Section: Verbal Ability
Question 1
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
A vote of ______ proposed at the end of the meeting.
A vote of ______ proposed at the end of the meeting.
D thanks was
It’s always “a vote of thanks’. Also since it’s a ‘vote’ it must be singular. Hence, the verb must be singular: ‘was thanks’ is appropriate here.
Question 2
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
During the recession many companies will ______ lay off workers.
During the recession many companies will ______ lay off workers.
A be forced to
‘Forcefully’ means ‘by the use of force’ and is an inappropriate in this context. Similarly ‘have the force to’ is an incorrect expression. And to ‘be forced into’ something means to ‘be compelled’ into doing something, but this phrase is usually followed by the present participle form of the verb i.e. “will be forced into laying off workers”.
Hence the correct choice is option a.
Question 3
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
She has good ______ over the famous foreign languages.
She has good ______ over the famous foreign languages.
B command
It is commonplace to use the phrase “good command over” something such as a language, household etc.
Question 4
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
The Chairman pointed out in favour of the manager that the profitability of the industrial plant had ______ since he took over the administration.
The Chairman pointed out in favour of the manager that the profitability of the industrial plant had ______ since he took over the administration.
D increased
It is obvious from the context of the sentence that options b and c are irrelevant. Also note that ‘arisen’ is the past participle form of the verb ‘arise’ that means ‘to stand up or to emerge/become apparent’. Both these meanings are out of context here. Instead ‘risen’ would have been as appropriate here as ‘had increased’.
Question 5
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
When the examinations were over ______ went to Paris.
When the examinations were over ______ went to Paris.
D Rohan and I
Here the blank will be the subject of this sentence (doer of the action ‘went’). Hence the appropriate form should be “Rohan and I”.
Question 6
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
Let's go for a walk, ______ ?
Let's go for a walk, ______ ?
B shall we
The style of questioning in options c and d usually comes as a follow up to a related statement. For example, “I can climb the mountain, can’t I?” or “I should knock on his door, shouldn’t I?” This kind of a statement usually looks for reaffirmation from somebody else. However, in this sentence we are asking for permission so we can ignore these options. Option a can also be rejected since it questions ability i.e. whether we can go for a walk.
Question 7
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
Had Anil been on time he ______ missed the train.
Had Anil been on time he ______ missed the train.
D would not have
This is a conditional statement with the first clause being in the past perfect tense (Had __ been on time), so the second clause should be in the present perfect tense. Hence the appropriate choice is option d i.e. ‘he would not have missed the train’.
Question 8
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
The most alarming fact is that infection is spreading ______ the state and reaching villages and small towns.
The most alarming fact is that infection is spreading ______ the state and reaching villages and small towns.
B across
The appropriate preposition with the verb ‘spreading’ is ‘across’. Note that this is also confirmed by the fact the infection is spreading ‘across’ the state, as it is not ‘reaching villages and small towns’.
Question 9
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
In big cities people are cut ______ from nature.
In big cities people are cut ______ from nature.
A off
Here the preposition that is appropriate with the verb ‘cut’ is ‘off’. To ‘cut something off’ means to ‘isolate something’.
Question 10
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
The dissidents ______ a great problem in every political party.
The dissidents ______ a great problem in every political party.
B cause
Here the appropriate verb will be ‘cause’. Note that ‘give’ and ‘hold’ are inappropriate as they do not convey the desired meaning. Also, while it is common to say that ‘something poses a great problem’, usually this is followed by the preposition ‘to’ such as “The dissidents pose a great problem to the secular fabric of the country’.
Question 11
The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
(a) Payment for imports and exports is made through a system called foreign exchange. The value of the money of one country in relation to the money of other countries is agreed upon.
(b) The rates of exchange vary from time to time.
(c) For example an American dollar or a British pound sterling is worth certain amounts in the money of other countries.
(d) Sometimes a US dollar is worth 60 rupees in India.
(a) Payment for imports and exports is made through a system called foreign exchange. The value of the money of one country in relation to the money of other countries is agreed upon.
(b) The rates of exchange vary from time to time.
(c) For example an American dollar or a British pound sterling is worth certain amounts in the money of other countries.
(d) Sometimes a US dollar is worth 60 rupees in India.
C acbd
The paragraph should start with “a” as it introduces the main topic.
“c” should then follow “a” as it gives an example of point introduced in “a”.
Hence, option c is the correct answer.
“c” should then follow “a” as it gives an example of point introduced in “a”.
Hence, option c is the correct answer.
Question 12
The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
(a) When a dictionary is being edited. a lexicographer collects all the alphabetically arranged citation slips for a particular word.
(b) The moment a new word is coined. It usually enters the spoken language.
(c) The dictionary takes note of it and makes a note of it on a citation slip.
(d) The word then passes from the realm of hearing to the realm of writing.
(a) When a dictionary is being edited. a lexicographer collects all the alphabetically arranged citation slips for a particular word.
(b) The moment a new word is coined. It usually enters the spoken language.
(c) The dictionary takes note of it and makes a note of it on a citation slip.
(d) The word then passes from the realm of hearing to the realm of writing.
B acbd
“b” and “d” are mandatory pair and they only feature together in choice “b”.
Question 13
The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
(a) The impression that corruption is a universal phenomenon persists and the people do not co-operate in checking this evil.
(b) So there is hardly anything that the government can do about it now.
(c) It is regrettable that there is a widespread corruption in the country at all levels.
(d) Recently several offenders were brought to book. but they were not given deterrent punishment.
(a) The impression that corruption is a universal phenomenon persists and the people do not co-operate in checking this evil.
(b) So there is hardly anything that the government can do about it now.
(c) It is regrettable that there is a widespread corruption in the country at all levels.
(d) Recently several offenders were brought to book. but they were not given deterrent punishment.
A cdab
“a” , “c” and “d” build a case for the final conclusion - that the government can do nothing about the corruption. So (b) must be the last sentence.
The correct answer could be either option a or option c.
Option a is a better choice as “c” introduces the main idea and should be the first sentence!
The correct answer could be either option a or option c.
Option a is a better choice as “c” introduces the main idea and should be the first sentence!
Question 14
The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
(a) In all social affairs convention prescribes more or less generally accepted rules of behaviour.
(b) Of course, there is nothing absolute about conventions.
(c) They vary from country to country, from age to age.
(d) Convention has a necessary part to play in the life of everyone.
(a) In all social affairs convention prescribes more or less generally accepted rules of behaviour.
(b) Of course, there is nothing absolute about conventions.
(c) They vary from country to country, from age to age.
(d) Convention has a necessary part to play in the life of everyone.
D dabc
bc form mandatory pair – in “c” they refer to “conventions" that are mentioned in “b”.
The paragraph should start with “d” as it introduces the main topic – conventions.
Hence choice d is the best answer.
The paragraph should start with “d” as it introduces the main topic – conventions.
Hence choice d is the best answer.
Question 15
The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
(a) In fact. only recently there have been serious studies to find out how many of us actually have nightmares.
(b) Now that is changing.
(c) The study of nightmares has been curiously neglected.
(d) While results so far are inconclusive, it seems fair to say that at least half the population has occasional nightmares.
(a) In fact. only recently there have been serious studies to find out how many of us actually have nightmares.
(b) Now that is changing.
(c) The study of nightmares has been curiously neglected.
(d) While results so far are inconclusive, it seems fair to say that at least half the population has occasional nightmares.
D cbad
cb form mandatory pair – “c” informs us that study of nightmares has been neglected and “b” informs us that it is changing now. Only choice “D” has these two together and is the correct choice.
Question 16
Given below are a few foreign language phrases which are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for each of the phrases.
Ex officio
Ex officio
C By virtue of office
The meaning of ‘ex-officio’ is “by virtue of one’s position or status”.
Question 17
Given below are a few foreign language phrases which are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for each of the phrases.
Ultra Vires
Ultra Vires
D Beyond powers
The meaning of ‘ultra vires’ is “beyond one’s legal power or authority”.
Question 18
Given below are a few foreign language phrases which are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for each of the phrases.
Quid pro quo
Quid pro quo
B Something for something
The meaning of ‘quid pro quo’ is “a favour or advantage granted in return for something”.
Question 19
Given below are a few foreign language phrases which are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for each of the phrases.
Inter vivos
Inter vivos
B among the living and the dead
‘Inter vivos’ means a gift ‘between living people’.
