation coming up and you want to get away to some place to relax with your family. Will you accept your in-laws’ offer of free use of their Florida beachfront condo? Sure. You like your employer and feel ready to move forward in your career. Will you step in for your boss for three weeks while she attends a professional development course? Of course.
A. Some decisions are obvious under certain circumstances. You may, for example, readily accept a relative's offer of free holiday accommodation. Or step in for your boss when she is away.
B. Some decisions are no-brainers. You need not think when making them. Examples are condo offers from in- laws and job offers from bosses when your bank account is low or boss is away.
C. Easy decisions are called "no-brainers" because they do not require any cerebral activity. Examples Such as accepting free holiday accommodation abound in our lives.
D. Accepting an offer from in-laws when you are short on funds and a holiday is a no-brainer. Another no-brainer is taking the boss's job when she is away.
Some decisions be fairly obvious-"no-brainers". Your bank account is law, but you have a two-week vacation coming up and you want to get away to some place to relax with your family. Will you accept your in-laws’ offer of free use of their Florida beachfront condo? Sure. You like your employer and feel ready to move forward in your career. Will you step in for your boss for three weeks while she attends a professional development course? Of course.
A. Some decisions are obvious under certain circumstances. You may, for example, readily accept a relative's offer of free holiday accommodation. Or step in for your boss when she is away.
B. Some decisions are no-brainers. You need not think when making them. Examples are condo offers from in- laws and job offers from bosses when your bank account is low or boss is away.
C. Easy decisions are called "no-brainers" because they do not require any cerebral activity. Examples Such as accepting free holiday accommodation abound in our lives.
D. Accepting an offer from in-laws when you are short on funds and a holiday is a no-brainer. Another no-brainer is taking the boss's job when she is away.
A A
The author did not mention that easy decisions are to be called no brainers and so choice “c” is out.
Also no brainer does not mean you don’t have to think at all; it’s just that thinking and making decisions in certain circumstances are much easier – so choice “b” is also out.
Between “a” and “d” choice “a” is better because of the use of word “may”.
Also no brainer does not mean you don’t have to think at all; it’s just that thinking and making decisions in certain circumstances are much easier – so choice “b” is also out.
Between “a” and “d” choice “a” is better because of the use of word “may”.
Question 14
Four alternative summaries are given the text. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.
Physically, inertia is a feeling that you just can't move mentally, it is a sluggish mind. Even if you try to be sensitive, if your mind is sluggish, you just don't feel anything intensely. You may even see a tragedy enacted in front of your eyes and not be able to respond meaningfully. You may see one person exploiting another, one group persecuting another, and not be able to get angry. Your energy is frozen. You are not deliberately refusing to act; you just don't have the capacity.
A. Inertia makes your body and mind sluggish. They become insensitive to tragedies, exploitation, and persecution because it freezes your energy and decapacitates it.
B. When you have inertia you don't act although you see one person exploiting another or one group persecuting another. You don't get angry because you are incapable.
C. Inertia is of two types - physical and mental. Physical inertia restricts bodily movements. Mental inertia prevents response to events enacted in front of your eyes.
D Physical inertia stops your body from moving; mental inertia freezes your energy and stops your mind from responding meaningfully to events, even tragedies, in front of you.
Physically, inertia is a feeling that you just can't move mentally, it is a sluggish mind. Even if you try to be sensitive, if your mind is sluggish, you just don't feel anything intensely. You may even see a tragedy enacted in front of your eyes and not be able to respond meaningfully. You may see one person exploiting another, one group persecuting another, and not be able to get angry. Your energy is frozen. You are not deliberately refusing to act; you just don't have the capacity.
A. Inertia makes your body and mind sluggish. They become insensitive to tragedies, exploitation, and persecution because it freezes your energy and decapacitates it.
B. When you have inertia you don't act although you see one person exploiting another or one group persecuting another. You don't get angry because you are incapable.
C. Inertia is of two types - physical and mental. Physical inertia restricts bodily movements. Mental inertia prevents response to events enacted in front of your eyes.
D Physical inertia stops your body from moving; mental inertia freezes your energy and stops your mind from responding meaningfully to events, even tragedies, in front of you.
D D
As per the paragraph inertia is a sluggish mind – it is not mentioned that inertial makes our body sluggish – so choice “a” is out.
Choice “b” says that when you have inertia you don’t act – however the passage does not say that we do not act at all what it says is that we may not be able to respond meaningfully – so even choice “b” is out.
We cannot say from the passage that inertia is only of two types and so even choice “c” is eliminated.
Choice “d” is the best answer.
Choice “b” says that when you have inertia you don’t act – however the passage does not say that we do not act at all what it says is that we may not be able to respond meaningfully – so even choice “b” is out.
We cannot say from the passage that inertia is only of two types and so even choice “c” is eliminated.
Choice “d” is the best answer.
Question 15
For the word a contextual sentence is given. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context.
SPECIOUS: A specious argument is not simply a false one but one that has the ring of truth.
SPECIOUS: A specious argument is not simply a false one but one that has the ring of truth.
C Credible
‘Specious’ means ‘misleading in appearance’, hence its opposite would be ‘credible’ that means ‘able to be believed’.
Question 16
For the word a contextual sentence is given. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context.
OBVIATE: The new mass transit system may obviate the need for the use of personal cars.
OBVIATE: The new mass transit system may obviate the need for the use of personal cars.
D Bolster
‘Obviate’ means ‘remove a need or difficulty’, hence its opposite would be ‘bolster’ that means ‘support or strengthen’.
Question 17
For the word a contextual sentence is given. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context.
DISUSE: Some words fall into disuse as technology makes objects obsolete.
DISUSE: Some words fall into disuse as technology makes objects obsolete.
A Prevalent
‘Disuse’ means ‘not in use’ and hence its opposite would be ‘Prevalent’ which means ‘in use’.
Question 18
For the word a contextual sentence is given. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context.
PARSIMONIOUS: The evidence was constructed from every parsimonious scraps of information.
PARSIMONIOUS: The evidence was constructed from every parsimonious scraps of information.
D Altruistic
‘Parsimonious’ means ‘very unwilling to spend money or us resources’ so its closest opposite word would be ‘Altruistic’ which means ‘showing concern for well-being of others’.
Question 19
For the word a contextual sentence is given. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context.
FACETIOUS: When I suggested that war is a method of controlling population, my father remarked that I was being facetious.
FACETIOUS: When I suggested that war is a method of controlling population, my father remarked that I was being facetious.
A Jovian
‘Facetious’ means ‘flippant’ or ‘treating serious issues with deliberately inappropriate humour’. However, its exact opposite is not available in the options. ‘Jovial’, ‘Jocular’ and ‘Joking’ are obviously wrong. Hence the best choice would be ‘Jovian’.
Question 20
Answer the question based on the following information. Indicate which of the statements given with that particular question consistent with the description of unreasonable man in the passage below.
Unreasonableness is a tendency to do socially permissible things at the wrong time. The unreasonable man is the sort of person who comes to confide in you when you are busy. He serenades his beloved when she is ill.
He asks a man who has just lost money by paying a bill for a friend to pay a bill for him. He invites a friend to go for a ride just after the friend has finished a long car trip. He is eager to offer services which are not wanted, but which cannot be politely refused. If he is present at an arbitration, he stirs up dissension between the two parties, who were really anxious to agree. Such is the unreasonable man.
The unreasonable man tends to
Unreasonableness is a tendency to do socially permissible things at the wrong time. The unreasonable man is the sort of person who comes to confide in you when you are busy. He serenades his beloved when she is ill.
He asks a man who has just lost money by paying a bill for a friend to pay a bill for him. He invites a friend to go for a ride just after the friend has finished a long car trip. He is eager to offer services which are not wanted, but which cannot be politely refused. If he is present at an arbitration, he stirs up dissension between the two parties, who were really anxious to agree. Such is the unreasonable man.
The unreasonable man tends to
D tell a long story to people who have heard it many times before
Unreasonableness has been defined as doing something which is acceptable but at the wrong time or at a time when it will not be received positively by the receiver of the act. Amongst the choices option “d” goes in the spirit of the examples shared by the author.
Question 21
Answer the question based on the following information. Indicate which of the statements given with that particular question consistent with the description of unreasonable man in the passage below.
Unreasonableness is a tendency to do socially permissible things at the wrong time. The unreasonable man is the sort of person who comes to confide in you when you are busy. He serenades his beloved when she is ill.
He asks a man who has just lost money by paying a bill for a friend to pay a bill for him. He invites a friend to go for a ride just after the friend has finished a long car trip. He is eager to offer services which are not wanted, but which cannot be politely refused. If he is present at an arbitration, he stirs up dissension between the two parties, who were really anxious to agree. Such is the unreasonable man.
The unreasonable man tends to
Unreasonableness is a tendency to do socially permissible things at the wrong time. The unreasonable man is the sort of person who comes to confide in you when you are busy. He serenades his beloved when she is ill.
He asks a man who has just lost money by paying a bill for a friend to pay a bill for him. He invites a friend to go for a ride just after the friend has finished a long car trip. He is eager to offer services which are not wanted, but which cannot be politely refused. If he is present at an arbitration, he stirs up dissension between the two parties, who were really anxious to agree. Such is the unreasonable man.
The unreasonable man tends to
A bring a higher bidder to a salesman who has just closed a deal
Just like an unreasonable man stirs up dissension between the two parties, who were anxious to agree, he will be most likely to bring a higher bidder to a salesman who has just closed a deal.
Question 22
In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of paraphrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative among the four options.
The management can still hire freely but cannot scold freely.
The management can still hire freely but cannot scold freely.
A cannot scold at will
Options b and c change the basic meaning of the sentence so we can ignore these. In option d, the adverb used is ‘wilfully’ which means ‘deliberately or with the intention of causing harm or with a stubborn and determined intention to do as one wants, regardless of the consequences’. Each of these meanings is different from the original adverb ‘freely’. Hence the best choice would be option a.
Question 23
In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of paraphrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative among the four options.
This government has given subsidies to the Navratnas but there is no telling whether the subsequent one will do.
This government has given subsidies to the Navratnas but there is no telling whether the subsequent one will do.
A whether the subsequent government will do so
Idealy the only possible correct answer here is option d, as the others are missing the important words “no telling”. However this question has been incorrectly underlined – the CLAT committee gave the official answer as option a, which is only possible if the underlined portion does not include the words “no telling”. Note that options c and d have the infinitive ‘to follow’ but the verb follows the infinitive instead of leading it.
Question 24
In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of paraphrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative among the four options.
The Romanians may be restive under Soviet direction but they are tied to Moscow by ideological and military links.
The Romanians may be restive under Soviet direction but they are tied to Moscow by ideological and military links.
A they are close to Moscow from ideological and military perspective
Option b, c and d completely change the meaning of the original sentence, so only option a is the correct is the best choice.
Question 25
In the question, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by a pair of or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original pair.
Dulcet : Raucous
Dulcet : Raucous
B Crazy : Insane
Dulcet and Raucous are both adjectives that describe sounds in a negative/deprecating manner. Also, ‘raucous’ is more negative/forceful than ‘dulcet’. Hence the most appropriate set of words given in the option will be ‘crazy : insane’ as both are negative and ‘insane’ is clearly more extreme than ‘crazy’.
Consider the other options:
In option a while ‘sweet’ is an adjective, ‘song’ is the noun that is described so.
In option c, both ‘palliative’ means something that cures or improved, while ‘exacerbating’ is something that makes worse.
In option d, ‘theory’ and ‘practical’ are complementary portions in any subject/area/discipline.
Consider the other options:
In option a while ‘sweet’ is an adjective, ‘song’ is the noun that is described so.
In option c, both ‘palliative’ means something that cures or improved, while ‘exacerbating’ is something that makes worse.
In option d, ‘theory’ and ‘practical’ are complementary portions in any subject/area/discipline.
Question 26
In the question, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by a pair of or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original pair.
Malapropism : Words
Malapropism : Words
A Anachronism : Time
‘Malapropism’ is incorrect usage of ‘words’, often with an amusing effect. Similarly, ‘anachronism’ is something that belongs to a ‘time’ or period that is inappropriate.
On the other hand, ‘ellipsis’ is the removal or a word or words from a sentence that is seemingly superfluous or obvious. ‘Jinjanthropism’ is not really a word. A ‘Zinjanthrope’ is one of the hominid ancestors, so ‘zinjanthropism’ could loosely be thought of as the study of ‘apes’. ‘Catechism’ refers to a summary of the principles of Christian ‘religion’ useful for instruction.
On the other hand, ‘ellipsis’ is the removal or a word or words from a sentence that is seemingly superfluous or obvious. ‘Jinjanthropism’ is not really a word. A ‘Zinjanthrope’ is one of the hominid ancestors, so ‘zinjanthropism’ could loosely be thought of as the study of ‘apes’. ‘Catechism’ refers to a summary of the principles of Christian ‘religion’ useful for instruction.
Question 27
In the question, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by a pair of or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original pair.
Peel : Peal
Peel : Peal
C Rain : Reign
Clearly the two words ‘peel’ and ‘peal’ are merely words that have a similar pronunciation but are not related in meaning. The closest in the options are the words ‘rain’ and ‘reign’.
Question 28
The writer’s attitude towards the Government is...
A critical
Critical means expressing adverse or disapproving comments or judgements. Throughout the passage the author has maintained the stance that despite a better infrastructure the government has not done enough to lead the economy to the progress it deserved. The author even ends the passage on the note that even in the next fifty years by the time the government realizes its mistakes, the world would have moved even further ahead.
Question 29
The writer is surprised at the Government's attitude towards its industrialists because.....
C the government looked upon its industrialists as crooks.
In the third paragraph the author states “that the government actually sheltered its industrialists from competition is a little strange. For in all other respects, it operated under the conviction that businessmen were little more than crooks…” – the writer is surprised because the government looked upon its industrialists as crooks.
Question 30
The Government was compelled to open the economy due to.
C foreign change bankruptcy and paucity of funds the government.
Lines 3 and 4 of paragraph four.
Question 31
The Writer ends the passage on a note of.....
B pessimism
The author believes that the rest of the world would fare much better than us.
Question 32
According to the writer India should have performed better than the other Asian nations because...
B it had better infrastructure
First three line of paragraph 2 – “It began with a far better infrastructure than most of these countries had”.
Question 33
India was in better condition than the other Asian nations because.....
D Both (a) and (b) above
Lines 3 and 4 of paragraph two.
Question 34
The major reason for India's poor performance is.....
A economic isolationism
Last line of second paragraph – “The reasons list themselves. Topmost is economic isolationism”.
Question 35
One of the factors of the government's projectionist policy was.....
D discouragement of exports
CLAT official key says “d”.
However, we are of the opinion that “b” is the correct answer – it is mentioned in the opening line of third paragraph.
However, we are of the opinion that “b” is the correct answer – it is mentioned in the opening line of third paragraph.
Question 36
The example of the Korean Cielo has been presented to highlight.....
B India's poor performance in the international market.
The fact that Koreans don’t buy Indian cars is used by the author to reflect the poor standing of Indian goods (in this example the cars) in the international market.
Question 37
According to the.....
A India's politicians are myopic in their vision of the country's requirements.
“A” and “C” are close choices. “In defending the existing policy, politicians betray an ability to see beyond their noses”. From this line choice “a” becomes a better answer.
Question 38
Choose the option closest in meaning to the Capitalized word.
GRANDIOSE
GRANDIOSE
A imposing
The meaning of ‘Grandiose’ is ‘imposing or grand’. The other options are either opposite in meaning or unrelated – thus ‘unpretentious’ actually means ‘pleasantly simple and functional’, ‘boring’ means ‘uninteresting’ and ‘lanky’ means ‘very tall (usually for people)’.
Question 39
Choose the option closest in meaning to the Capitalized word.
SPRY
SPRY
B nimble
The meaning of ‘spry’ is ‘nimble and active/lively’. The other options are completely unrelated – thus ‘doubtful’ means ‘unsure’, ‘prognosticate’ means to ‘prophesize or foretell’ and ‘leave’ clearly means to ‘go away’.
Question 40
Choose the option closest in meaning to the Capitalized word.
FUDGE
FUDGE
D falsify
To ‘fudge’ means to ‘tamper or falsify’, while ‘to sweeten’ is totally unrelated to this word. Also, ‘smear’ means to “tarnish something or somebody’s reputation” and ‘irritate’ means to ‘irk or annoy’ somebody.
Section: Quantitative Aptitude
Question 1
What is the total number of units manufactured by Company C over all the years together?
C 1230
Total units manufactured by C = 100 x (2.6 + 2.2 + 2.1 + 2.8 + 2.6) = 1230
Question 2
What is the approximate percent increase in the number of units sold by Company E in the year 2007 from the previous year?
D 21
Units sold by E in 2006 = 1.4 x 100 = 140
Units sold by E in 2007 = 1.7 x 100 = 170
% increase = 30/140 x 100 = 21% approximately.
Units sold by E in 2007 = 1.7 x 100 = 170
% increase = 30/140 x 100 = 21% approximately.
Question 3
The number of units sold by Company D in the year 2006 is what percent of the number of units manufactured by it in that year? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal)
D 73.33
Units sold by D in 2006 = 2.2 x 100 = 220
Units manufactured by D in 2006 = 3 x 100 = 300
Required % = 220/300 x 100 = 73.33%
Units manufactured by D in 2006 = 3 x 100 = 300
Required % = 220/300 x 100 = 73.33%
Question 4
What is the respective ratio of total number of units manufactured by Company A and B together in the year 2009 to those sold by them in the same year?
A 2:01
Units manufactured by A and B together in 2009 = 100 x (1 + 2.4) = 340
Units sold by A and B together in 2009 = 100 x (0.4 + 1.3) = 170
Required ratio = 340 : 170 = 2 : 1
Units sold by A and B together in 2009 = 100 x (0.4 + 1.3) = 170
Required ratio = 340 : 170 = 2 : 1
Question 5
What is the average number of units sold by Company D over all the years together?
B 158
Total units sold by D in all 5 years = 100 x (2.2 + 1.9 + 1.5 + 1.2 + 1.1) = 790
Hence average number of units sold = 790/5 = 158
Hence average number of units sold = 790/5 = 158
Question 6
What is the value of (x) in the following equation?
x0.4/16 = 32/x2.6
x0.4/16 = 32/x2.6
A 9
Given, x0.4/16 = 32/x2.6
On cross-multiplying: (x0.4)(x2.6) = (16)(32)
i.e. x0.4 + 2.6 = (24)(25)
i.e. x3 = 24 + 5 = 29
i.e. x = 29/3 = 23 or 8
On cross-multiplying: (x0.4)(x2.6) = (16)(32)
i.e. x0.4 + 2.6 = (24)(25)
i.e. x3 = 24 + 5 = 29
i.e. x = 29/3 = 23 or 8
Question 7
The simplified value of [(0.111)3 + (0.222)3 - (0.333)3+ (0.333)2 x (0.222)]3 is:
C 0
[(0.111)3 + (0.222)3 - (0.333)3+ (0.333)2 x (0.222)]3
= [(0.111)3 + (2 x 0.111)3 – (3 x 0.111)3 + (3 x 0.111)2(2 x 0.111)]3
= (0.111)3 x [1 + 8 – 27 + 18] = (0.111)3 x 0 = 0
= [(0.111)3 + (2 x 0.111)3 – (3 x 0.111)3 + (3 x 0.111)2(2 x 0.111)]3
= (0.111)3 x [1 + 8 – 27 + 18] = (0.111)3 x 0 = 0
Question 8
When 2½ is added to a number and the sum is multiplied by 4½ and then 3 is added to the product and then the sum is divided by 11/5, the quotient becomes 25. What is that number?
B 3½
Let the number be N. Consider the problem word-by-word:
Step-1: 2.5 + N
Step-2: 4.5(N + 2.5)
Step-3: 3 + 4.5(N + 2.5) = 4.5N + 14.25
Step-4: (4.5N + 14.25) ÷ (6/5) = 5/6 x (4.5N + 14.25)
Then, 5/6 x (4.5N + 14.25) = 25
i.e. 4.5N + 14.25 = 30
i.e. N = 15.75/4.5 = 7/2 or 3½
Step-1: 2.5 + N
Step-2: 4.5(N + 2.5)
Step-3: 3 + 4.5(N + 2.5) = 4.5N + 14.25
Step-4: (4.5N + 14.25) ÷ (6/5) = 5/6 x (4.5N + 14.25)
Then, 5/6 x (4.5N + 14.25) = 25
i.e. 4.5N + 14.25 = 30
i.e. N = 15.75/4.5 = 7/2 or 3½
Question 9
If x = (163 + 173 + 183 + 193), then x divided by 70 leaves a remainder of........
A 0
Given, x = (163 + 173 + 183 + 193) = (163 + 183 + 173 + 193)
Now, a3 + b3 = (a + b)(a2 + b2 – ab)
Hence a3 + b3 is divisible by (a + b)
So, 163 + 193 = (16 + 19)(256 + 361 – 304) = 35 x 313
Also, 173 + 183 = (17 + 18)(289 + 324 – 306) = 34 x 307
So, x = 35 x 313 + 35 x 307 = 35(313 + 307) = 35 x 620 = 70 x 310
Clearly x is divisible by 70, so remainder will be 0.
Now, a3 + b3 = (a + b)(a2 + b2 – ab)
Hence a3 + b3 is divisible by (a + b)
So, 163 + 193 = (16 + 19)(256 + 361 – 304) = 35 x 313
Also, 173 + 183 = (17 + 18)(289 + 324 – 306) = 34 x 307
So, x = 35 x 313 + 35 x 307 = 35(313 + 307) = 35 x 620 = 70 x 310
Clearly x is divisible by 70, so remainder will be 0.
Question 10
A man has 9 friends: 4 boys and 5 girls. In how many can he invite them, if there have to be exactly 3 girls in the invitees?
B 160
We need to invite exactly 3 girls, but there is no information on number of boys invited.
Method-1:
Ways of selecting exactly 3 girls out of 5 = 5C3 = 10
Now each boy can either be selected or not i.e. there are 2 options for each boy.
Since there are 4 boys, total options amongst the boys = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 = 16
Hence, total ways of inviting = 10 x 16 = 160
Method-2:
Consider 5 possible cases here –
3 girls only, 3 girls and 1 boy, 3 girls and 2 boys, 3 girls and 3 boys, 3 girls and 4 boys
So, ways of inviting = 5C3 + 5C3 x 4C1 + 5C3 x 4C2 + 5C3 x 4C3 + 5C3 x 4C4 = 5C3 x (1 + 4C1 + 4C2 + 4C3 + 4C4)
= 10 x (1 + 4 + 6 + 4 + 1) = 10 x 16 = 160
Method-1:
Ways of selecting exactly 3 girls out of 5 = 5C3 = 10
Now each boy can either be selected or not i.e. there are 2 options for each boy.
Since there are 4 boys, total options amongst the boys = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 = 16
Hence, total ways of inviting = 10 x 16 = 160
Method-2:
Consider 5 possible cases here –
3 girls only, 3 girls and 1 boy, 3 girls and 2 boys, 3 girls and 3 boys, 3 girls and 4 boys
So, ways of inviting = 5C3 + 5C3 x 4C1 + 5C3 x 4C2 + 5C3 x 4C3 + 5C3 x 4C4 = 5C3 x (1 + 4C1 + 4C2 + 4C3 + 4C4)
= 10 x (1 + 4 + 6 + 4 + 1) = 10 x 16 = 160
Question 11
A group of 630 children is arranged in for a group photograph session. Each row contains three fewer children than the row in front of it. What number of rows is not possible?
D 6
Let us simply check the options one-by-one:
Option a: If there are 3 rows, A + (A – 3) + (A – 6) = 630
So 3A = 639 or A = 213 which is possible.
Option b: If there are 4 rows, A + (A – 3) + (A – 6) + (A – 9) = 630
So 4A = 648 or A = 162 which is also possible.
Option c: If there are 5 rows, A + (A – 3) + (A – 6) + (A – 9) + (A – 12) = 630
So 5A = 660 or A = 132
Option d: If there are 6 rows, A + (A – 3) + (A – 6) + (A – 9) + (A – 12) + (A – 15) = 630
So, 6A = 675 or A = 112.5. Since this is not an integer value, there cannot be 6 rows.
Option a: If there are 3 rows, A + (A – 3) + (A – 6) = 630
So 3A = 639 or A = 213 which is possible.
Option b: If there are 4 rows, A + (A – 3) + (A – 6) + (A – 9) = 630
So 4A = 648 or A = 162 which is also possible.
Option c: If there are 5 rows, A + (A – 3) + (A – 6) + (A – 9) + (A – 12) = 630
So 5A = 660 or A = 132
Option d: If there are 6 rows, A + (A – 3) + (A – 6) + (A – 9) + (A – 12) + (A – 15) = 630
So, 6A = 675 or A = 112.5. Since this is not an integer value, there cannot be 6 rows.
Question 12
A die is rolled twice. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers on the two faces is 5?
D 1/9
There are a total of 4 ways of getting a sum of 5 on two dice-throws i.e. 1+4, 4+1, 3+2, 2+3.
Also total possibilities are 6 x 6 = 36
Hence required probability = 4/36 = 1/9
Also total possibilities are 6 x 6 = 36
Hence required probability = 4/36 = 1/9
Question 13
Two trains, one from Howrah to Patna and other from Patna to Howrah, start simultaneously. After they meet, the trains reach their destinations after 9 hours and 16 hours respectively. The ratio of their speeds is.
B 4:03
The two trains initially start simultaneously from H and P respectively and then meet each other at point X, say after a journey of T hours.
Let their speeds be ‘h’ km/hr and ‘p’ km/hr.
Then, HX = h x T and PX = p x T
i.e. HX/PX = h/p ... (1)
Now after meeting, the train from Howrah will travel the distance PX at h km/hr in 9 hours.
Similarly, the train from Patna will travel the distance HX at p km/hr in 16 hours.
So, HX = p x 16 and PX = h x 9 ... (2)
Using HX and PX from (2) in (1):
i.e. (16p)/(9h) = h/p
i.e. 16/9 = h2/p2
So, h/p = 4/3
Let their speeds be ‘h’ km/hr and ‘p’ km/hr.
Then, HX = h x T and PX = p x T
i.e. HX/PX = h/p ... (1)
Now after meeting, the train from Howrah will travel the distance PX at h km/hr in 9 hours.
Similarly, the train from Patna will travel the distance HX at p km/hr in 16 hours.