Question 20
Given below are a few foreign language phrases which are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for each of the phrases.
Corpus juris
Corpus juris
C body of law
The legal term ‘corpus juris’ means ‘body of law’.
Question 21
Select the word that is spelt CORRECTLY.
Which of the following spellings is correct?
Which of the following spellings is correct?
D Consensus
Consensus
Question 22
Select the word that is spelt CORRECTLY.
Which of the following spellings is correct?
Which of the following spellings is correct?
B Proceed
Proceed
Question 23
Select the word that is spelt CORRECTLY.
Which of the following spellings is correct?
Which of the following spellings is correct?
A Accommodate
Accommodate
Question 24
Select the word that is spelt CORRECTLY.
Which of the following spellings is correct for “a page at the beinning of a book”?
Which of the following spellings is correct for “a page at the beinning of a book”?
D Foreword
Foreword
Question 25
Select the word that is spelt CORRECTLY.
Which of the following spellings is correct?
Which of the following spellings is correct?
B Argument
Argument
Question 26
Choose the explanation that best reflects the spirit of the idiom/proverb/phrase given in each question.
To make clean breast of:
To make clean breast of:
A To tell the truth about something
‘To make clean breast of’ something means ‘to tell the truth about’ it.
Question 27
Choose the explanation that best reflects the spirit of the idiom/proverb/phrase given in each question.
A man of straw:
A man of straw:
C A man of no or little substance
‘A man of straw’ is ‘a man of no or little substance’.
Question 28
Choose the explanation that best reflects the spirit of the idiom/proverb/phrase given in each question.
A wild-goose chase:
A wild-goose chase:
D A futile pursuit
‘A wild-goose chase’ is ‘a futile pursuit’.
Question 29
Choose the explanation that best reflects the spirit of the idiom/proverb/phrase given in each question.
Put on the market:
Put on the market:
A To offer for sale
To ‘put something on the market’ is to ‘offer it for sale’.
Question 30
Choose the explanation that best reflects the spirit of the idiom/proverb/phrase given in each question.
To meet someone halfway:
To meet someone halfway:
B To compromise with someone
‘To meet someone halfway’ is ‘to compromise with someone’.
Question 31
The principal focus of the passage is:
C Higher education
The author talks about the importance of higher education, the percentage of population that needs higher education and the challenges faced by higher education in the current context. The focus of the author is thus on the higher education.
Question 32
The style of the passage can be best described as:
B Critical and analytical
The author discusses the positives and negatives of the current education infrastructure; the author is also objective in terms of his analysis of the demand for and the supply of higher education. At best his style tends more towards being critical and analytical.
Question 33
What kind of society can provide the foundation for a knowledge society?
D Inclusive society
In the second last para the author writes “it is only an inclusive society that can provide the foundations for a knowledge society”.
Question 34
According to the passage which one of the following is INCORRECT?
A There are no quality institutes providing excellent professional education in India
The author believes that India does have few excellent academic institutions – “Islands of excellence in professional education, such as Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) and Indian Institute of Management (IIMs)” – this makes “a” incorrect.
Question 35
According to the passage, the current state of affairs of higher education in India is:
C Not good enough, and there is a need of expansion of opportunities for higher education. besides creating institutions and universities that are models of excellence
From the last two paragraphs it is clear that the author believes that the current education is not sufficient enough to make India a knowledge society.
Question 36
According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a challenge that confronts higher education in lndia?
D Getting into World University Rankings
Other than “d” everything else has been stated as a challenge by the author.
Question 37
According to the passage which of the following is CORRECT‟?
D All the above propositions are correct
All of these are correct as per the passage.
Question 38
Should the entire university system in India be modelled on premier institutes, such as, IITs and IIMs. providing professional education„?
C No
“…IITs and IIMs, are valuable complements but cannot be substitutes for universities which provide educational opportunities for people at large” – this makes “c” the correct answer.
Question 39
What is the antonym of the expression "cutting edge"?
A Conventional
Cutting edge means latest so its antonym will be “conventional”.
Question 40
What is the meaning of the word "discernible‟?
B Noticeable
Discernible means noticeable.
Section: Quantitative Aptitude
Question 1
The next number in the sequence is: 19, 29, 37, 43.....
B 47
This series is a modified arithmetic progression where the common difference decreases by 2 each time:
19
19 + 10 = 29
29 + (10 – 2) = 37
37 + (8 – 2) = 43
43 + (6 – 2) = 47
Hence the next term must be 47.
19
19 + 10 = 29
29 + (10 – 2) = 37
37 + (8 – 2) = 43
43 + (6 – 2) = 47
Hence the next term must be 47.
Question 2
An unknown man is found murdered. The corpse has one gold plated tooth. Right ear is pierced and a healed fracture of left hand thumb. A man with these characteristics is reported missing. What are the chances (probability) of the corpse being the missing man? (Given the occurrence of the gold-plated teeth in the area 1 in 5000, left hand thumb fractures 1 in 20000 and of right ear pierces 1 in 100).
D 1 in 10,000,000,000
Let A, B and C represent the conditions of having a gold tooth, right eye being pierced and left thumb being fractured.
Clearly these conditions are independent of each other.
So, P(A and B and C) = P(A) x P(B) x P(C) = 1/5000 x 1/20000 x 1/100 = 1/10,000,000,000
Clearly these conditions are independent of each other.
So, P(A and B and C) = P(A) x P(B) x P(C) = 1/5000 x 1/20000 x 1/100 = 1/10,000,000,000
Question 3
B 24.5
Evaluating the division first we get:
5 + 12 x 10 ÷ ½ = A x 10
i.e. 5 + 12 x 10 x 2 = A x 10
Evaluating the multiplication followed by addition we get:
5 + 240 = 10A
i.e. 10A = 245
So, A = 24.5
5 + 12 x 10 ÷ ½ = A x 10
i.e. 5 + 12 x 10 x 2 = A x 10
Evaluating the multiplication followed by addition we get:
5 + 240 = 10A
i.e. 10A = 245
So, A = 24.5
Question 4
The Least Common Multiple (LCM) of 0.12, 9.60 and 0.60 is:
A 9.60
We want LCM of 0.12, 9.6, 0.6
i.e. 12/100, 96/10 and 6/10 i.e. LCM of 3/25, 48/5 and 3/5
Now, LCM of fractions = LCM of numerators/HCF of denominators
So, required LCM = LCM (3, 48 and 3)/HCF (25, 5 and 5) = 48/5 = 9.6
i.e. 12/100, 96/10 and 6/10 i.e. LCM of 3/25, 48/5 and 3/5
Now, LCM of fractions = LCM of numerators/HCF of denominators
So, required LCM = LCM (3, 48 and 3)/HCF (25, 5 and 5) = 48/5 = 9.6
Question 5
There are 30 boys and 40 girls in a class. If the average age of boys is 10 yr and average age of girls is 8 yr. then the average age of the whole class is:
B 8.86 yr
Average age of 30 boys = 10 years
So, Total age of 30 boys = 10 x 30 = 300 years
Average age of 40 girls = 8 years
So, Total age of 40 girls = 8 x 40 = 320 years
Hence, Total age of whole class = 300 + 320 = 620 years
Hence, required average of whole class = 620/70 = 8.86 years
So, Total age of 30 boys = 10 x 30 = 300 years
Average age of 40 girls = 8 years
So, Total age of 40 girls = 8 x 40 = 320 years
Hence, Total age of whole class = 300 + 320 = 620 years
Hence, required average of whole class = 620/70 = 8.86 years
Question 6
A person spends 1/3 part of his income on food, 1/4 part on house rent and remaining ₹630 on other items. The house rent is:
C ₹378
Let total income be ₹X.
Then, Food expenses = X/3
And, House rent expenses = X/4
So remaining income = X – X/3 – X/4 = (12X – 4X – 3X)/12 = 5X/12
Hence, 5X/12 = 630 or X = 630 x 12/5 = 126 x 12 = ₹1512
So House rent expenses = X/4 = 1512/4 = ₹378
Then, Food expenses = X/3
And, House rent expenses = X/4
So remaining income = X – X/3 – X/4 = (12X – 4X – 3X)/12 = 5X/12
Hence, 5X/12 = 630 or X = 630 x 12/5 = 126 x 12 = ₹1512
So House rent expenses = X/4 = 1512/4 = ₹378
Question 7
A person covers a certain distance by car at a speed of 30 km/h and comes back at a speed of 40 km/h. The average speed during the travel is:
A 34.3 km/h
Method-1:
When equal distances are travelled at speeds of A and B respectively,
Average Speed = 2AB/(A + B) = 2 x 30 x 40/70 = 240/7 = 34.3 km/h
Method-2:
Let the distance travelled one way be D.