So, HX = p x 16 and PX = h x 9 ... (2)
Using HX and PX from (2) in (1):
i.e. (16p)/(9h) = h/p
i.e. 16/9 = h2/p2
So, h/p = 4/3
Question 14
A watch which gains uniformly is 2 minutes slow at noon on Monday and is 4 minute 48 second fast at 2 p.m. on the following Monday. When was it correct?
B 2 p.m. on Wednesday
Clearly the clock gains a total of 6 minutes and 48 seconds from 12 noon on Monday to 2 pm on next Monday.
i.e. the clock gains 648/60 minutes in 7 days and 2 hours
i.e. the clock gains 64/5 or 34/5 minutes in 170 hours.
In order to show the correct time, the clock must gain 2 minutes.
So, Time taken by this clock to gain 2 minutes = 170 x 5/34 x 2 = 50 hours
So the clock must have shown the correct time after 2 days and 2 hours i.e. on Wednesday 2 pm.
i.e. the clock gains 648/60 minutes in 7 days and 2 hours
i.e. the clock gains 64/5 or 34/5 minutes in 170 hours.
In order to show the correct time, the clock must gain 2 minutes.
So, Time taken by this clock to gain 2 minutes = 170 x 5/34 x 2 = 50 hours
So the clock must have shown the correct time after 2 days and 2 hours i.e. on Wednesday 2 pm.
Question 15
A speaks truth in 75% cases and B in 80% of the cases. In what percentage of cases are they likely to contradict each other, narrating the same incident?
C 35%
A and B will contradict each other in 2 possible cases:
- A speaks the truth while B lies
- A speaks a lie while B speaks the truth
Question 16
The sum of all the natural numbers from 200 to 600 (both inclusive) which are neither divisible by 8 nor by 12 is:
C 1,33,268
Sum of all numbers from 200 to 600:
This is an AP with first term = 200, common difference = 1 and number of terms = 401
Sum of all numbers = 401/2 x (2 x 200 + 400 x 1) = 401 x 400 = 1,60,400
For sum of all numbers that are divisible by 8:
First number = 200 and common difference = 8
Last number = 600 = 200 + (n – 1) x 8
So n = 400/8 + 1 = 51
Sum of multiples of 8 = 51/2 x (2 x 200 + 50 x 8) = 51 x 400 = 20,400
For sum of all numbers that are divisible by 12:
First number = 204 and common difference = 12
Last number = 600 = 204 + (k – 1) x 12
So k = 396/12 + 1 = 34
Sum of multiples of 12 = 34/2 x (2 x 204 + 33 x 12) = 34/2 x 804 = 34 x 402 = 13,668
Sum of numbers that are divisible by both 8 and 12 i.e. by their LCM 24:
First number = 216, common difference = 24
Last number = 600 = 216 + (m – 1) x 24
So m = 384/24 + 1 = 17
Sum of multiples of 24 = 17/2 x (2 x 216 + 16 x 24) = 17/2 x 816 = 17 x 408 = 6936
Sum of numbers from 200 to 600 which are neither divisible by 8 nor by 12:
= (Sum of all nos from 200 to 600) – (Sum of nos from 200 to 600 that are divisible by either 8 or 12)
= 1,60,400 – (20,400 + 13668 – 6936) = 1,60,400 – 27132 = 1,33,268
This is an AP with first term = 200, common difference = 1 and number of terms = 401
Sum of all numbers = 401/2 x (2 x 200 + 400 x 1) = 401 x 400 = 1,60,400
For sum of all numbers that are divisible by 8:
First number = 200 and common difference = 8
Last number = 600 = 200 + (n – 1) x 8
So n = 400/8 + 1 = 51
Sum of multiples of 8 = 51/2 x (2 x 200 + 50 x 8) = 51 x 400 = 20,400
For sum of all numbers that are divisible by 12:
First number = 204 and common difference = 12
Last number = 600 = 204 + (k – 1) x 12
So k = 396/12 + 1 = 34
Sum of multiples of 12 = 34/2 x (2 x 204 + 33 x 12) = 34/2 x 804 = 34 x 402 = 13,668
Sum of numbers that are divisible by both 8 and 12 i.e. by their LCM 24:
First number = 216, common difference = 24
Last number = 600 = 216 + (m – 1) x 24
So m = 384/24 + 1 = 17
Sum of multiples of 24 = 17/2 x (2 x 216 + 16 x 24) = 17/2 x 816 = 17 x 408 = 6936
Sum of numbers from 200 to 600 which are neither divisible by 8 nor by 12:
= (Sum of all nos from 200 to 600) – (Sum of nos from 200 to 600 that are divisible by either 8 or 12)
= 1,60,400 – (20,400 + 13668 – 6936) = 1,60,400 – 27132 = 1,33,268
Question 17
In a tournament, there are n teams T1, T2 ......... Tn, with n > 5. Each team consists of k players, k > 3. The following pairs of teams have one player in common T1 and T2, T2 and T3......, Tn-1 and Tn and Tn and T1. No other pair of teams has any player in common. How many players are participating in the tournament, considering all the n teams together?
D n(k-1)
We can clearly see from the combinations: (T1 and T2), (T2 and T3), (T3 and T4) ... (Tn and T1) that the total possible such combinations = n
We can see that each team features in two such combinations. So two of its players will be shared while the remaining (k – 2) play exclusively for that team. Also each combination shares a player.
Hence total possible participants = n(k – 2) + n x 1 = n(k – 1)
We can see that each team features in two such combinations. So two of its players will be shared while the remaining (k – 2) play exclusively for that team. Also each combination shares a player.
Hence total possible participants = n(k – 2) + n x 1 = n(k – 1)
Question 18
If n2 = 12345678987654321, what is n?
C 111111111
Numbers containing only 1s have a special pattern when squared:
Now we are given a square of a number with the digits 1 to 9 in increasing order and then decreasing order. Clearly the original number should contain the digit 1 nine times!
Now we are given a square of a number with the digits 1 to 9 in increasing order and then decreasing order. Clearly the original number should contain the digit 1 nine times!
Question 19
Along a road lie an odd number of stones placed at intervals of 10m. These stones have to be assembled around the middle stone. A person can carry only one stone at a time. A man carried out the job starting with the stone in the middle, carrying stones in succession, thereby covering a distance of 4.8 km. Then, the number of stones is
C 31
Since number of stones is odd let there be 2N + 1 stones, where N is an integer.
Now the middle stone is already at the needed position.
However, for each of the N stones to its left, the man will have to travel to the stone and back to bring it to the middle position.
Hence distance travelled by him would be 10 + 10, 20 + 20, 30 + 30, 40 + 40...
Thus, distance travelled for these N stones would be = 20 + 40 + 60 + ... N terms
= N/2 x [2 x 20 + (N – 1) x 20] = N/2 x (40 + 20N – 20) = N/2 x (20N + 20) = N(10N + 10)
Hence, total distance for all stones (left and right) = 2N(10N + 10) = 4.8 km = 4800 metres
i.e. 20N(N + 1) = 4800
or N2 + N – 240 = 0
i.e. N2 + 16N – 15N – 240 = 0
i.e. (N + 16)(N – 15) = 0
So N = 15
Hence total number of stones = 2 x 15 + 1 = 31
Now the middle stone is already at the needed position.
However, for each of the N stones to its left, the man will have to travel to the stone and back to bring it to the middle position.
Hence distance travelled by him would be 10 + 10, 20 + 20, 30 + 30, 40 + 40...
Thus, distance travelled for these N stones would be = 20 + 40 + 60 + ... N terms
= N/2 x [2 x 20 + (N – 1) x 20] = N/2 x (40 + 20N – 20) = N/2 x (20N + 20) = N(10N + 10)
Hence, total distance for all stones (left and right) = 2N(10N + 10) = 4.8 km = 4800 metres
i.e. 20N(N + 1) = 4800
or N2 + N – 240 = 0
i.e. N2 + 16N – 15N – 240 = 0
i.e. (N + 16)(N – 15) = 0
So N = 15
Hence total number of stones = 2 x 15 + 1 = 31
Question 20
What are the last two digits of 72008?
A 01
Note that 72 = 49, 73 = 343 and 74 = 2401
Hence, we can see that the last two digits of 74 = 01
Also note that last 2 digits of a product will equal the product of last two digits of the numbers being multiplied (1132 will hence end in last two digits of 13 x 13 = 169 i.e. 69)
Hence, last digit of 72008 = (74)502 will be equal to (01)502 i.e. 01
Hence, we can see that the last two digits of 74 = 01
Also note that last 2 digits of a product will equal the product of last two digits of the numbers being multiplied (1132 will hence end in last two digits of 13 x 13 = 169 i.e. 69)
Hence, last digit of 72008 = (74)502 will be equal to (01)502 i.e. 01
Section: General Knowledge
Question 1
Recently, which country became the first member country to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) to submit its action plan to intended nationally Determined Contribution (INDC)?
B Switzerland
Switzerland
Question 2
Who among the following is India’s first chief of Cyber Security?
B GulshanRai
GulshanRai
Question 3
Project Varsha, India’s new naval base under construction is near which of the following cities?
C Visakhapatnam
Visakhapatnam
Question 4
Which of the following is Direct Tax?
C Income Tax
Income Tax
Question 5
Who among the following 18th century Indian rulers has been called ‘Plato of his tribe?
C Suraj Mal
Suraj Mal
Question 6
Which one of the following Railway zones and the corresponding Head quarter pairs is not correctly matched?
B South Eastern Railway. Bhabneswar
South Eastern Railway. Bhabneswar
Question 7
A Snickometer is associated with which sports?
B Cricket
Cricket
Question 8
Young Indian shutter K. Srikanth on 15 March 2015 won which of the following major badminton championship?
C Swiss Grand Prix Gold
Swiss Grand Prix Gold
Question 9
IRCTC has recently launched a new service called ‘Rupay Prepaid Cards’ which will enable passengers to book their tickets, do shopping and pay services bills online. This service was launched in collaborate on with which bank?
A Union Bank of India
Union Bank of India
Question 10
President Pranab Mukherjee on 6 January 2015 singed the ordinance to amend Citizenship Act, 1955. Which of the statements in this regards is/ are right?
I. The ordinance exempts persons of Indian Origin (PIO) from appearing before the local police station on every visit.
II. It replace the clause that say foreigners marrying Indians Must continuously stay in the country for a period of six month before they get and Indian citizenship.
A I only
I only
Question 11
Name the Indian Industrialist on whose 175th birth anniversary, Union government launched the commemorative stamp on 6 January 2015?
D Jamsed Ji Nusserwanji Tata
Jamsed Ji Nusserwanji Tata
Question 12
Who among the following was the author of Rajatarangini, commonly regarded as the first genuine history of India written by an Indian?
D Kalhana
Kalhana
Question 13
Which is the single policy rate to unambiguously signal the stance of monetary policy as recently recommended by RBI?
B Repo
Repo
Question 14
Which one of the following is essentially a solo dance nowadays performed in group as well?
D Mohiniattam
Mohiniattam
Question 15
Which among the following is the world’s largest e-commerce company?
A Amazon
Amazon
Question 16
Name the renowned Indian ecologist who has been chosen for the prestigious 2015 Tyler prize of Environment Achievement on 23 March 2015?
D Madhav Gadgil
Madhav Gadgil
Question 17
Name the golfer who won the Indian open title on 22 February 2015.
B Anirban Lahiri
Anirban Lahiri
Question 18
Prime Minister Modi has launched the “Give it Up” campaign for voluntarily giving up…
B LPG subsidy
LPG subsidy
Question 19
Attukal Pongal festival, which is figured is Guinness book of world records is celebrated in…….
B Kerala
Kerala
Question 20
Which of the following is the oldest share market in India?
A Bombay
Bombay
Question 21
The National Industrial Corridor (NIC) that was proposed to be established in the Union Budget of 2014-15, will have its headquarters at which city?
A Pune
Pune
Question 22
What is the name given to the dedicated TV channel for farmers that was announced in the Union Budget for 2014-15 and Rs. 100 crore was set aside for its establishment?
A Kisan
Kisan
Question 23
Which South East Asian country has recently banned surrogacy service to end its flourishing rent a-womb industry?
C Thailand
Thailand
Question 24
Which of the following Acts formally introduced the principle of election for the first time?
A The Indian Councils Act, 1909
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
Question 25
Greece and Turkey are working to resolve their dispute over sovereignty and related rights in the area of which sea?
C Aegean Sea
Aegean Sea
Question 26
The name of new Andhra Pradesh Capita is likely to be…..
A Amaravathi
Amaravathi
Question 27
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly marched?
B Sachin Bansal & Binny Bansal-Red Bus
Sachin Bansal & Binny Bansal-Red Bus
Question 28
Which city has become India’s first fully Wi-fi enabled metro city on 5 February 2015?
B Kolkata
Kolkata
Question 29
The recently announced Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana aims to boost……?
A Organic Farming
Organic Farming
Question 30
70. What is the correct sequence of the following movement in chronological order?
Civil Disobedience Movement 2. Khilafat Movement 3. Home Rule Movement 4. Quit India Movement
C 3, 2, 1, 4
3, 2, 1, 4
Question 31
The “Ease of doing Business Index” is prepared and published by……
B World Bank Group
World Bank Group
Question 32
Which committee was constituted by RBI to review governance of boards in india?
A P J Nayak Committee
P J Nayak Committee
Question 33
Recently in which country did Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurate the first of the eight Coastal Surveillance Radar System (CSRS) being set up by India?
D Seychelles
Seychelles
Question 34
The “Friends for life” _ an elephant conservation project has been launched by world wide fund for nature India and……
B Muthoot Group
Muthoot Group
Question 35
In February 2015, which Indian Cricket legend has been inducted into the ICC hall of Fame?
B Anil Kumble
Anil Kumble
Question 36
Lysosomes, which are known as suicide bags, are produced by which organelle?
B Golgi body
Golgi body
Question 37
Which state is to host the 36th National Games in 2016?
B Goa
Goa
Question 38
Which space agency has successfully launched the world’s first all-electric satellites in march-2015?
C SpaceX
SpaceX
Question 39
How much Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in country’s defense sector was proposed in the Union Budget 2014-15 presented on 10 July-2014?
B 49%
0.49
Question 40
The winner of 2015 Malaysian Grand Prix is ______ ?
A Sebstian Vettel
Sebstian Vettel
Question 41
Bhalachandra Nemade who has been selected for the 50th Jnanpith award for 2014, on 6 February 2015, is a famous writer in which language?
A Marathi
Marathi
Question 42
The ISRO has develop a “Flood hazard Atlas” by mapping flood prone and vulnerable areas in which state?
C Assam
Assam
Question 43
Match list I with list II and select the best option using the code given below the list:
List-I (Organization/Centres) List-II (Locations)
A. High Altitude Warfare Centre 1. Chennai
B. Indian Air core Training Centre 2. Gulmarg
C. National Defence College 3. New Delhi
D. Institute of National Integration 4. Pune
A A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Question 44
Indian Space Research Organization was recently conferred ‘Space Pioneer Award’ by the National Space Society (NSS) of which country over the historic feat on successfully sending an orbit to Martian atmosphere in its very first attempt?
D USA
USA
Question 45
Name India’s Beyond Visual Range (BVR) Air-to-Air Missile which was successfully test fired on 19 March 2015 from a Sukhoi-30 fighter aircraft?
A Astra
Astra
Question 46
Garuda Shakti III is the military exercise between India and which country?
C Indonesia
Indonesia
Question 47
Which of the following is incorrect option?
C At the summer solstice, the sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Capricorn.
At the summer solstice, the sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Capricorn.
Question 48
Which one of the following are the online grievances monitoring portals launched by union government for Indians living abroad?
A Madad
Madad
Question 49
The Ufa city, where annual BRICS summit-2015 is scheduled to be held is in which country?
B Russia
Russia
Question 50
The protein CA-125 (Cancer Antigen-125) is used as biomarker for detection of which type of cancer?
A Ovarian Cancer
Ovarian Cancer
Section: Logical Reasoning
Question 1
W, X, Y, and Z are four friends, who do not mind exchanging items. X has two chessboards each costing Rs. 500, and a record player Z originally had a cycle and a wa1kman. Each cricket bat costs Rs. 700. Both W and Z got a cricket bat from Y. X gave his record player costing Rs. 2000 to Y. Z et a camera costing Rs 1500 from W. The cycle of Z costs Rs. 1000 and the walkman is for Rs. 700. Y had three cricket bats at the beginning and W had two cameras the total cost of which is Rs. 5000. X gave one of his chessboards to Z and took Z’s cycle. Z gave his walkman to W.
Total cost of materials Z had the beginning was:
Total cost of materials Z had the beginning was:
B Rs. 1700
For such questions it is better to convert information in to a table as shown below:-
Z had 1700 worth of materials in the beginning.
Z had 1700 worth of materials in the beginning.
Question 2
W, X, Y, and Z are four friends, who do not mind exchanging items. X has two chessboards each costing Rs. 500, and a record player Z originally had a cycle and a wa1kman. Each cricket bat costs Rs. 700. Both W and Z got a cricket bat from Y. X gave his record player costing Rs. 2000 to Y. Z et a camera costing Rs 1500 from W. The cycle of Z costs Rs. 1000 and the walkman is for Rs. 700. Y had three cricket bats at the beginning and W had two cameras the total cost of which is Rs. 5000. X gave one of his chessboards to Z and took Z’s cycle. Z gave his walkman to W.
At the beginning who had the costliest items:
At the beginning who had the costliest items:
A W
For such questions it is better to convert information in to a table as shown below:-
W had the costliest items in the beginning – worth Rs 5,000.
W had the costliest items in the beginning – worth Rs 5,000.
Question 3
W, X, Y, and Z are four friends, who do not mind exchanging items. X has two chessboards each costing Rs. 500, and a record player Z originally had a cycle and a wa1kman. Each cricket bat costs Rs. 700. Both W and Z got a cricket bat from Y. X gave his record player costing Rs. 2000 to Y. Z et a camera costing Rs 1500 from W. The cycle of Z costs Rs. 1000 and the walkman is for Rs. 700. Y had three cricket bats at the beginning and W had two cameras the total cost of which is Rs. 5000. X gave one of his chessboards to Z and took Z’s cycle. Z gave his walkman to W.
Who did not have a cricket bat after the exchange of items was over?
Who did not have a cricket bat after the exchange of items was over?
B X
For such questions it is better to convert information in to a table as shown below:-
X did not have a cricket bat after the exchange of items was over.
X did not have a cricket bat after the exchange of items was over.
Question 4
W, X, Y, and Z are four friends, who do not mind exchanging items. X has two chessboards each costing Rs. 500, and a record player Z originally had a cycle and a wa1kman. Each cricket bat costs Rs. 700. Both W and Z got a cricket bat from Y. X gave his record player costing Rs. 2000 to Y. Z et a camera costing Rs 1500 from W. The cycle of Z costs Rs. 1000 and the walkman is for Rs. 700. Y had three cricket bats at the beginning and W had two cameras the total cost of which is Rs. 5000. X gave one of his chessboards to Z and took Z’s cycle. Z gave his walkman to W.
Who became the gainer by highest amount through the exchange?
Who became the gainer by highest amount through the exchange?
D Z
For such questions it is better to convert information in to a table as shown below:-
Z became the gainer by highest amount ( 2700 – 1700) after the exchange.
Z became the gainer by highest amount ( 2700 – 1700) after the exchange.
Question 5
W, X, Y, and Z are four friends, who do not mind exchanging items. X has two chessboards each costing Rs. 500, and a record player Z originally had a cycle and a wa1kman. Each cricket bat costs Rs. 700. Both W and Z got a cricket bat from Y. X gave his record player costing Rs. 2000 to Y. Z et a camera costing Rs 1500 from W. The cycle of Z costs Rs. 1000 and the walkman is for Rs. 700. Y had three cricket bats at the beginning and W had two cameras the total cost of which is Rs. 5000. X gave one of his chessboards to Z and took Z’s cycle. Z gave his walkman to W.
The person incurring the highest amount of financial loss through exchange lost an amount of:
The person incurring the highest amount of financial loss through exchange lost an amount of:
C None
For such questions it is better to convert information in to a table as shown below:-
X lost the highest amount, that is, 3000 – 1500 = Rs 1500.
This amount is not given in the option choices so the answer is “c”.
X lost the highest amount, that is, 3000 – 1500 = Rs 1500.
This amount is not given in the option choices so the answer is “c”.
Question 6
W, X, Y, and Z are four friends, who do not mind exchanging items. X has two chessboards each costing Rs. 500, and a record player Z originally had a cycle and a wa1kman. Each cricket bat costs Rs. 700. Both W and Z got a cricket bat from Y. X gave his record player costing Rs. 2000 to Y. Z et a camera costing Rs 1500 from W. The cycle of Z costs Rs. 1000 and the walkman is for Rs. 700. Y had three cricket bats at the beginning and W had two cameras the total cost of which is Rs. 5000. X gave one of his chessboards to Z and took Z’s cycle. Z gave his walkman to W.
The amount of price of all the things remained in possession of:
The amount of price of all the things remained in possession of:
B Rs. 10000 - Rs. 12000
For such questions it is better to convert information in to a table as shown below:-
The question is not clear. Assuming it is asking the total value of the materials the answer is 11,800.
This makes choice “b” the correct answer.
However, in the official CLAT answer key option “d” is given as the correct answer.
The question is not clear. Assuming it is asking the total value of the materials the answer is 11,800.
This makes choice “b” the correct answer.
However, in the official CLAT answer key option “d” is given as the correct answer.
Question 7
W, X, Y, and Z are four friends, who do not mind exchanging items. X has two chessboards each costing Rs. 500, and a record player Z originally had a cycle and a wa1kman. Each cricket bat costs Rs. 700. Both W and Z got a cricket bat from Y. X gave his record player costing Rs. 2000 to Y. Z et a camera costing Rs 1500 from W. The cycle of Z costs Rs. 1000 and the walkman is for Rs. 700. Y had three cricket bats at the beginning and W had two cameras the total cost of which is Rs. 5000. X gave one of his chessboards to Z and took Z’s cycle. Z gave his walkman to W.
Even after exchanges, an item of highest value remained in possession of:
Even after exchanges, an item of highest value remained in possession of:
A W
For such questions it is better to convert information in to a table as shown below:-
W had the costliest item even after the exchange – camera worth Rs 3,500.
W had the costliest item even after the exchange – camera worth Rs 3,500.
Question 8
W, X, Y, and Z are four friends, who do not mind exchanging items. X has two chessboards each costing Rs. 500, and a record player Z originally had a cycle and a wa1kman. Each cricket bat costs Rs. 700. Both W and Z got a cricket bat from Y. X gave his record player costing Rs. 2000 to Y. Z et a camera costing Rs 1500 from W. The cycle of Z costs Rs. 1000 and the walkman is for Rs. 700. Y had three cricket bats at the beginning and W had two cameras the total cost of which is Rs. 5000. X gave one of his chessboards to Z and took Z’s cycle. Z gave his walkman to W.
Among the things exchanged, which one faced the highest exchange value in percentage term.
Among the things exchanged, which one faced the highest exchange value in percentage term.
D Cycle
For such questions it is better to convert information in to a table as shown below:-
A chess board worth Rs 500 was exchanged for a cycle worth Rs 1000.
In percentage terms this is an exchange value of 100%.
A chess board worth Rs 500 was exchanged for a cycle worth Rs 1000.
In percentage terms this is an exchange value of 100%.
Question 9
Which one of the following must have to sources?
B B
If we look at A , he has got only one question wrong (intentionally) and no question under the blank category. This means that he had copied only from one source. Also, since he has only one question wrong he would have copied from the mastermind. If he had copied from one source other than the mastermind then he would have two questions wrong – one that he would mark intentionally wrong and one that his source would have mark intentionally wrong. Likewise D and G would have copied only from the mastermind.
A – He copied from the mastermind.
B – He would have copied from E and G – G would have marked different answers for question number 46 and 90 and E would have marked different for question number 25.
C – He would have copied from I. He would have intentionally marked 56 question incorrectly.
D - He copied from the mastermind.
E – He would have copied only from A.
F – He would have copied from E and H. Since both had got question 46 wrong, he marked it incorrectly. He then intentionally would have marked question 14 incorrectly.
G - He copied from the mastermind.
H – He would have copied only from A.
I – He would have copied from D and E.
So, B copied from two sources E and G.
A – He copied from the mastermind.
B – He would have copied from E and G – G would have marked different answers for question number 46 and 90 and E would have marked different for question number 25.
C – He would have copied from I. He would have intentionally marked 56 question incorrectly.
D - He copied from the mastermind.
E – He would have copied only from A.
F – He would have copied from E and H. Since both had got question 46 wrong, he marked it incorrectly. He then intentionally would have marked question 14 incorrectly.
G - He copied from the mastermind.
H – He would have copied only from A.
I – He would have copied from D and E.
So, B copied from two sources E and G.
Question 10
How many people (excluding the mastermind) needed to make answer keys before C could make his answer key?
C 4
If we look at A , he has got only one question wrong (intentionally) and no question under the blank category. This means that he had copied only from one source. Also, since he has only one question wrong he would have copied from the mastermind. If he had copied from one source other than the mastermind then he would have two questions wrong – one that he would mark intentionally wrong and one that his source would have mark intentionally wrong. Likewise D and G would have copied only from the mastermind.
A – He copied from the mastermind.
B – He would have copied from E and G – G would have marked different answers for question number 46 and 90 and E would have marked different for question number 25.
C – He would have copied from I. He would have intentionally marked 56 question incorrectly.
D - He copied from the mastermind.
E – He would have copied only from A.
F – He would have copied from E and H. Since both had got question 46 wrong, he marked it incorrectly. He then intentionally would have marked question 14 incorrectly.
G - He copied from the mastermind.
H – He would have copied only from A.
I – He would have copied from D and E.
We know that C copied from I. I copied from D and E. E copied from A and D copied from mastermind. So the total of 5 needed to make answer keys before C. CLAT answer key , however, suggests 4 as the answer.
A – He copied from the mastermind.
B – He would have copied from E and G – G would have marked different answers for question number 46 and 90 and E would have marked different for question number 25.
C – He would have copied from I. He would have intentionally marked 56 question incorrectly.
D - He copied from the mastermind.
E – He would have copied only from A.
F – He would have copied from E and H. Since both had got question 46 wrong, he marked it incorrectly. He then intentionally would have marked question 14 incorrectly.
G - He copied from the mastermind.
H – He would have copied only from A.
I – He would have copied from D and E.
We know that C copied from I. I copied from D and E. E copied from A and D copied from mastermind. So the total of 5 needed to make answer keys before C. CLAT answer key , however, suggests 4 as the answer.