Then time taken when going = D/30
And time taken when coming back = D/40
Hence total time taken = D/30 + D/40
Also, total distance = 2D
Now, Average speed = Total Distance/Total Time = 2D/(D/30 + D/40)
= 2D/(7D/120) = 2D x 120/7D = 240/7 = 34.3 km/h
When equal distances are travelled at speeds of A and B respectively,
Average Speed = 2AB/(A + B) = 2 x 30 x 40/70 = 240/7 = 34.3 km/h
Method-2:
Let the distance travelled one way be D.
Then time taken when going = D/30
And time taken when coming back = D/40
Hence total time taken = D/30 + D/40
Also, total distance = 2D
Now, Average speed = Total Distance/Total Time = 2D/(D/30 + D/40)
= 2D/(7D/120) = 2D x 120/7D = 240/7 = 34.3 km/h
Question 8
An employer reduces the number of employees in the ratio 8:5 and increases their wages in the ratio 7:9. Therefore, the overall wages bill is:
B Decreased in the ratio 56 : 45
Let number of employees be 8N initially and 5N after the reduction.
Also, let wages per employee be 7K initially and 9K after the change.
Then total wage bill initially = 8N x 7K = 56NK
And total wage bill finally = 5N x 9K = 45NK
Clearly the total wage bill has decreased in the ratio 56NK : 45NK = 56 : 45
Also, let wages per employee be 7K initially and 9K after the change.
Then total wage bill initially = 8N x 7K = 56NK
And total wage bill finally = 5N x 9K = 45NK
Clearly the total wage bill has decreased in the ratio 56NK : 45NK = 56 : 45
Question 9
Father is 3 years older than the mother and the mother's age is now twice the daughter's age. If the daughter is 20 years old now, then the father’s age when the daughter was born is:
D 23 years
Daughter’s present age = 20 years.
Then mother’s present age = 2 x 20 = 40 years
And father’s present age = 3 + 40 = 43 years
Clearly the daughter was born 20 years ago.
So, father’s age then would have been = 43 – 20 = 23 years
Then mother’s present age = 2 x 20 = 40 years
And father’s present age = 3 + 40 = 43 years
Clearly the daughter was born 20 years ago.
So, father’s age then would have been = 43 – 20 = 23 years
Question 10
If 80% of A = 20% of B and B = 5x% of A. then the value of x is:
B 80
Given, 80% of A = 20% of B
i.e. 80A/100 = 20B/100 or 4A = B
Also, B = 5x% of A
i.e. 4A = 5x/100 of A
So, x = 4(100/5) = 80
i.e. 80A/100 = 20B/100 or 4A = B
Also, B = 5x% of A
i.e. 4A = 5x/100 of A
So, x = 4(100/5) = 80
Question 11
A mixture of 40 L of alcohol and water contains 10% water. How much water should he added to this mixture so that the new mixture contains 20% water?
B 5L
Water in the initial mixture = 10% of 40 = 10/100 x 40 = 4 litres
Let N litres of water be added.
Then, final volume of mixture = (40 + N) litres
Then, water in the final mixture = 20% of (40 + N)
= 20/100 x (40 + N) = 0.2(40 + N) = 8 + 0.2N
But water in the final mixture = Initial water + water added
So, 4 + N = 8 + 0.2N
i.e. N – 0.2N = 8 – 4 or N = 4/0.8 = 40/8 = 5 litres
Let N litres of water be added.
Then, final volume of mixture = (40 + N) litres
Then, water in the final mixture = 20% of (40 + N)
= 20/100 x (40 + N) = 0.2(40 + N) = 8 + 0.2N
But water in the final mixture = Initial water + water added
So, 4 + N = 8 + 0.2N
i.e. N – 0.2N = 8 – 4 or N = 4/0.8 = 40/8 = 5 litres
Question 12
‘A’ can do a piece of work in 20 days and ‘B’ can do the same work in 15 days. How long will they take to finish the work, if both work together?
C 8<sup>4</sup>/<sub>7</sub> days
Let the work be 60 units.
Using Rate = Work/Time:
Rate of A = 60/20 = 3 units/day
Rate of B = 60/15 = 4 units/day
Then, combined rate when working together = 3 + 4 = 7 units/day
Hence, time taken together = Work/Rate = 60/7 = 84/7 days
Using Rate = Work/Time:
Rate of A = 60/20 = 3 units/day
Rate of B = 60/15 = 4 units/day
Then, combined rate when working together = 3 + 4 = 7 units/day
Hence, time taken together = Work/Rate = 60/7 = 84/7 days
Question 13
A man can row 5 km/h in still water. If the speed of the current is 1 km/h. It takes 3 h more in upstream than in the downstream for the same distance. The distance is:
A 36 km
Rowing Speed = 5 km/h
Speed of the current = 1 km/h
Then, speed when going upstream = (5 – 1) = 4 km/h
And speed when going downstream = (5 + 1) = 6 km/h
Let the man travel D kms upstream and D kms downstream.
Then time taken upstream = Distance/Speed = D/4 hours
And time taken downstream = D/6 hours
Given, D/4 = D/6 + 3 i.e. D/4 – D/6 = 3
i.e. (3D – 2D)/12 = 3
So, D = 12 x 3 = 36 kms
Speed of the current = 1 km/h
Then, speed when going upstream = (5 – 1) = 4 km/h
And speed when going downstream = (5 + 1) = 6 km/h
Let the man travel D kms upstream and D kms downstream.
Then time taken upstream = Distance/Speed = D/4 hours
And time taken downstream = D/6 hours
Given, D/4 = D/6 + 3 i.e. D/4 – D/6 = 3
i.e. (3D – 2D)/12 = 3
So, D = 12 x 3 = 36 kms
Question 14
A starts a business with ₹5000 and B joins the business 5 months later with an investment of ₹6000. After a year, they earn a profit of ₹34000. Find the shares of A and B in the profit amount depending on their individual investment.
A ₹20000, ₹14000
Ratio of profits = (5000 x 12) : (6000 x 7) = 60 : 42 = 10 : 7
Total profit = ₹34000
Using the concept of “Parts of a whole”:
Share of A = 10/17 x 34000 = ₹20000
Share of B = 7/17 x 34000 = ₹14000
Total profit = ₹34000
Using the concept of “Parts of a whole”:
Share of A = 10/17 x 34000 = ₹20000
Share of B = 7/17 x 34000 = ₹14000
Question 15
A farmer has some hens and some goats. If the total number of animal heads is 80 and the total number of animal feet is 200. What is the total number of goats?
C 20
Let H and G be the number of hens and goats.
Since each animal will have only 1 head, H + G = 80 ... (1)
Also, hens have 2 feet while goats have 4 feet so 2H + 4G = 200 i.e. H + 2G = 100 ... (2)
On subtracting (1) from (2) we get: G = 20
So, H = 80 – 20 = 60
Since each animal will have only 1 head, H + G = 80 ... (1)
Also, hens have 2 feet while goats have 4 feet so 2H + 4G = 200 i.e. H + 2G = 100 ... (2)
On subtracting (1) from (2) we get: G = 20
So, H = 80 – 20 = 60
Question 16
A square field has its area equal to 324 m2. The perimeter of the field is:
B 72 m
Area of a square = S2 = 324 m2
So, S = 18 m
Now, perimeter = 4S = 4 x 18 = 72 metres
So, S = 18 m
Now, perimeter = 4S = 4 x 18 = 72 metres
Question 17
A closed metal box measure 30 cm x 20 cm x 10 cm. Thickness of the metal is 1 cm. The volume of the metal required to make the box is:
D 1968 cm<sup>3</sup>
Volume of metal required = Volume of outer cuboid = Volume of inner cuboid
Now outer dimensions are 30 cm x 20 cm x 10 cm
Since thickness = 1 cm:
Inner dimensions = (30 – 2) cm x (20 – 2) cm x (10 – 2) cm i.e. 28 cm x 18 cm x 8 cm
Hence volume of metal required = 30 x 20 x 10 – 28 x 18 x 8 = 6000 – 4032 = 1968 cm3
Now outer dimensions are 30 cm x 20 cm x 10 cm
Since thickness = 1 cm:
Inner dimensions = (30 – 2) cm x (20 – 2) cm x (10 – 2) cm i.e. 28 cm x 18 cm x 8 cm
Hence volume of metal required = 30 x 20 x 10 – 28 x 18 x 8 = 6000 – 4032 = 1968 cm3
Question 18
The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest (compounded annually) on Rs. 2000 for 2 yr at 8% per annum will be:
C ₹13
Method-1:
Remember, CI – SI for 2 years = R% of R% of P
So required difference = 8/100 x 8/100 x 2000 = 64/5 = ₹12.8 or ₹13 approximately.