Question 11
Both G and H were sources to .....
D None of the above
If we look at A , he has got only one question wrong (intentionally) and no question under the blank category. This means that he had copied only from one source. Also, since he has only one question wrong he would have copied from the mastermind. If he had copied from one source other than the mastermind then he would have two questions wrong – one that he would mark intentionally wrong and one that his source would have mark intentionally wrong. Likewise D and G would have copied only from the mastermind.
A – He copied from the mastermind.
B – He would have copied from E and G – G would have marked different answers for question number 46 and 90 and E would have marked different for question number 25.
C – He would have copied from I. He would have intentionally marked 56 question incorrectly.
D - He copied from the mastermind.
E – He would have copied only from A.
F – He would have copied from E and H. Since both had got question 46 wrong, he marked it incorrectly. He then intentionally would have marked question 14 incorrectly.
G - He copied from the mastermind.
H – He would have copied only from A.
I – He would have copied from D and E.
So, G and H were sources to none of the students.
A – He copied from the mastermind.
B – He would have copied from E and G – G would have marked different answers for question number 46 and 90 and E would have marked different for question number 25.
C – He would have copied from I. He would have intentionally marked 56 question incorrectly.
D - He copied from the mastermind.
E – He would have copied only from A.
F – He would have copied from E and H. Since both had got question 46 wrong, he marked it incorrectly. He then intentionally would have marked question 14 incorrectly.
G - He copied from the mastermind.
H – He would have copied only from A.
I – He would have copied from D and E.
So, G and H were sources to none of the students.
Question 12
Which of the following statement is true?
C F Introduced the wrong answer to question 14
If we look at A , he has got only one question wrong (intentionally) and no question under the blank category. This means that he had copied only from one source. Also, since he has only one question wrong he would have copied from the mastermind. If he had copied from one source other than the mastermind then he would have two questions wrong – one that he would mark intentionally wrong and one that his source would have mark intentionally wrong. Likewise D and G would have copied only from the mastermind.
A – He copied from the mastermind.
B – He would have copied from E and G – G would have marked different answers for question number 46 and 90 and E would have marked different for question number 25.
C – He would have copied from I. He would have intentionally marked 56 question incorrectly.
D - He copied from the mastermind.
E – He would have copied only from A.
F – He would have copied from E and H. Since both had got question 46 wrong, he marked it incorrectly. He then intentionally would have marked question 14 incorrectly.
G - He copied from the mastermind.
H – He would have copied only from A.
I – He would have copied from D and E.
F – He would have copied from E and H. Since both had got question 46 wrong, he marked it incorrectly. He then intentionally would have marked question 14 incorrectly.
A – He copied from the mastermind.
B – He would have copied from E and G – G would have marked different answers for question number 46 and 90 and E would have marked different for question number 25.
C – He would have copied from I. He would have intentionally marked 56 question incorrectly.
D - He copied from the mastermind.
E – He would have copied only from A.
F – He would have copied from E and H. Since both had got question 46 wrong, he marked it incorrectly. He then intentionally would have marked question 14 incorrectly.
G - He copied from the mastermind.
H – He would have copied only from A.
I – He would have copied from D and E.
F – He would have copied from E and H. Since both had got question 46 wrong, he marked it incorrectly. He then intentionally would have marked question 14 incorrectly.
Question 13
Which of the following two groups of people has identical Sources?
(I) A, D and G
(II) E and H
(I) A, D and G
(II) E and H
D Both (I) and (II)
If we look at A , he has got only one question wrong (intentionally) and no question under the blank category. This means that he had copied only from one source. Also, since he has only one question wrong he would have copied from the mastermind. If he had copied from one source other than the mastermind then he would have two questions wrong – one that he would mark intentionally wrong and one that his source would have mark intentionally wrong. Likewise D and G would have copied only from the mastermind.
A – He copied from the mastermind.
B – He would have copied from E and G – G would have marked different answers for question number 46 and 90 and E would have marked different for question number 25.
C – He would have copied from I. He would have intentionally marked 56 question incorrectly.
D - He copied from the mastermind.
E – He would have copied only from A.
F – He would have copied from E and H. Since both had got question 46 wrong, he marked it incorrectly. He then intentionally would have marked question 14 incorrectly.
G - He copied from the mastermind.
H – He would have copied only from A.
I – He would have copied from D and E.
The first group A, D and G have a common source, that is, the mastermind. The other group E and H also have a common source , that is, A. Thus, the correct answer is “d”.
A – He copied from the mastermind.
B – He would have copied from E and G – G would have marked different answers for question number 46 and 90 and E would have marked different for question number 25.
C – He would have copied from I. He would have intentionally marked 56 question incorrectly.
D - He copied from the mastermind.
E – He would have copied only from A.
F – He would have copied from E and H. Since both had got question 46 wrong, he marked it incorrectly. He then intentionally would have marked question 14 incorrectly.
G - He copied from the mastermind.
H – He would have copied only from A.
I – He would have copied from D and E.
The first group A, D and G have a common source, that is, the mastermind. The other group E and H also have a common source , that is, A. Thus, the correct answer is “d”.
Question 14
Find out the combination for: 487692
D $KEFM$
In this question condition 2 applies so the first and the last digit is to be coded as ‘$’. Option “d” is the only such choice. There is no need to check for other digits.
Question 15
Find out the combination for: 713540
B E%*BA#
Last digit is 0 so it has to be coded as #. We are left with only choices “a” and “b”.7 is to be coded as E, hence, choice ‘b’ is the correct choice.
Question 16
Find out the combination for: 765082
C EFBRK@
No condition applies to this number so we apply the coding as given in the table. So, 7 becomes E, 6 – F, 5 – B, 0 –R, 8 – K and 2 - @. EFBRK@.
Question 17
Find out the combination for: 364819
D None of the above
Condition 1 applies to this number so the first and last digits are to be coded as “X”. Since no choice has this the correct answer is “d”.
Question 18
Find out the combination for: 546839
A XAFK*X
To this number also condition 1 applies and so the first and last digits are to be coded as “X”. Checking for other digits of option “a” we know that this is the correct choice.
Question 19
A. Everyday social life is impossible without interpersonal relationships
B. The root of many misunderstandings has been cited in poor relations among individuals.
C. Assuming the above to be true, social life will be much better if people understand the importance of good interpersonal relations.
D. A Study reveals that interpersonal relations and hence life in general can be improved with a Little effort on the part of individuals.
B. The root of many misunderstandings has been cited in poor relations among individuals.
C. Assuming the above to be true, social life will be much better if people understand the importance of good interpersonal relations.
D. A Study reveals that interpersonal relations and hence life in general can be improved with a Little effort on the part of individuals.
B JFIF
In such questions try to solve questions using elimination technique.
From the definition given to us, we can conclude that D is a fact. Only one choice “b” has stated it as a fact so “b” is the correct choice.
From the definition given to us, we can conclude that D is a fact. Only one choice “b” has stated it as a fact so “b” is the correct choice.
Question 20
A. The Cabinet minister definitely took the wrong step in giving the government contract.
B. Under the circumstances, he had many other alternatives.
C. The Prime Minister is embarrassed due to the minister’s decision.
D. If he has put the government in jeopardy, the minister must resign.
B. Under the circumstances, he had many other alternatives.
C. The Prime Minister is embarrassed due to the minister’s decision.
D. If he has put the government in jeopardy, the minister must resign.
A JFFI
In such questions try to solve questions using elimination technique.
D is an inference – a conclusion is drawn on the basis of facts – “if he has put”.
So the correct answer can be “a’, “b” or “c”.
The first does not have any reason supporting it and is more of a judgement.
So the correct choice is “a”.
D is an inference – a conclusion is drawn on the basis of facts – “if he has put”.
So the correct answer can be “a’, “b” or “c”.
The first does not have any reason supporting it and is more of a judgement.
So the correct choice is “a”.
Question 21
A. If democracy is to survive, the people muse develop a sense of consumerism.
B. Consumerism has helped improve the quality of goods in certain countries.
C. The protected environment in our country is helping the local manufacturers.
D. The quality of goods suffers if the manufacturers take undue advantage of this.
B. Consumerism has helped improve the quality of goods in certain countries.
C. The protected environment in our country is helping the local manufacturers.
D. The quality of goods suffers if the manufacturers take undue advantage of this.
B JFJI
D is an inference – a conclusion is drawn on the basis of knowledge ‘if the manufacturers take undue advantage of this’.
Only choice “b” has D as “I” and so “b” is the correct answer.
Only choice “b” has D as “I” and so “b” is the correct answer.
Question 22
Question consists of five statements followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the best option which indicates a valid argument, that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements.
A. Traffic congestion increases carbon monoxide in the environment.
B. Increase in carbon monoxide is hazardous to wealth.
C. Traffic congestion as hazardous to health.
D. Some traffic congestion does not cause increase carbon monoxide.
E. Some traffic congestion is not hazardous to health
A. Traffic congestion increases carbon monoxide in the environment.
B. Increase in carbon monoxide is hazardous to wealth.
C. Traffic congestion as hazardous to health.
D. Some traffic congestion does not cause increase carbon monoxide.
E. Some traffic congestion is not hazardous to health
D BAC
According to us “d” should be the correct answer but as per CLAT answer key “a” is the correct answer.
The diagram below can prove choice “a” incorrect.
The diagram below can prove choice “a” incorrect.
Question 23
Question consists of five statements followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the best option which indicates a valid argument, that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements.
A. MBAs are in great demand.
B. Samrat and Akshita are an great demand.
C. Samrat is an great demand.
D. Akshata is in great demand.
E. Samrat and Akshita are MBAs
A. MBAs are in great demand.
B. Samrat and Akshita are an great demand.
C. Samrat is an great demand.
D. Akshata is in great demand.
E. Samrat and Akshita are MBAs
C AEB
Question 24
Question consists of five statements followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the best option which indicates a valid argument, that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements.
A. All software companies employ knowledge workers.
B. Infotech employees are knowledge workers.
C. Infotech is a software company.
D. Some software companies employ knowledge workers.
E. Infotech employs only knowledge workers.
A. All software companies employ knowledge workers.
B. Infotech employees are knowledge workers.
C. Infotech is a software company.
D. Some software companies employ knowledge workers.
E. Infotech employs only knowledge workers.
B ACB
Question 25
Which of the following means "I is the nephew of Q?’’
1. Q % 3 = I
2. Q ÷ M x B % I
3. C ÷ I =B % Q
1. Q % 3 = I
2. Q ÷ M x B % I
3. C ÷ I =B % Q
D None of the above
For 1 and 2, gender of I cannot be determined so they cannot be the correct answer.
As per 3, I is the father of Q. So the correct answer is “d”.
As per 3, I is the father of Q. So the correct answer is “d”.
Question 26
If ‘A $ B’ means that A is the father of B, A*B’ means that A is the mother of B, ‘A @ B’ means that A is the wife of B, then which of the following means that M is the grand-mother of N?
D M * T $ N @ R
Using 4 , it could be concluded that M is the grandmother of N.
Question 27
Can a democratic system operate without an effective opposition?
I. The opposition is indispensable.
II. A good politician always learns more from his opponents than from his fervent supporters.
I. The opposition is indispensable.
II. A good politician always learns more from his opponents than from his fervent supporters.
C Answer (3)
As per us the correct answer should be “a”. CLAT’s answer key has marked c as the correct answer.
Question 28
Do habits Make men’s life rigid?
I. It is out of habit that people envy others.
II. Men become salve of habits.
I. It is out of habit that people envy others.
II. Men become salve of habits.
B Answer (2)
Envy cannot be linked to rigidity. From II we can conclude that habits control men and so can make their life rigid.
Hence, b is the answer.
Hence, b is the answer.
Question 29
Does intelligence predict the child’s ability to learn?
I. Intelligence is unaffected by bad teaching or dull home environment.
II. Children from poor home backgrounds do not do well in their school-work.
I. Intelligence is unaffected by bad teaching or dull home environment.
II. Children from poor home backgrounds do not do well in their school-work.
D Answer (4)
We cannot use either information or both combined to answer the given question.
Question 30
If DASH is 2a84, then SMASH is?
C 8 z q e 3
DASH is 2a84.
The logic is Coding below D is v but one to the left is 2, for A one to the right is “a”, for S one to the left “8” and for H one to the right “4”.
Applying the same logic to SMASH – S will be coded as one to the left of S – “8”.
So our answer will be either “c” or “d”.
Now we will check only for the last digit as all the other digits are same for choices “c” and “d”.
H is to be coded as one to the left, that is, “3”.
Hence, the correct choice is “c”.
The logic is Coding below D is v but one to the left is 2, for A one to the right is “a”, for S one to the left “8” and for H one to the right “4”.
Applying the same logic to SMASH – S will be coded as one to the left of S – “8”.
So our answer will be either “c” or “d”.
Now we will check only for the last digit as all the other digits are same for choices “c” and “d”.
H is to be coded as one to the left, that is, “3”.
Hence, the correct choice is “c”.
Question 31
If FASHION is z64t7w, then POSITION is?
A z 6 4 e 4 7 6 c
FASHION is coded as z64t7Uw – The logic here is that the letters are put in the reverse order – so FASHION is changed to NOIHSAF and then the respective codes are used.
By that logic POSITION is to be changed to NOITISOP and the code will be z64e476c.
By that logic POSITION is to be changed to NOITISOP and the code will be z64e476c.
Question 32
If LONDON is 5c62z5, then EUROPE is?
B w h 7 z 6 v
LONDON is coded as 5c62z5.
So the word is broken in two groups –LON – to this the code is one to the right of the letter.
So the code to the right of letter L is 5, to the right of O is c and to the right of N is 6.
For the other group DON – to this the code is one to the left of the letter.
So the code to the left of the D is 2, to the left of O is z and to the left of N is 5.
Applying the same logic on EUROPE the new word will be wh7z6v.
So the word is broken in two groups –LON – to this the code is one to the right of the letter.
So the code to the right of letter L is 5, to the right of O is c and to the right of N is 6.
For the other group DON – to this the code is one to the left of the letter.
So the code to the left of the D is 2, to the left of O is z and to the left of N is 5.
Applying the same logic on EUROPE the new word will be wh7z6v.
Question 33
Statements:
I. Some players are singers,
II. All singers are tall.
Conclusions:
I. Some players are tall.
II. All players are tall.
I. Some players are singers,
II. All singers are tall.
Conclusions:
I. Some players are tall.
II. All players are tall.
A Answer (1)
Only I is correct.
Question 34
Statements:
I. Some vegetables are fruits.
II. No fruit is black.
Conclusions:
I. Some fruits are vegetables.
II. No vegetable is black.
I. Some vegetables are fruits.
II. No fruit is black.
Conclusions:
I. Some fruits are vegetables.
II. No vegetable is black.
A Answer (1)
Only I is correct.
Question 35
Amit first goes in South direction, then he turns towards left and travel for some distance. After that he turns right and moves certain distance. At last he turns left and travels again for some distance. Now, in which direction is he moving?
C East
Question 36
There are six houses in a row. Mr. Aalekh has Mr. Mishra and Mr. Iliyas as neighbours. Mr. Mritynjay has Mr. Sandeep and Mr. Nayak as neighbours. Mr. Sandeep’s house is not next to Mr. Mishra or Mr. lliyas and Mr. Nayak does not live next to Mr. Iliyas. Who are Mr. Mishra’s next door neighbours?
C Mr. Nayak and Mr. Aalekh
From the information given we can come up with the following two cases -
In both the cases Mr Mishra’s neighbors are Aalekh and Nayak.
In both the cases Mr Mishra’s neighbors are Aalekh and Nayak.
Question 37
From the word ‘LAPAROSCOPY’, how many independent meaningful English words can be made without changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once?
B 2
LAP and COPY
Question 38
If Monday falls on 1st of October, which day will fall three days after the 20th in that month?
B Tuesday
3 days after 20th means 23rd October. 1st October is Monday so 23rd October will be Tuesday.
Question 39
In the word GRAPHOLOGIST, if 1st and 7th letters, 2nd and 9th letters, 3rd and 11 letters, 4th and 8th letters and 5th and 12 letters are mutually interchanged then which letter will be 6th letter from the left of 10th letter from the left side?
D None of the above
After all the changes the word GRAPHOLOGIST will become LGSOTOGPRIAH.
So the 6th letter from the left of 10th letter (I) will be “O”.
So the answer is none of the choices.
So the 6th letter from the left of 10th letter (I) will be “O”.
So the answer is none of the choices.
Question 40
The son of M is the father of N and grandfather (Mother’s father) of R. S is the daughter of N and sister of B. On the basis of this information, how is M related to B?
D None of the above
From the given information we cannot determine the gender of M and so the answer is “d”.
Section: Legal Aptitude
Question 1
The Railway authorities allowed a train to be over-crowded. In consequence, a legitimate passenger, Mr. X got his pocket picked. Choose appropriate answer-
C Mr. X cannot sue the railway authorities because there was no infringement of legal right and mere fact that the loss was caused does not give rise to a cause of action.
Mr. X cannot sue the railway authorities because there was no infringement of legal right merely because of the loss of wallet. The question is based on the Torts principle of damnum sine injuria which implies that even if the actual harm/damage or loss is caused and there is no violation of legal right, the person cannot seek the prescribed remedy. Remedy for loss of property is dealt with under separate laws and not in the manner in which it has been asked in the question.
Question 2
Fill in the blanks: Choose the pair of words which complete the sentence to make logical sense.
A bench headed by ______ quashed allocation of 214 ______ as ______
A bench headed by ______ quashed allocation of 214 ______ as ______
B Justice RM Lodha, coal blocks, illegal and arbitrary
Out of the total 218 coal block allocations, the Supreme Court of India scrapped the allocations of 214 coal blocks. The Supreme Court Bench comprised of Chief Justice R.M. Lodha, Justice Madan B. Lokur and Justice Kurian Joseph.
Question 3
Fill in the blanks: Choose the pair of words which complete the sentence to make logical sense.
The NDA Led Government notified the ______ and the National judicial Appointment Commission ACT, thus ending the over two-decade old ______ of appointing judges of Supreme Court and high courts. Under the new law, a six member panel headed by ______ will select judges of the apex court and state high courts.
The NDA Led Government notified the ______ and the National judicial Appointment Commission ACT, thus ending the over two-decade old ______ of appointing judges of Supreme Court and high courts. Under the new law, a six member panel headed by ______ will select judges of the apex court and state high courts.
A 99th Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegiums system, the Chief Justice of India
The National Judicial Appointments Commission Bill, it was passed by the Lok Sabha on 14th August 2014. This Amendment was however subsequently overruled by the Hon’ble Supreme Court.
Question 4
Fill in the blanks: Choose the pair of words which complete the sentence to make logical sense.
The Union Government on the recommendation of the ______ under the chairmanship of ______ has decided to decriminalize section ______ of the Indian penal code.
The Union Government on the recommendation of the ______ under the chairmanship of ______ has decided to decriminalize section ______ of the Indian penal code.
A 20th Law Commission, Justice AP Shah & 309
Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code deals with attempt to commit suicide. As per the 20th Law Commission headed by Justice (retd) A.P Shah in the 210th Law Commission Report recommended Decriminalization of attempt to commit suicide.
Question 5
Fill in the blanks: Choose the pair of words which complete the sentence to make logical sense.
The ______ Legislative Assembly on 31st March 2015 passed controversial Anti-Terrorism Law, Earlier, the passed bill was rejected two time by the then ______ in 2004 and 2008.
The ______ Legislative Assembly on 31st March 2015 passed controversial Anti-Terrorism Law, Earlier, the passed bill was rejected two time by the then ______ in 2004 and 2008.
C Gujarat, Presidents
The Gujarat Control of Terrorism and Organized Crime Bill, 2015 empowers the police to tap telephonic conversations and submit them as evidence in court. It makes confession, an admissible evidence in court.
Question 6
Fill in the blanks: Choose the pair of words which complete the sentence to make logical sense.
Five years’ experience is a must to be able practice as an advocate in the Supreme Court of India, This rule was prescribed by the ______
Five years’ experience is a must to be able practice as an advocate in the Supreme Court of India, This rule was prescribed by the ______
A Bar Council of India
As per the Certificate of Practice and Renewal Rules, the Bar Council of India has laid down that an Advocate cannot start his or her practice in the Supreme Court unless they have practiced for at least five years in a lower court.
Question 7
India and Britain recently signed and “extradition treaty” Extradition means-
C India and the U.K. will deport criminals on reciprocal basis to each other.
Extradition treaties are entered into under bilateral treaties by states. They ensure that the criminals are tried as per the most appropriate jurisdiction.
Question 8
Who administer oath of office to the Governor of a state?
B Chief Justice of High Court of the respective state
Chief Justice of the respective state administers oath to the Governor, as per article 53 of the Constitution of India.
Question 9
What is a ‘Moot’?
C Mock court for practice by student in general
Students argue imaginary cases in a moot court. Moot court is an extracurricular activity at many law schools in which participants take part in simulated court proceedings, usually involving drafting memorials or memoranda and participating in oral argument.
Question 10
Consider the following statement and choose the best option:
1. The Chairman of the national legal services Authority (NALSA) is the chief Justice of India.
2. Chief Justice Mr. Justice H.L. Dattu is the present Chairman of NALSA.
3. The Chairman of the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is the senior most judge (after CJI) of the Supreme Court of India.
4. Hon’ble Mr. Justice T.S. Thakur is the present chairman of NALSA.
1. The Chairman of the national legal services Authority (NALSA) is the chief Justice of India.
2. Chief Justice Mr. Justice H.L. Dattu is the present Chairman of NALSA.
3. The Chairman of the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is the senior most judge (after CJI) of the Supreme Court of India.
4. Hon’ble Mr. Justice T.S. Thakur is the present chairman of NALSA.
B 2 and 3 are correct
NALSA was established with the aim to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society. So that their economic status does not stand as an obstacle in the path of justice. The Chairman of NALSA is always the Chief Justice of India or the senior most Judge of Supreme Court after Chief Justice.
Question 11
Vote on accounts is meant for ______
D Budget
The vote-in-account only deals with the expenditure in a government’s budget. Its an estimate given by the government of the funds it requires during the first 2-3 months of the financial year.
Question 12
Select the correct statement about 14th Finance Commission which submitted its report to president.
1. It covers the period between 1st April 2015 and 31 March 2020
2. The Commission headed by former RBI Governor YV Reddy.
3. Provides for devolution of tax receipts from the centre to the states.
4. Article 280 of Constitution provides for appointment of Finance commission.
5. 1st and 13th Finance Commission was head by KC Neogy & Dr. Vijay Kelkar respectively.
1. It covers the period between 1st April 2015 and 31 March 2020
2. The Commission headed by former RBI Governor YV Reddy.
3. Provides for devolution of tax receipts from the centre to the states.
4. Article 280 of Constitution provides for appointment of Finance commission.
5. 1st and 13th Finance Commission was head by KC Neogy & Dr. Vijay Kelkar respectively.
D All are correct
The 14th Finance Commission was set up to give recommendations on the specific aspects of Centre-State fiscal relations. All the options are correct.
Question 13
As per Indian protocol, who among the followings ranks highest in the order of precedence?
C Governor of a state within his state
The Governor within the state is the Supreme Executive Head and enjoys the highest protocol within the state of which he is the Governor.
Question 14
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) you are to examine the two statements carefully and select the best option.
Assertion (A): Custom per se law, independent of prior recognition by the sovereign or the judge.
Reason (R): Custom is source of law but by itself in not law.
Assertion (A): Custom per se law, independent of prior recognition by the sovereign or the judge.
Reason (R): Custom is source of law but by itself in not law.
D A is false but R is true
A is false but R is true. Customs get their force form being practiced continuously, and by acceptance of the community. Hence prior recognition will not be possible in case of customs.
Question 15
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) you are to examine the two statements carefully and select the best option.
Assertion (A): In India, every state has High court in its territory.
Reason (R): The constitution of India provides for a High Court in each state.
Assertion (A): In India, every state has High court in its territory.
Reason (R): The constitution of India provides for a High Court in each state.
D A is false but R is true
It is mentioned in Article 214 of the Constitution that: There shall be a high court for each state but there are few North Eastern states which do not have High Courts within their territory.
Question 16
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) you are to examine the two statements carefully and select the best option.
Assertion (A): Attempt to commit an offence though does not result in any harm, should also be punished.
Reason (R): A person, who tries to cause a prohibited harm and fails, is, in terms of moral culpability, not materially different from the person who tries and succeeds.
Assertion (A): Attempt to commit an offence though does not result in any harm, should also be punished.
Reason (R): A person, who tries to cause a prohibited harm and fails, is, in terms of moral culpability, not materially different from the person who tries and succeeds.
A Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
Both A and R are true and R correctly explains A. It is because of the given reason that attempt has been made punishable. If it was not for the role of external circumstances, the person would have ended up committing the crime.
Question 17
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) you are to examine the two statements carefully and select the best option.
Assertion (A): Idol is a person who can hold property.
Reason (R): Only human being can be called person not the lifeless things.
Assertion (A): Idol is a person who can hold property.
Reason (R): Only human being can be called person not the lifeless things.
C A is true but R is false
There are two types of personalities recognized by law: Natural personality and Legal personality. Juristic person or personality is the creation of law. Since an idol is a juristic person it is capable of holding property.
Question 18
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) you are to examine the two statements carefully and select the best option.
Assertion (A): Republic Day is celebrated on 26th January every year in the country.
Reason (R): The constitution of India came into force on 26th January 1950
Assertion (A): Republic Day is celebrated on 26th January every year in the country.
Reason (R): The constitution of India came into force on 26th January 1950
A Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
Both A and R are true. Since the constitution came into force on the 26th January, it is celebrated as the Republic Day.
Question 19
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) you are to examine the two statements carefully and select the best option.
Assertion (A): The Council of Minister at the centre is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and to Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R): The members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are eligible to be minister of the Union Government.
Assertion (A): The Council of Minister at the centre is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and to Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R): The members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are eligible to be minister of the Union Government.
D A is false but R is true
Assertion is false. The council of ministers is solely accountable to the Lok Sabha. It is however true that Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are not barred from becoming a minister in the Union Government.
Question 20
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) you are to examine the two statements carefully and select the best option.
Assertion (A): Every person should have the freedom of speech and expression.
Reason (R): If a person is stopped from speaking then mankind will lose the truth.
Assertion (A): Every person should have the freedom of speech and expression.
Reason (R): If a person is stopped from speaking then mankind will lose the truth.
A Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
Both A and R are true and R correctly explains A. The object of giving the fundamental right of freedom of speech and expression is embedded in an individual’s ability to speak his or her mind and hence every individual should be equal in this respect.
Question 21
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) you are to examine the two statements carefully and select the best option.
Assertion (A): Laws are means of achieving an end namely social control.
Reason (R): The ultimate end of law is to secure greatest happiness to greatest number.
Assertion (A): Laws are means of achieving an end namely social control.
Reason (R): The ultimate end of law is to secure greatest happiness to greatest number.
B Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R does not correctly explain A. The Utilitarian Philosophy says that the ultimate object of law should be to attain the greatest happiness of the greatest number. Social control is to establish rules which must be followed by the members of the society. Social Control Theory and Ultimate End of Law Theory are two different philosophies.
Question 22
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) you are to examine the two statements carefully and select the best option.
Assertion (A): The reservation of thirty three percent of seats for women in parliament and State Legislature does not require constitutional Amendment.
Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty three percent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional Amendment.
Assertion (A): The reservation of thirty three percent of seats for women in parliament and State Legislature does not require constitutional Amendment.
Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty three percent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional Amendment.
D A is false but R is true
A is false and R is true. Providing 33 % reservation across legislatures will require the amendment of the constitution. On the other hand the allocation of seats by political parties is an internal policy matter of the respective political party.
Question 23
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) you are to examine the two statements carefully and select the best option.
Assertion (A): We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India a Democratic Republic.
Reason (R): A republic will ensure we have a head to state that is democratically elected and accountable to voters. As a result the head to state will be more effective constitutional safeguard.
Assertion (A): We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India a Democratic Republic.
Reason (R): A republic will ensure we have a head to state that is democratically elected and accountable to voters. As a result the head to state will be more effective constitutional safeguard.
A Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
Both A and R are true and R is also the correct explanation of A. A has been directly quoted from the Preamble of the Indian Constitution. R expresses the intent of the Preamble and is directly related to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
Question 24
President of India exercises his powers _____
A Either directly or through officers subordinate to him
Article 53 lays down that the President of India exercises his powers either directly or through officers subordinate to him.
Question 25
Union Government recently approved 33 percent reservation for Women in:
A Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST and others) in direct recruitment in all non-gazetted Police posts in all Union Territories including Delhi.
The Union Cabinet has approved 33 percent reservation for women in police forces of all Union Territories, including the Delhi Police, through direct recruitment in non-gazetted posts.
Question 26
Choose the best option for the following statement:
No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since:
1. It will be violative of the right to freedom of speech and expression.
2. It will be violative of the right to freedom of conscience and practice & propagation of religion.
3. There is no legal provision obliging anyone to sing the National Anthem.
No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since:
1. It will be violative of the right to freedom of speech and expression.
2. It will be violative of the right to freedom of conscience and practice & propagation of religion.
3. There is no legal provision obliging anyone to sing the National Anthem.
A 1 and 2 are correct
As per the constitution of India, keeping in mind the Freedom of Speech and Expression guaranteed under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution, it’s not obligatory for anybody to sing the national anthem
Question 27
Who called Indian Constitution as Quasi-Federal?
B K.C. Wheare
A quasi-federal state is a combination of federal and unitary government. The Supreme Court of India also describes it as a “federal structure with a strong bias towards the centre”.
Question 28
The temporary release of convicted prisoner from jail for a fixed period is called -
B Parole
The Prison Act of 1894 and the Prison Act of 1900 guide the provisions related to the grant of parole in India. Parole is given as a result of proven good behaviour within the prison, which allows the prison inmate to be released out before the expiry of time of imprisonment, for a fixed period.
Question 29
Governor of a state can make Laws during recess of state legislative Assembly through ______
D Ordinance
Article 213 of Indian Constitution provides for the Power of Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Legislature. If at any time, except when the Legislative Assembly of a State is in session, or where there is a Legislative Council in a State, except when both Houses of the Legislature are in session, the Governor is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action, he may promulgate such Ordinance as the circumstances appear to him to require.
Question 30
Read the definition and elements of the attempt, apply them on the given situations and answer the question:
Definition Attempt: Lord Blackburn has said that “there is no doubt that there is difference between a preparation antecedent to an attempt and the actual attempt, but if the actual transaction has commenced which would ended in the crime if not interrupted, there is Cleary an attempt to commit the crime.”
1. Fault element: Intention or knowledge requisite for committing an offence; and
2. Conduct Element: Does any act towards its commission and has crossed the stage of preparation. This act is so closely connected with, and proximate to the commission that it fails in object because to facts not known to him or because of circumstances beyond his control.
’SINY’ with an intention to pick-pocket his hand into MINU’s pocket, MINU had loaded pistol in his pocket. The thief touches the pistol and trigger goes on, whereby MINU is shot dead.
Definition Attempt: Lord Blackburn has said that “there is no doubt that there is difference between a preparation antecedent to an attempt and the actual attempt, but if the actual transaction has commenced which would ended in the crime if not interrupted, there is Cleary an attempt to commit the crime.”
1. Fault element: Intention or knowledge requisite for committing an offence; and
2. Conduct Element: Does any act towards its commission and has crossed the stage of preparation. This act is so closely connected with, and proximate to the commission that it fails in object because to facts not known to him or because of circumstances beyond his control.
’SINY’ with an intention to pick-pocket his hand into MINU’s pocket, MINU had loaded pistol in his pocket. The thief touches the pistol and trigger goes on, whereby MINU is shot dead.
A SINY will be liable only for attempting to pick-pocket and not killing because she cannot be treated differently from all other pick-pockets who steal under exactly similar circumstances and same intention, with no risk of causing death and with not greater care to avoid it.
SINY cannot be held liable for killing Minu due to an absence of intention to cause death. She will only be liable to what she intended.
Question 31
Read the definition and elements of the attempt, apply them on the given situations and answer the question:
Definition Attempt: Lord Blackburn has said that “there is no doubt that there is difference between a preparation antecedent to an attempt and the actual attempt, but if the actual transaction has commenced which would ended in the crime if not interrupted, there is Cleary an attempt to commit the crime.”
1. Fault element: Intention or knowledge requisite for committing an offence; and
2. Conduct Element: Does any act towards its commission and has crossed the stage of preparation. This act is so closely connected with, and proximate to the commission that it fails in object because to facts not known to him or because of circumstances beyond his control.
’RANI’ ran to a well stating that she would jump into it, and she started running towards the well but she was caught before she could reach it.
Definition Attempt: Lord Blackburn has said that “there is no doubt that there is difference between a preparation antecedent to an attempt and the actual attempt, but if the actual transaction has commenced which would ended in the crime if not interrupted, there is Cleary an attempt to commit the crime.”
1. Fault element: Intention or knowledge requisite for committing an offence; and
2. Conduct Element: Does any act towards its commission and has crossed the stage of preparation. This act is so closely connected with, and proximate to the commission that it fails in object because to facts not known to him or because of circumstances beyond his control.
’RANI’ ran to a well stating that she would jump into it, and she started running towards the well but she was caught before she could reach it.
A She is not guilty of attempt to commit suicide because she might have changed her mind before jumping into the well.
Rani could have changed her mind before jumping into the well at any point before attempting the jump. So her act does not qualify as attempt. Attempt is the last stage towards actualisation of the intended crime.
Question 32
Read the definition and elements of the attempt, apply them on the given situations and answer the question:
Definition Attempt: Lord Blackburn has said that “there is no doubt that there is difference between a preparation antecedent to an attempt and the actual attempt, but if the actual transaction has commenced which would ended in the crime if not interrupted, there is Cleary an attempt to commit the crime.”
1. Fault element: Intention or knowledge requisite for committing an offence; and
2. Conduct Element: Does any act towards its commission and has crossed the stage of preparation. This act is so closely connected with, and proximate to the commission that it fails in object because to facts not known to him or because of circumstances beyond his control.
‘JAM’ denied food to his wife JANE for several days by keeping her confined in a room with an intention to accelerate her death. JANE ultimately managed to escape.
Definition Attempt: Lord Blackburn has said that “there is no doubt that there is difference between a preparation antecedent to an attempt and the actual attempt, but if the actual transaction has commenced which would ended in the crime if not interrupted, there is Cleary an attempt to commit the crime.”
1. Fault element: Intention or knowledge requisite for committing an offence; and
2. Conduct Element: Does any act towards its commission and has crossed the stage of preparation. This act is so closely connected with, and proximate to the commission that it fails in object because to facts not known to him or because of circumstances beyond his control.
‘JAM’ denied food to his wife JANE for several days by keeping her confined in a room with an intention to accelerate her death. JANE ultimately managed to escape.
A JAM is guilty for attempt to murder his wife.
Since Jane managed to escape herself hence JAM’s action would qualify to be called an attempt. Jam will be liable to attempt to murder because if she would have succeeded, her act would have eventually caused Jane’s death.
Question 33
Choose the best option for the following statement:
The distinction between fraud and misrepresentation:
1. Fraud is more or less intentional wrong, whereas misrepresentation be quite innocent.
2. In addition to rendering the contract voidable, is a cause of action in tort for damages, Simple misrepresentation is not a tort but a person who rightfully rescinds a contract is entitled compensation for any damages which he has sustained through the non-fulfilment of the contract.
3. A person complaining of misrepresentation can be met with the defences that he had “the means of discovering the truth with ordinary diligence” But excepting fraud by silence in other cases of fraud it is no defence that “the plaintiff had the means of discovering the truth by ordinary diligence”.
The distinction between fraud and misrepresentation:
1. Fraud is more or less intentional wrong, whereas misrepresentation be quite innocent.
2. In addition to rendering the contract voidable, is a cause of action in tort for damages, Simple misrepresentation is not a tort but a person who rightfully rescinds a contract is entitled compensation for any damages which he has sustained through the non-fulfilment of the contract.
3. A person complaining of misrepresentation can be met with the defences that he had “the means of discovering the truth with ordinary diligence” But excepting fraud by silence in other cases of fraud it is no defence that “the plaintiff had the means of discovering the truth by ordinary diligence”.
C 1, 2 & 3 are correct
The major difference between fraud and misrepresentation are as under: Fraud is a deliberate misstatement of a material fact. Misrepresentation is a bonafide representation of misstatement believing it to be true which turns out to be untrue.
Question 34
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given fact carefully and select the best option.
PRINCIPLE: A person in said to be sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect up on his interests.
FACT: Mr. X who is usually of sound mind, but occasionally of unsound mind enters into a contract with Mr. When he is of unsound mind, Y came to know about this fact afterwards and now wants to file a suit against Mr. X.
PRINCIPLE: A person in said to be sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect up on his interests.
FACT: Mr. X who is usually of sound mind, but occasionally of unsound mind enters into a contract with Mr. When he is of unsound mind, Y came to know about this fact afterwards and now wants to file a suit against Mr. X.
A Mr. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound mind when he entered into contract.
The principle says that the person should be of a sound mind while making the contract. The principle does not lay any stress on the burden of proof hence (b) will not be the option. Mr. X was not of a sound state of mind at the time of entering into the contract.
Question 35
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given fact carefully and select the best option.
PRINCIPLE: Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are void.
FACT: A horse was bought for a ceratin price coupled with promise to give Rs. 500 more if the horse proved lucky.
PRINCIPLE: Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are void.
FACT: A horse was bought for a ceratin price coupled with promise to give Rs. 500 more if the horse proved lucky.
B This agreements is void for uncertainty because it is very difficult to determine what luck, bad or good, the horse had brought to the buyer.
The agreement is uncertain and it cannot be made certain also because it is difficult to find out if the horse will bring good luck or bad luck to the buyer. And it is on the ground of this uncertainty that the entire agreement will be void.
Question 36
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given fact carefully and select the best option.
PRINCIPLE: A master is liable for the acts committed by his servant in the course of employment.
FACT: Sanjay is a driver working in Brooke bond and co. one day, the Manager asked him to drop a customer at the airport and get back at the earliest. On his way back from the airport, he happened to see his fiancé Ruhina waiting for a bus to go home. He offered to drop her at home, which happened to be closed to his office. She got into the car and soon thereafter; the car somersaulted due to the negligence to Sanjay. Ruhina was thrown out of the car suffered multiple injuries. She seeks compensation from Brooke bond and Co.
PRINCIPLE: A master is liable for the acts committed by his servant in the course of employment.
FACT: Sanjay is a driver working in Brooke bond and co. one day, the Manager asked him to drop a customer at the airport and get back at the earliest. On his way back from the airport, he happened to see his fiancé Ruhina waiting for a bus to go home. He offered to drop her at home, which happened to be closed to his office. She got into the car and soon thereafter; the car somersaulted due to the negligence to Sanjay. Ruhina was thrown out of the car suffered multiple injuries. She seeks compensation from Brooke bond and Co.
A Brooke bond and Co. shall be liable, because Sanjay was in the course of employment at the time of accident.
As per the principle which lays stress on “in the course of employment”, getting back from the airport was a part of the task the manager had assigned to Sanjay. As a result Brooke bond is liable to pay compensation.
Question 37
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given fact carefully and select the best option.
PRINCIPLE: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal.
FACT: “Ramanuj telegrammed to the Shyamsunder, writing.” will you sell me your Rolls Royce Car? Telegram the lowest cash price “Shyamsunder replied too by telegram: ‘Lowest price for CAR is Rs. 20 Lacs, asked by you’ Now Shyams under refused to sell the Car.