Method-2:
SI for 2 years = PRT/100 = 2000 x 8 x 2/100 = ₹320
CI for 2 years = P(1 + R/100)T = 2000(1 + 8/100)2 = 2000 x (27/25)2 = 2000 x 729/625 – 2000 = ₹332.8
Hence difference = 332.8 – 320 = ₹12.8 or approximately ₹13
Remember, CI – SI for 2 years = R% of R% of P
So required difference = 8/100 x 8/100 x 2000 = 64/5 = ₹12.8 or ₹13 approximately.
Method-2:
SI for 2 years = PRT/100 = 2000 x 8 x 2/100 = ₹320
CI for 2 years = P(1 + R/100)T = 2000(1 + 8/100)2 = 2000 x (27/25)2 = 2000 x 729/625 – 2000 = ₹332.8
Hence difference = 332.8 – 320 = ₹12.8 or approximately ₹13
Question 19
A dealer marked his goods 20% above the cost price and allows a discount of 10%. Then the gain percent is:
D 12%
Method-1:
We know %p = m – d – md/100 = 20 – 10 – 200/100 = 10 – 2 = 8%
Method-2:
Let CP be ₹100
Since the dealer marks goods 20% above CP:
MP = CP + 20% of CP = 100 + 20/100 x 100 = ₹120
We also know the dealer gives a 10% discount:
So SP = MP – discount = MP – 10% of MP = 120 – 10/100 x 120 = 120 – 12 = ₹108
Hence, gain = SP – CP = 108 – 100 = ₹8
So, % gain = Gain/CP x 100 = 8/100 x 100 = 8%
We know %p = m – d – md/100 = 20 – 10 – 200/100 = 10 – 2 = 8%
Method-2:
Let CP be ₹100
Since the dealer marks goods 20% above CP:
MP = CP + 20% of CP = 100 + 20/100 x 100 = ₹120
We also know the dealer gives a 10% discount:
So SP = MP – discount = MP – 10% of MP = 120 – 10/100 x 120 = 120 – 12 = ₹108
Hence, gain = SP – CP = 108 – 100 = ₹8
So, % gain = Gain/CP x 100 = 8/100 x 100 = 8%
Question 20
A man went to the Reserve Bank of India with ₹2000. He asked the cashier to give him ₹10 and ₹20 notes only in return. The man got 150 notes in all. How many notes of ₹10 did he receive?
A 100
Let A and B be the number of ₹10 notes and ₹20 notes respectively.
Then A + B = 150 ... (1)
Also, total money = ₹2000
So, 10A + 20B = 2000 i.e. A + 2B = 200 ... (2)
Subtracting (1) from (2) we get: B = 200 – 150 = 50
And A = 150 – B = 100
So the man got 100 notes of ₹10.
Then A + B = 150 ... (1)
Also, total money = ₹2000
So, 10A + 20B = 2000 i.e. A + 2B = 200 ... (2)
Subtracting (1) from (2) we get: B = 200 – 150 = 50
And A = 150 – B = 100
So the man got 100 notes of ₹10.
Section: General Knowledge
Question 1
Which of the following Judges of the Supreme Court of India is famously known as the Green Judge?
C Justice Kuldip Singh
Justice Kuldip Singh
Question 2
Law Day is observed on:
D 26th November
26th November
Question 3
In which year Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) was formed by the amalgamation of the Technical Development Establishment (TDE) of the Indian Army and the Directorate of Technical Development & Production (DTDP) with the Defence Science Organisation (DSO):
B 1958
1958
Question 4
The Reserve Bank of India was established in the year:
B 1935
1935
Question 5
Lord Buddha’s image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called Bhumisparsha Mudra’. It signifies:
D Both (A) and (B) are correct.
Both (A) and (B) are correct.
Question 6
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about Fundamental Duties under the Constitution of India? It shall be the duty of every citizen of India
D To vote in public elections.
To vote in public elections.
Question 7
Which one of the following scripts of ancient India was mostly written from right to left?
C Kharoshti
Kharoshti
Question 8
During the time of which Mughal Emperor did the East India Company establish its first factory in India?
B Jahangir
Jahangir
Question 9
Who, among the following first translated the Bhagwat Gita into English?
A Charles Wilkins
Charles Wilkins
Question 10
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
| List I (Author) | List II (Work) |
| (a) Devaki Nandan Khatri | 1. Chandrakanta |
| (b) Premchand | 2. Durgeshnandini |
| (c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay | 3. Dil Darpan |
| 4. Seva Sadan |
D a-1; b-4; c-2
a-1; b-4; c-2
Question 11
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
| List I (Person) | List II (Position) |
| (a) Nagendra Singh | 1. Chief Election Commissioner of India |
| (b) SH Kapadia | 2. President of the International Court of Justice |
| (c) NR Madhava Menon | 3. Former Chief Justice of India |
| (d) VS Sampath | 4. Legal educator and Founder-Director of National Law School of India University |
D a-2; b-3; c-4; d-1
a-2; b-3; c-4; d-1
Question 12
Who was not a Chief Justice of India?
C Justice HR Khanna
Justice HR Khanna
Question 13
Who was the first Attorney-General for India?
B MC Setalvad
MC Setalvad
Question 14
Under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi the Civil Disobedience Movement launched in 1930, started from?
A Sabarmati
Sabarmati
Question 15
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
| List I (Events) | List II (Results) |
| (a) Dandi March | 1. Communal electorate |
| (b) Chauri Chaura | 2. Illegal manufacture of salt |
| (c) Simon Commission | 3. Country-wide agitation |
| (d) Morley Minto Reforms | 4. Withdrawal of a movement |
C a-2; b-4; c-3; d-1
a-2; b-4; c-3; d-1
Question 16
Which of the following planets has the maximum number of natural satellites?
D Saturn
Saturn
Question 17
In India, the interest rate on savings accounts in all the nationalised commercial banks is fixed by?
D None of the above
None of the above
Question 18
Solvents are the substances used to dissolve other substances.
Consider the following substances:
(1) Water (2) Ether (3) Toluene (4) Chloroform (5) Ethanol
Which of the above can be used as solvents?
Consider the following substances:
(1) Water (2) Ether (3) Toluene (4) Chloroform (5) Ethanol
Which of the above can be used as solvents?
D All of these
All of these
Question 19
Viruses are parasitic having DNA/RNA; but they can be crystallised and lack respiration. Therefore, they are treated as:
C Both living and non-living beings
Both living and non-living beings
Question 20
Who is the winner of the coveted Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2013?
B Gulzar
Gulzar
Question 21
Who among the following has been recently appointed as brand ambassador for Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF):
C MC Mary Kom
MC Mary Kom
Question 22
Till date (2014), how many people have been awarded the Bharat Ratna Award?
D 43
43
Question 23
Which country Malala Yousafzai belongs to?
A Pakistan
Pakistan
Question 24
Who recently became the first woman chief of the State Bank of India?
A Arundhati Bhattacharya
Arundhati Bhattacharya
Question 25
Who is the Chairman of the 14th Finance Commission?
C Dr YV Reddy
Dr YV Reddy
Question 26
The Chairperson of the Seventh Pay Commission is:
D Justice AK Mathur
Justice AK Mathur
Question 27
Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?
United Nations Specialized Agency - Headquarters
United Nations Specialized Agency - Headquarters
C United Nations Industrial Development Organization - Brussels
United Nations Industrial Development Organization - Brussels
Question 28
The First Five Year Plan of India was based on:
D Herrod-Domar Model
Herrod-Domar Model
Question 29
Which one of the following measures is NOT likely to aid in improving lndia’s balance of payment position?
D Levying the higher duty on exports
Levying the higher duty on exports
Question 30
Find out the correct chronological sequence of the following persons' visit to India at one time or another: (1) Fa-Hien (2) I-Tsing (Yijing) (3) Megasthanese (4) Hiuen-Tsang.
C 3, 1, 4, 2
3, 1, 4, 2
Question 31
Which was the first newspaper to be published in India?
D Bengal Gazette
Bengal Gazette
Question 32
The change in the colour of stars is linked to:
A Variation in their surface temperature
Variation in their surface temperature
Question 33
Which one of the following does NOT remain to be a planet now?
C Pluto
Pluto
Question 34
Who was appointed as the 23rd Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?
C Raghuram Rajan
Raghuram Rajan
Question 35
Which one of following offices is held during the pleasure of the President of India?
B Governor of a State
Governor of a State
Question 36
Who was the first winner of the prestigious Jnanpith Award?
C Sankara Kurup
Sankara Kurup
Question 37
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer:
| List I | List II |
| (a) Visakhadatta | (1) Surgery |
| (b) Varahamihira | (2) Drama |
| (c) Sushruta | (3) Astronomy |
| (d) Brahmagupta | (4) Mathematics |
C a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
Question 38
Who was among the following honoured with Arjun Award in Chess for the year 2013?
D Abhijeet Gupta
Abhijeet Gupta
Question 39
Economic growth rate projected by the IMF for India in the fiscal year 2014-15 is:
A 5.4 per cent
5.4 per cent
Question 40
Who was sworn in as the Prime Minister of Italy on 22nd February 2014?
B Matteo Renzi
Matteo Renzi
Question 41
Which one of following is the highest peacetime gallantry award of India?
B Ashok Chakra
Ashok Chakra
Question 42
Which one of the following gases is lighter than air?
D Hydrogen
Hydrogen
Question 43
Name the scientist who is known as the father of modern genetics:
C Gregor Johann Mendel
Gregor Johann Mendel
Question 44
Which year was designated by the United Nations as International Women’s Year?
B 1975
1975
Question 45
Mention the correct abbreviation for ATM:
A Automated Teller Machine
Automated Teller Machine
Question 46
General Election is being held in India from 7 April to 12 May 2014 to constitute:
C 16th Lok Sabha
16th Lok Sabha
Question 47
Mention the name of the current Chief Justice of India:
C Justice R M Lodha
Justice R M Lodha
Question 48
The 9th Ministerial Conference of the WTO, held during 3 December-6 December 2013 was concluded at:
D Bali, Indonesia
Bali, Indonesia
Question 49
Nobel Prize in Literature for the year 2013 was awarded to:
D Hansen Alice Munro
Hansen Alice Munro
Question 50
Which one of the following satellites was successfully launched by the ISRO’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV-C24) on 4th April 2014?
A IRNSS-1B
IRNSS-1B
Section: Logical Reasoning
Question 1
What day is the English presentation made?
B Monday
Using clues other than (iii) we get the table as shown below:-
Now, if we use (iii) we know that Satish and Rehman could not have made presentation on Phusics as they did not present on Thursday.
Now we use clue (v) – from this we can conclude that Only Vineet could have presented a paper on Botany as he is the one who presented on Friday.
After this it will be very easy to complete the table – the updated table will look as –
English presentation is made on a Monday.
Now, if we use (iii) we know that Satish and Rehman could not have made presentation on Phusics as they did not present on Thursday.
Now we use clue (v) – from this we can conclude that Only Vineet could have presented a paper on Botany as he is the one who presented on Friday.
After this it will be very easy to complete the table – the updated table will look as –
English presentation is made on a Monday.
Question 2
What presentation does Vineet do?
D Botany
Using clues other than (iii) we get the table as shown below:-
Now, if we use (iii) we know that Satish and Rehman could not have made presentation on Phusics as they did not present on Thursday.
Now we use clue (v) – from this we can conclude that Only Vineet could have presented a paper on Botany as he is the one who presented on Friday.
After this it will be very easy to complete the table – the updated table will look as –
Vineet makes his presentation on Botany.
Now, if we use (iii) we know that Satish and Rehman could not have made presentation on Phusics as they did not present on Thursday.
Now we use clue (v) – from this we can conclude that Only Vineet could have presented a paper on Botany as he is the one who presented on Friday.
After this it will be very easy to complete the table – the updated table will look as –
Vineet makes his presentation on Botany.
Question 3
What day does Rakesh make his presentation on?
D Thursday
Using clues other than (iii) we get the table as shown below:-
Now, if we use (iii) we know that Satish and Rehman could not have made presentation on Phusics as they did not present on Thursday.
Now we use clue (v) – from this we can conclude that Only Vineet could have presented a paper on Botany as he is the one who presented on Friday.
After this it will be very easy to complete the table – the updated table will look as –
Rakesh presents on Thursday.
Now, if we use (iii) we know that Satish and Rehman could not have made presentation on Phusics as they did not present on Thursday.
Now we use clue (v) – from this we can conclude that Only Vineet could have presented a paper on Botany as he is the one who presented on Friday.
After this it will be very easy to complete the table – the updated table will look as –
Rakesh presents on Thursday.
Question 4
Each question contains a statement on relationship and a question regarding relationship based on the statement. Choose the correct option.
Pointing to a photograph, a man said, “I have no brother or sister but that man's father is my father's son”. Whose photograph was that?
Pointing to a photograph, a man said, “I have no brother or sister but that man's father is my father's son”. Whose photograph was that?
C His son's
The man in the photograph is the man’s son.
Question 5
Each question contains a statement on relationship and a question regarding relationship based on the statement. Choose the correct option.
Ranjan introduces Abhay as the son of the only brother of his father's wife. How is Abhay related to Ranjan?
Ranjan introduces Abhay as the son of the only brother of his father's wife. How is Abhay related to Ranjan?
C Cousin
Abhay is Ranjan’s uncle’s son and hence his cousin.
Question 6
Each question contains a statement on relationship and a question regarding relationship based on the statement. Choose the correct option.
Pointing to a lady on the stage, Bhumika said. "She is the sister of the son of the wife of my husband. How is the lady related to Bhumika?
Pointing to a lady on the stage, Bhumika said. "She is the sister of the son of the wife of my husband. How is the lady related to Bhumika?
D Daughter
Question 7
Each question contains a statement on relationship and a question regarding relationship based on the statement. Choose the correct option.
Pinky, who is Victor's daughter, says to Lucy, “Your mother Rosy is the younger sister of my father, who is the third child of Joseph”. How is Joseph related to Lucy?
Pinky, who is Victor's daughter, says to Lucy, “Your mother Rosy is the younger sister of my father, who is the third child of Joseph”. How is Joseph related to Lucy?
D Grandfather
In both the cases Joseph is the grandparent of Lucy. We cannot determine the gender of Joseph but “d” is the best answer amongst the given choices.
Question 8
Each question contains a statement on relationship and a question regarding relationship based on the statement. Choose the correct option.
Pramod told Vinod, “Yesterday I defeated the only brother of the daughter of my grandmother”. Whom did Promod defeat?
Pramod told Vinod, “Yesterday I defeated the only brother of the daughter of my grandmother”. Whom did Promod defeat?
A Father
If the case is that of paternal grandmother then Pramod defeated his/her father and if the case is of maternal grandmother then Pramod defeated his/her uncle. So the correct answer should have been cannot be determined but from the given choices “a” is the best answer.
Question 9
Who is an Engineer?
D Mohan
Using the information in this order – (i), (v), (vi), (iv), (ii) and (iii) we get the family tree as shown below:-
Mohan is the engineer.
Mohan is the engineer.
Question 10
What is the profession of Namita?
D Cannot be determined
Using the information in this order – (i), (v), (vi), (iv), (ii) and (iii) we get the family tree as shown below:-
Namita’s profession cannot be determined.
Namita’s profession cannot be determined.
Question 11
Which of the following is the correct pair of two couples?
B Vanita - Mohan and Charan - Narnita
Using the information in this order – (i), (v), (vi), (iv), (ii) and (iii) we get the family tree as shown below:-
Mohan and Vanita are one couple and Charan and Namita are the other one.
Mohan and Vanita are one couple and Charan and Namita are the other one.