PRINCIPLE: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal.
FACT: “Ramanuj telegrammed to the Shyamsunder, writing.” will you sell me your Rolls Royce Car? Telegram the lowest cash price “Shyamsunder replied too by telegram: ‘Lowest price for CAR is Rs. 20 Lacs, asked by you’ Now Shyams under refused to sell the Car.
C It was not a valid offer because willingness to enter into a contract was absent.
When a price is quoted it is only an invitation to offer and not an offer. The first communication stressed on two aspects willingness to sell and lowest price. In reply only the lowest price was quoted and that’s why it can’t be treated as an offer. (b) will not be the correct answer because principle nowhere mentions about invitation to offer and the candidate is not expected to apply personal knowledge.
Question 38
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given fact carefully and select the best option.
PRINCIPLE: Ignorantia juris not excusat and ignorantia facti excusat.
FACT: George was passenger from Zurich to Manila in Swiss plane. When the plane landed at the airport at Bombay on 28th Nov 1962 it was found on searct that George carried 34 Kgs of gold bars in Person and that he had not declared it in the ‘Manifest for transit’, on 26th Nov.1962 Government of India issued a notification and modified its earliest exemption and now it is necessary that, the gold must the declared in the “Manifest” of the aircraft.
PRINCIPLE: Ignorantia juris not excusat and ignorantia facti excusat.
FACT: George was passenger from Zurich to Manila in Swiss plane. When the plane landed at the airport at Bombay on 28th Nov 1962 it was found on searct that George carried 34 Kgs of gold bars in Person and that he had not declared it in the ‘Manifest for transit’, on 26th Nov.1962 Government of India issued a notification and modified its earliest exemption and now it is necessary that, the gold must the declared in the “Manifest” of the aircraft.
C George will be prosecuted because mistake of law is not excusable.
“Ignorance of law cannot be claimed as an excuse”. At the time when George was carrying the gold the law was already in force. Hence George will be liable. And as per the given principle he cannot take the defence that he was not aware of the prevalent law.
Question 39
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given fact carefully and select the best option.
PRINCIPLE: Preparation is not an offence except the preparation some special offences.
FACT: Ramesh keeps poisoned halua in his house, wishing to kill Binoy whom he invited to party and to whom he wishes to give it, Unknown to Ramesh, his only son takes the halua and dies, in this case.
PRINCIPLE: Preparation is not an offence except the preparation some special offences.
FACT: Ramesh keeps poisoned halua in his house, wishing to kill Binoy whom he invited to party and to whom he wishes to give it, Unknown to Ramesh, his only son takes the halua and dies, in this case.
C He is liable for culpable homicide
Ramesh is not liable since his act amounts to preparation alone. And the general rule of criminology is that preparation is not punishable. Preparation consists of arranging or building things that are needed to commit the crime. For example, purchasing poison. However, it is possible for the person to abandon his course of action at this stage without causing any harm to anyone. In general, preparation is not considered a crime because it cannot be proved beyond doubt the goal of the preparation. For example, purchasing knife with an intention to kill someone is not a crime because it cannot be determined whether the knife was bought to kill someone or to chop vegetables.
Question 40
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given fact carefully and select the best option.
PRINCIPLE: Nuisance as a tort (Civil wrong) means an unlawful interference with a person’s use of enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it.
FACT: During the scarcity of onions, long queues were made outside the defendant’s shop who having a license to sell fruits and vegetables used to sell only 1 kg. onion per ration card. The queues extended on the highway and also caused some obstruction to the neighbouring shops. The neighbouring shopkeepers brought and action for nuisance against the defendant.
PRINCIPLE: Nuisance as a tort (Civil wrong) means an unlawful interference with a person’s use of enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it.
FACT: During the scarcity of onions, long queues were made outside the defendant’s shop who having a license to sell fruits and vegetables used to sell only 1 kg. onion per ration card. The queues extended on the highway and also caused some obstruction to the neighbouring shops. The neighbouring shopkeepers brought and action for nuisance against the defendant.
A The defendant is liable for nuisance
The long queues due to the shopkeeper’s actions interfered with the rights of enjoyment of property of other shopkeepers. Hence it amounts to nuisance as per the principle is concerned. Also the liability in torts is based on violation of legal right and the moment the legal right of another person is violated, the person is liable even if he had no intent to violate the legal right.
Question 41
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given fact carefully and select the best option.
PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong of contrary of law.
FACT: A takes his son B who is three years old, for a bath to the well. He throws his son inside the well so that he could have a good bath. After 10 minutes he also jumped in the well to take bath and take his son out of the well. Both were rescued by the villagers but his son was found dead.
PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong of contrary of law.
FACT: A takes his son B who is three years old, for a bath to the well. He throws his son inside the well so that he could have a good bath. After 10 minutes he also jumped in the well to take bath and take his son out of the well. Both were rescued by the villagers but his son was found dead.
C A has done no offence as he can plead the defence of unsoundness of mind
A threw his son in the well and then jumped himself. This brings out the fact that he does not understand the nature of his act. It can easily be derived from the facts that A did the act in pursuance of unsound state of mind as no father would “throw” his 3 year old son into well for bathing.
Question 42
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given fact carefully and select the best option.
PRINCIPLE: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent moves that property, such taking is said to commit theft.
FACT: Ramu cuts down a tree on RINKU’s ground, with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of RINKU’s possession without RINKU’s consent. A could not take the tree away.
PRINCIPLE: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent moves that property, such taking is said to commit theft.
FACT: Ramu cuts down a tree on RINKU’s ground, with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of RINKU’s possession without RINKU’s consent. A could not take the tree away.
A RAMU can be prosecuted for theft
Ramu will be prosecuted for theft, since he had the intention of taking away the tree after cutting it. The principle clearly talks about the intention of taking away property.
Question 43
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given fact carefully and select the best option.
PRINCIPLE: Everybody is under a legal obligation to take reasonable care to avoid and act or omission which he can foresee would injure his neighbour. The neighbour for this purpose, is any person whom he should have in his mind as likely to be affected by his act.
FACT: Krishnan, while driving a car at high speed in a crowded road, knocked down a cyclist. The cyclist died on the spot with a lot of blood spilling around, Lakshmi, a pregnant woman passing by, suffered from a nervous shock, leading to abortion. Lakshmi filed a suit against Krishnan claiming damages.
PRINCIPLE: Everybody is under a legal obligation to take reasonable care to avoid and act or omission which he can foresee would injure his neighbour. The neighbour for this purpose, is any person whom he should have in his mind as likely to be affected by his act.
FACT: Krishnan, while driving a car at high speed in a crowded road, knocked down a cyclist. The cyclist died on the spot with a lot of blood spilling around, Lakshmi, a pregnant woman passing by, suffered from a nervous shock, leading to abortion. Lakshmi filed a suit against Krishnan claiming damages.
B Krishna will not be liable, because he could not have foreseen Lakshmi suffering from nervous shock as a result of his act.
The main point of consideration is whether Krishnan could have foreseen that a pregnant woman would experience a nervous shock which would lead to her abortion. The death of the cyclist could have been foreseen. Hence will not be liable.
Question 44
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given fact carefully and select the best option.
PRINCIPLE: “Nobody shall unlawfully interfere with a person’s use or enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it. The use or enjoyment, envisaged herein, should be normal and reasonable taking into account surrounding situation.”
FACT: Jeevan and Pavan were neighbours in residential locality. Pavan started a typing class in a part of his house and his typing sound disturbed Jeevan who could not put up with and kind of continuous noise. He filed a suit against Pavan.
PRINCIPLE: “Nobody shall unlawfully interfere with a person’s use or enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it. The use or enjoyment, envisaged herein, should be normal and reasonable taking into account surrounding situation.”
FACT: Jeevan and Pavan were neighbours in residential locality. Pavan started a typing class in a part of his house and his typing sound disturbed Jeevan who could not put up with and kind of continuous noise. He filed a suit against Pavan.
D None of the above
The question would fall in tough category because the options do not perfectly match the given situation. Option (a) will not be correct because it is suggestive in nature. Option (b) will again not be correct because facts nowhere mentions the delicate nature and choosing this option would amount to applying personal knowledge. Option (c) will again be ruled out because causing disturbance to anyone else or not is neither a criteria mentioned in principle nor it is mentioned in facts. Hence (d) will be most appropriate option.
Question 45
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given fact carefully and select the best option.
PRINCIPLE: Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not fraud, unless the circumstances of the case are such that, regard being had to them, it is the duty of the person keeping silence to speak, or unless his silence is, in its self, equivalent to speech.
FACT: A sells, by auction, to B, a horse, which A knows to be unsound. A says nothing to B about the horse’s unsoundness.
PRINCIPLE: Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not fraud, unless the circumstances of the case are such that, regard being had to them, it is the duty of the person keeping silence to speak, or unless his silence is, in its self, equivalent to speech.
FACT: A sells, by auction, to B, a horse, which A knows to be unsound. A says nothing to B about the horse’s unsoundness.
C A cannot be held liable, because he did not say anything positive about the soundness of horse.
One has a duty to speak in those situations where the circumstances are of such a nature that silence could be equated with speech, hence in this situation A was not obligated or duty bound to speak. Silence amounts to fraud only when there is a duty to speak and the duty arises only when the seller is asked to disclose facts about the thing which he sells. Where the buyer does not ask anything, the seller is not bound to disclose on his own.
Question 46
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given fact carefully and select the best option.
PRINCIPLE: Injuria sine Damnum i.e. injury without damage.
FACT: SONU, who was returning officer at a polling booth, wrongly refused to register a duly tendered vote of MONU, though he was qualified voter, the candidate, whom MONU sought to vote, was declared elected.
PRINCIPLE: Injuria sine Damnum i.e. injury without damage.
FACT: SONU, who was returning officer at a polling booth, wrongly refused to register a duly tendered vote of MONU, though he was qualified voter, the candidate, whom MONU sought to vote, was declared elected.
B MONU can sue SONU on the ground that he was denied to caste vote, which is a legal right.
Monu was not allowed to vote despite of being a qualified voter. Hence his right to vote was clearly violated, which amounts to legal injury and hence he can sue. Right to vote is a legal right
Question 47
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given fact carefully and select the best option.
PRINCIPLE: Doctrine of Double Jeopardy: No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence twice.
FACT: Maqbool brought some gold into India without making any declaration to Custom Department on the airport. The custom authorities confiscated the gold under the Sea Customs Act. Maqbool was later charged for having committed an offence under Foreign Exchange Regulation Act.
PRINCIPLE: Doctrine of Double Jeopardy: No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence twice.
FACT: Maqbool brought some gold into India without making any declaration to Custom Department on the airport. The custom authorities confiscated the gold under the Sea Customs Act. Maqbool was later charged for having committed an offence under Foreign Exchange Regulation Act.
B He can be prosecuted because confiscation of good by custom authorities does not amount to prosecution by the Court.
Doctrine of Double Jeopardy means that nobody can be punished and prosecuted for the same offence twice. Confiscation of gold does not amount to either prosecution or punishment. Only judicial proceedings come within the ambit of Article 20 of the Constitution.
Question 48
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given fact carefully and select the best option.
PRINCIPLE: Any direct physical interference with the goods in somebody’s possession without lawful justification is called trespass to goods.
FACT: A purchased a car from a person who had no little to it and had send it to a garage for repair. X, believing, wrongly, that the car was his, removed it from the garage.
PRINCIPLE: Any direct physical interference with the goods in somebody’s possession without lawful justification is called trespass to goods.
FACT: A purchased a car from a person who had no little to it and had send it to a garage for repair. X, believing, wrongly, that the car was his, removed it from the garage.
A X can be held responsible for trespass to goods.
As per the principle removing a person’s car amounts to direct interference with the use of property. Because the principle is silent about the intention that’s why X will be held liable. Also that the wrongful belief is not a lawful justification.
Question 49
In a recent case a Supreme Court bench comprising of justice Dipak Misra and Justice Parafulla C pant held that the amount of maintenance to be awarded under Section 125 of CrPC cannot be restricted for the ideate period (three months) only as the inherent and fundamental principal behind section 125.
Also, it said that an order under Section 125 CPC can be passed if person, despite having sufficient means, neglects or refuses to maintain the wife.
Also, it said that an order under Section 125 CPC can be passed if person, despite having sufficient means, neglects or refuses to maintain the wife.
A Shamima Farooqui v. Shahid Khan
Refining the settled position relating to maintenance to divorced muslim women, a two judge bench of the Supreme Court in Shamima Farooqui v. Shahid Khan has held that Women cannot be treated as beggars and their grace cannot be lowered in rightful claim to maintenance after divorce if the husband has since then retired from his service.
Question 50
Select the correct statements on Social Justice Bench constituted on social issue
1. Constituted by Supreme Court on 3 December 2014
2. Started operation on 12 December 2014
3. The brainchild of Chief Justice of India H L Dhattu
4. Two-judge bench to be headed by Justice Madan B Lokur
5. The other member is Justice U Lalit
1. Constituted by Supreme Court on 3 December 2014
2. Started operation on 12 December 2014
3. The brainchild of Chief Justice of India H L Dhattu
4. Two-judge bench to be headed by Justice Madan B Lokur
5. The other member is Justice U Lalit
D All are correct
The Supreme Court of India had set up a Social Justice Bench, which comprises of two judges devoted to the delivery of speedy justice in a range of social issues related to the downtrodden and socially marginalized groups.