Question 12
How many ladies are there in the family?
B Three
Using the information in this order – (i), (v), (vi), (iv), (ii) and (iii) we get the family tree as shown below:-
There are three ladies in the family.
There are three ladies in the family.
Question 13
Which colour is liked by CA?
D None of these
Using the information in this order – (i), (v), (vi), (iv), (ii) and (iii) we get the family tree as shown below:-
We cannot determine the color liked by the CA.
We cannot determine the color liked by the CA.
Question 14
Read the information given below carefully and answer the questions.
Two buses start from the opposite points of a main road. 150 kms apart. The first bus runs for 25 kms and takes a right turn and then runs for 15 kms. It then turns left and runs for another 25 kms and takes the direction back to reach the main road. In the meantime, due to a minor breakdown, the other bus has run only 35 kms along the main road. What would be the distance between the two buses at this point?
Two buses start from the opposite points of a main road. 150 kms apart. The first bus runs for 25 kms and takes a right turn and then runs for 15 kms. It then turns left and runs for another 25 kms and takes the direction back to reach the main road. In the meantime, due to a minor breakdown, the other bus has run only 35 kms along the main road. What would be the distance between the two buses at this point?
A 65 kms
The distance between bus 1 and bus 2 will be 150 kms – relevant distance covered by bus 1 – distance covered by bus 2; 150 – (25+25) – 35 = 65 kms.
Question 15
Read the information given below carefully and answer the questions.
‘G’, ‘H’, ‘I’, ‘J’, ‘K’, ‘L’, ‘M’, ‘N’ are sitting around a round table in the same order for group discussion at equal distances. Their positions are clock wise. If ‘M’ sits in the north, then what will be the position of ‘J’?
‘G’, ‘H’, ‘I’, ‘J’, ‘K’, ‘L’, ‘M’, ‘N’ are sitting around a round table in the same order for group discussion at equal distances. Their positions are clock wise. If ‘M’ sits in the north, then what will be the position of ‘J’?
D South-West
J sits in South West.
Question 16
Read the information given below carefully and answer the questions.
Roshan, Vaibhav. Vinay and Sumit are playing cards. Roshan and Vaibhav are partners. Sumit faces towards North. If Roshan faces towards West, then who faces towards South?
Roshan, Vaibhav. Vinay and Sumit are playing cards. Roshan and Vaibhav are partners. Sumit faces towards North. If Roshan faces towards West, then who faces towards South?
A Vinay
If we assume that the partners sit opposite to each other then Vinay would be facing south.
Question 17
Read the information given below carefully and answer the questions.
Five boys are standing in a row facing East. Pavan is to the left of Tavan, Vipin. Chavan. Tavan, Vipin, Chavan are to the left of Nakul. Chavan is between Tavan and Vipin. If Vipin is fourth from the left, then how far is Tavan from the right?
Five boys are standing in a row facing East. Pavan is to the left of Tavan, Vipin. Chavan. Tavan, Vipin, Chavan are to the left of Nakul. Chavan is between Tavan and Vipin. If Vipin is fourth from the left, then how far is Tavan from the right?
D Fourth
Tavan is fourth from the right.
Question 18
Read the information given below carefully and answer the questions.
One morning after sunrise. Suraj was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to his right. Which direction was Suraj facing?
One morning after sunrise. Suraj was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to his right. Which direction was Suraj facing?
B South
Suraj was facing South.
Question 19
Which one of the following can be inferred?
B Diana is older than Stephen
Edward is half the age of Stephen – Let us assume Stephen’s age to be 10, Edward will be 5.
Jackson is older than Edward which means he is more than 5 years old.
Diana is three times older than Jackson.
Now even if Jackson was of the same age as that of Edward, 3 times that will be more than Stephens age as Stephen is 2 times the age of Edward.
Hence the answer is “b”, i.e. Diana is older than Stephen.
Jackson is older than Edward which means he is more than 5 years old.
Diana is three times older than Jackson.
Now even if Jackson was of the same age as that of Edward, 3 times that will be more than Stephens age as Stephen is 2 times the age of Edward.
Hence the answer is “b”, i.e. Diana is older than Stephen.
Question 20
Which one of the following information will be sufficient to estimate Diana's age?
C Both A and B above
From A we can figure out Stephen’s and Edward’s age.
But since we cannot figure out Jackson’s age we cannot figure out Diana’s age.
From A and B combined we can figure out Jackson’s age which is 10.
Now we can figure out Diana’s age as well which will be 3 x 10 = 30.
But since we cannot figure out Jackson’s age we cannot figure out Diana’s age.
From A and B combined we can figure out Jackson’s age which is 10.
Now we can figure out Diana’s age as well which will be 3 x 10 = 30.
Question 21
Study the sequence/pattern of letters or numbers carefully to work out the pattern on which it is based, and answer what the next item in the sequence must be. For example, the sequence ‘A, C, E, G, ?’ has odd numbered letters of alphabet; therefore, the next item must be ‘I’.
0, 3, 8, 15, ?
0, 3, 8, 15, ?
A 24
The pattern is +3, +5, +7. The next number will be 15 + 9 = 24.
Question 22
Study the sequence/pattern of letters or numbers carefully to work out the pattern on which it is based, and answer what the next item in the sequence must be. For example, the sequence ‘A, C, E, G, ?’ has odd numbered letters of alphabet; therefore, the next item must be ‘I’.
8, 16, 28, 44, ?
8, 16, 28, 44, ?
B 64
The pattern is +8, +12, +16. So the next term will be 44 + 20 = 64.
Question 23
Study the sequence/pattern of letters or numbers carefully to work out the pattern on which it is based, and answer what the next item in the sequence must be. For example, the sequence ‘A, C, E, G, ?’ has odd numbered letters of alphabet; therefore, the next item must be ‘I’.
0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, ?
0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, ?
C 336
The logic is 0 x 1 x 2 = 0; 1 x 2 x 3 = 6; 2 x 3 x 4 = 24; 3 x 4 x 5 = 60; 4 x 5 x 6 = 120; 5 x 6 x 7 = 210. So the final value will be 6 x 7 x 8 = 336.
Question 24
Study the sequence/pattern of letters or numbers carefully to work out the pattern on which it is based, and answer what the next item in the sequence must be. For example, the sequence ‘A, C, E, G, ?’ has odd numbered letters of alphabet; therefore, the next item must be ‘I’.
POQ, SRT, VUW, ?
POQ, SRT, VUW, ?
D YXZ
P to S is + 3, S to V is again +3. So the first letter of the next term will be V + 3 = Y. The same logic is applied to all the letters. The next term will be YXZ.
Question 25
Study the sequence/pattern of letters or numbers carefully to work out the pattern on which it is based, and answer what the next item in the sequence must be. For example, the sequence ‘A, C, E, G, ?’ has odd numbered letters of alphabet; therefore, the next item must be ‘I’.
A1, C3, F6, J10, O15, ?
A1, C3, F6, J10, O15, ?
A U21
The letters are following a simple pattern +2, +3, +4, +5. So the alphabet of the next term will be O + 6 = U. The number is simply the position of the letter in the alphabet series. U is the 21st letter in the series. So the next term will be U21.
Question 26
Two words, which have a certain relation, are paired.
Select a correct option to substitute the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::).
Bow : Arrow :: Pistol ?
Select a correct option to substitute the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::).
Bow : Arrow :: Pistol ?
D Bullet
The function of bow for arrow is similar to that of pistol for a bullet.
Question 27
Two words, which have a certain relation, are paired.
Select a correct option to substitute the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::).
Eye : Wink :: Heart : ?
Select a correct option to substitute the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::).
Eye : Wink :: Heart : ?
A Throb
Eye winks and heart throbs.
Question 28
Two words, which have a certain relation, are paired.
Select a correct option to substitute the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::).
Ocean : Water :: Glacier : ?
Select a correct option to substitute the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::).
Ocean : Water :: Glacier : ?
C lee
Ocean comprises water and glacier comprises ice.
Question 29
Two words, which have a certain relation, are paired.
Select a correct option to substitute the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::).
Prima facie : On the first view :: In pari delicto : ?
Select a correct option to substitute the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::).
Prima facie : On the first view :: In pari delicto : ?
A Both parties equally at fault
Just like prima facie means on the first view – In pari delicito means both parties equally at fault.
Question 30
Two words, which have a certain relation, are paired.
Select a correct option to substitute the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::).
Delusion : hallucination :: Chagrin : ?
Select a correct option to substitute the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::).
Delusion : hallucination :: Chagrin : ?
D Annoyance
Delusion and Hallucination are synonyms just like Chagrin and Annoyance.
Question 31
Each question comprises two statements (numbered as I and II). You have to take the statements as true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
(I) All contracts are agreements.
(II) All agreements are accepted offers.
Which of the following derivations is correct?
(I) All contracts are agreements.
(II) All agreements are accepted offers.
Which of the following derivations is correct?
C All contracts are accepted offers
Question 32
Each question comprises two statements (numbered as I and II). You have to take the statements as true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
(I) Some beautiful women are actresses.
(II) All actresses are good dancers.
Which of the following derivations is correct?
(I) Some beautiful women are actresses.
(II) All actresses are good dancers.
Which of the following derivations is correct?
A Some beautiful women are good dancers
Question 33
Two statements are given below followed by two conclusions (I and II). You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.
Statements:
Some books are magazines.
Some magazines are novels.
Conclusions:
(I) Some books are novels.
(II) Some novels are magazines.
Statements:
Some books are magazines.
Some magazines are novels.
Conclusions:
(I) Some books are novels.
(II) Some novels are magazines.
B Only (II) follows
Question 34
Two statements are given below followed by two conclusions (I and II). You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.
Statements:
All students like excursions.
Some students go for higher education.
Conclusions:
(I) Students who go for higher education also like excursions.
(II) Some students do not go for higher education, but like excursions.
Statements:
All students like excursions.
Some students go for higher education.
Conclusions:
(I) Students who go for higher education also like excursions.
(II) Some students do not go for higher education, but like excursions.
C Both (I) and (II) follow
Both I and II are correct.
Question 35
Two statements are given below followed by two conclusions (I and II). You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.
Statements:
All good hockey players are in the Indian Hockey team.
‘X’ is not a good hockey player.
Conclusions:
(I) ‘X’ is not in the Indian Hockey team.
(II) ‘X’ wants to be in the Indian Hockey team.
Statements:
All good hockey players are in the Indian Hockey team.
‘X’ is not a good hockey player.
Conclusions:
(I) ‘X’ is not in the Indian Hockey team.
(II) ‘X’ wants to be in the Indian Hockey team.
D Neither (I) nor (II) follows
From the statements given the following two cases are possible:-
So we cannot conclude anything.
So we cannot conclude anything.
Question 36
In each of the following questions, a related pair of words is followed by four pairs of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the question pair.
India : Tricolour
India : Tricolour
C USA : Stars and Stripes
India’s flag has three colors, similarly USA’s flag has stars and stripes in it.
Question 37
In each of the following questions, a related pair of words is followed by four pairs of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the question pair.
Statute : Law
Statute : Law
A Proviso : Clause
Statute means law similarly proviso means clause.
Question 38
In each of the following questions, a related pair of words is followed by four pairs of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the question pair.
Buddhists : Pagoda
Buddhists : Pagoda
D Jews : Synagogue
Pagoda is a place where Buddhists pray, similarly Synagogue is a place where Jews pray.
Question 39
Each question consists of five statements (a-e) followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option which indicates a valid argument; that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements.
a. Law graduates are in great demand.
b. Rajesh and Krishna are in great demand.
c. Rajesh is in great demand.
d. Krishna is in great demand.
e. Rajesh and Krishna are law graduates.
Choose the correct option:
a. Law graduates are in great demand.
b. Rajesh and Krishna are in great demand.
c. Rajesh is in great demand.
d. Krishna is in great demand.
e. Rajesh and Krishna are law graduates.
Choose the correct option:
C aeb
Question 40
Each question consists of five statements (a-e) followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option which indicates a valid argument; that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements.
a. All captains are great players.
b. Some captains are successful sports administrators.
c. Ritwik is a great player.
d. Ritwik is a captain and successful sports administrator.
e. Some successful sports administrators are great players.
Choose the correct option:
a. All captains are great players.
b. Some captains are successful sports administrators.
c. Ritwik is a great player.
d. Ritwik is a captain and successful sports administrator.
e. Some successful sports administrators are great players.
Choose the correct option:
B abe
Section: Legal Aptitude
Question 1
Principle: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal. The expression of willingness/desire results in a valid proposal only when it is made/addressed to some person(s).
Facts: ‘X’ makes the following statement in an uninhabited hall: ‘I’ wish to sell my mobile phone for`1000.’
Which of the following, derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: ‘X’ makes the following statement in an uninhabited hall: ‘I’ wish to sell my mobile phone for`1000.’
Which of the following, derivations is CORRECT?
C ‘X’ made a statement that did not result in any proposal
The offer will not be valid because as per the principle the proposal will only be valid when it is addressed to some person while in the given facts ‘X’ makes the offer in an uninhabited hall and therefore the offer is not valid in first place itself and it will not lead to contract.
Question 2
Principle: A proposal (offer) should be made with an intention that after its valid acceptance. a legally binding promise or agreement will be created. The test for the determination of such intention is not subjective, rather it is objective. The intention of the parties is to be ascertained from the terms of the agreement and the surrounding circumstances under which such an agreement is entered into. As a general rule, in the case of arrangements regulating social relations, it follows as a matter of course that the parties do not intend legal consequences to follow. On the contrary, as a general rule, in the case of arrangements regulating business affairs, it follows as a matter of course that the parties intend legal consequences to follow. However, the above rules are just presumptive in nature, and hence, can be rebutted.
Facts: One morning while having breakfast. ‘X’, the father, says to ‘Y’ (X's son), in a casual manner, ‘I shall buy a motorbike for you if you get through the CLAT.’
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: One morning while having breakfast. ‘X’, the father, says to ‘Y’ (X's son), in a casual manner, ‘I shall buy a motorbike for you if you get through the CLAT.’
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
D ‘X’ made a statement that did not result in any enforceable agreement
Facts clearly reveal that what the father said to his son was in a “casual manner”. Hence, the surrounding circumstances indicate that the offeror (Father) was not serious and did not intend to enter into a legally binding relationship. Hence, his statement will not result in an enforceable agreement.
Question 3
Principle: Acceptance (of offer) must be communicated by the offeree to the offeror so as to give rise to a binding obligation. The expression ‘by the offeree to the offeror’ includes communication between their authorised agents.
Facts: ‘X’ made an offer to buy Y’s property for a stipulated price. ‘Y’ accepted it and communicated his acceptance to ‘Z’, a stranger.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT ?
Facts: ‘X’ made an offer to buy Y’s property for a stipulated price. ‘Y’ accepted it and communicated his acceptance to ‘Z’, a stranger.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT ?
B Y’s acceptance did not result in any agreement
Acceptance is not in the manner prescribed in the principle. It was neither communicated to the offeror nor was it communicated to an authorized agent of the offeror rather Y communicated the acceptance to a stranger, which according to the principle does not amount to valid acceptance.
Question 4
Principle: Acceptance should be made while the offer is still subsisting. The offeror is free to retract his offer at any time before his offer gets accepted by the offeree. Once the offer is withdrawn or is lapsed, it is not open to be accepted so as to give rise to a contract. Similarly, if a time is prescribed within which the offer is to be accepted, then, the offer must be accepted within the prescribed time. And. if no time is prescribed, then, the acceptance must be made within a reasonable time. ‘What is a reasonable time’ is a question of fact which is to be determined by taking into account all the relevant facts and surrounding circumstances.
Facts: ‘X’ makes an offer to ‘Y’ to sell his equipment for `1,000.00. No time is specified for the acceptance. ‘Y’ sends his reply two years after receiving the offer. Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: ‘X’ makes an offer to ‘Y’ to sell his equipment for `1,000.00. No time is specified for the acceptance. ‘Y’ sends his reply two years after receiving the offer. Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
B There does not arise any contract between ‘X’ and ‘Y’ to sell/buy the equipment in question for 1,000.00
Since the acceptance of the offer is made two years after receiving the offer and this cannot be considered as reasonable even if no time period was specified for the acceptance. Hence the acceptance is not valid and it will not arise a valid contract. Even though the equipment falls in the category of non-perishable goods yet two years is not reasonable time to accept a contract.
Question 5
Principle: Minor’s agreement is void from the very beginning. It can never be validated. It cannot be enforced in the court of law.
Facts: ‘A’, a boy of 16 years of age, agrees to buy a camera from ‘B’, who is a girl of 21 years of age.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: ‘A’, a boy of 16 years of age, agrees to buy a camera from ‘B’, who is a girl of 21 years of age.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
C There does not arise any contract between ‘A’ and ‘B’ to sell/buy the camera in question
In the given facts A is a minor and hence he cannot enter into a contract with B. The contract is void ab initio and can never be validated.
Question 6
Principle: A contract which is duly supported by real and lawful consideration is valid notwithstanding the fact that the consideration is inadequate. The quantum of consideration is for the parties to decide at the time of making a contract, and not for the courts (to decide) when the contract is sought to be enforced. An agreement to which the consent of the promisor is freely given is not void merely because the consideration is inadequate; but the inadequacy of the consideration may be taken into account by the Court in determining the question whether the consent of the promisor was freely given.
Facts: ‘A’ agrees to sell his mobile phone worth 20,000/- for 100/- only to ‘B’, A's consent is freely given.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: ‘A’ agrees to sell his mobile phone worth 20,000/- for 100/- only to ‘B’, A's consent is freely given.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
A There is a contract between 'A' and 'B'
There is valid contract between A & B. As per the principle, quantum of consideration is for the parties to decide at the time of making a contract and if the parties have decided to sell mobile phone worth Rs. 20,000 for Rs. 100/- it still remains a valid consideration leading to a valid contract.
Question 7
Principle: The consideration or object of an agreement is unlawful if it is forbidden by law. Every agreement of which the object or consideration is unlawful is void.
Facts: 'X', promises to pay ‘Y’ `50,000, if he (‘Y’') commits a crime. 'X' further promises to indemnify him ('Y') against any liability arising thereof. ‘Y’ agrees to act as per X's promise.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: 'X', promises to pay ‘Y’ `50,000, if he (‘Y’') commits a crime. 'X' further promises to indemnify him ('Y') against any liability arising thereof. ‘Y’ agrees to act as per X's promise.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
C There is an agreement between 'X', and 'Y' which cannot be enforced by the court of law
The object of the agreement is unlawful and therefore in the light of given principle the agreement between 'X', and 'Y' cannot be enforced by the court of law.
Question 8
Principle: The consideration or object of an agreement is unlawful if the Court regards it as opposed to public policy. Every agreement of which the object or consideration is unlawful is void.
Facts: 'X' promises to obtain for 'Y' an employment in the public service; and 'Y' promises to pay 5,00,000/- to 'X'.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: 'X' promises to obtain for 'Y' an employment in the public service; and 'Y' promises to pay 5,00,000/- to 'X'.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
D There is an agreement between 'X', and 'Y' which cannot be enforced by the court of law
The consideration of the agreement is unlawful and therefore in the light of given principle the agreement between 'X', and 'Y' cannot be enforced by the court of law. The fact actually provides that ‘X’ will provide employment to ‘Y’ against which ‘Y’ will pay him a bribe of Rs. 5,00,000. Bribe is an unlawful consideration.
Question 9
Principle: Two or more persons are said to consent if they agree upon the same thing in the same sense. Consent is said to be free when it is not caused by coercion, or undue influence, or fraud, or misrepresentation, or mistake. When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud or misrepresentation, the agreement is a contract voidable (rescindable or terminable) at the option of the party whose consent was so caused. However, when consent to an agreement is caused by mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void.
Facts: 'X' threatens to gun down 'Y', if he ('Y') does not sell his property worth `20,00,000/- for`1,00,000/- only. As a consequence, 'Y' agrees to sell it as demanded by 'X'.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: 'X' threatens to gun down 'Y', if he ('Y') does not sell his property worth `20,00,000/- for`1,00,000/- only. As a consequence, 'Y' agrees to sell it as demanded by 'X'.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
D There is a contract between 'X' and 'Y' which voidable at the option of 'Y'
In the given case, coercion has been exercised upon Y. Hence, Y may continue with the contract or he may choose to rescind it. Since Y has been coerced in the given case, the contract is voidable at the option of Y.
Question 10
Principle: Agreements in restraint of marriage are void.
Facts: 'X' enters into an agreement with 'Y' where under he agrees not to many anybody else other than a person whose name starts with the letter and promises to pay 1,00,000/- to 'Y' if he ('X') breaks this agreement.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: 'X' enters into an agreement with 'Y' where under he agrees not to many anybody else other than a person whose name starts with the letter and promises to pay 1,00,000/- to 'Y' if he ('X') breaks this agreement.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
D There is a voidable contract between 'X' and 'Y'
Such types of agreements are considered as ‘a matter of chance which may or may not happen’ and are therefore not encouraged in law. Such agreements are considered restraint on marriage and are void.
Question 11
Principle: Vicarious liability is the liability of the Master or Principal for the tort committed by his servant or agent, provided the tort is committed in the course of employment. The Master or Principal is not liable for private wrongs of the servant/ agent.
Facts: 'X' hands over some cash money at his house to 'Y', who is his (X's) neighbour and is also cashier in a bank, to be deposited in A's account in the bank. Instead of depositing the money, 'Y' misappropriates it.
Which of the following statements depicts correct legal position in this given situation?
Facts: 'X' hands over some cash money at his house to 'Y', who is his (X's) neighbour and is also cashier in a bank, to be deposited in A's account in the bank. Instead of depositing the money, 'Y' misappropriates it.
Which of the following statements depicts correct legal position in this given situation?
A The bank would not be liable because 'Y' did not do any wrong in the course of his employment
The question is tricky and there is a possibility of candidate falling prey to confusion. The question to be determined is whether ‘Y’ has misappropriated the money while in the course of employment. The answer is a clear no because the money was entrusted to him in the capacity of a neighbour and that it is not a part of his employment (that he must collect money for being deposited in the bank).
Question 12
Principle: A person has no legal remedy for an injury caused by an act to which he has consented.
Facts: 'R', a cricket enthusiast, purchases a ticket to watch a T20 match organised by the Indian Premier League (IPL). During the match, a ball struck for six hits 'R' on his body, and injures him. He sues IPL for compensation for the medical expenses.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: 'R', a cricket enthusiast, purchases a ticket to watch a T20 match organised by the Indian Premier League (IPL). During the match, a ball struck for six hits 'R' on his body, and injures him. He sues IPL for compensation for the medical expenses.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
B 'R' would fail in his action, as he voluntarily exposed himself to the risk
The question is based on the principle of Volenti Non Fit Injuria which implies that if the person has himself consented to the infliction of some reasonable harm, he cannot subsequently complain if the harm gets actualised. In the given case, ‘R’ purchases the ticket and thereby consents to risk involved in watching a cricket match and therefore if he gets injured he cannot subsequently complain.
Question 13
Principle: Ignorance of law excuses no one.
Facts: 'X' fails to file his income tax returns for a considerable number of years. The Income Tax department serves upon him a 'show-cause notice' as to why proceedings should not be initiated against him for the recovery of the income tax due from him with interest and penalty.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: 'X' fails to file his income tax returns for a considerable number of years. The Income Tax department serves upon him a 'show-cause notice' as to why proceedings should not be initiated against him for the recovery of the income tax due from him with interest and penalty.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
B 'X' would have to pay the due, as ignorance of law and failure to comply with law is no legal ground of defence
Principle clearly states that a person cannot plead ignorance of law. It’s a requirement of law that one has to file income tax returns and if he fails he will not be allowed defence of ignorance. Therefore, 'X' would have to pay the due, as ignorance of law and failure to comply with law is no legal ground of defence.
Question 14
Principle: Damage without the violation of a legal right is not actionable in a court of law. If the interference with the rights of another person is not unlawful or unauthorised, but a necessary consequence of the exercise of defendant's own lawful rights, no action should lie.
Facts: There was an established school ('ES') in a particular locality. Subsequently, a new school ('NS') was set up in the same locality, which charged lower fees, on account of which people started patronising the new school. Because of the competition, 'ES' had to reduce its fees. 'ES' filed a case against 'NS' saying that 'NS' had caused it (‘ES’) financial loss and, thus, claimed compensation.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: There was an established school ('ES') in a particular locality. Subsequently, a new school ('NS') was set up in the same locality, which charged lower fees, on account of which people started patronising the new school. Because of the competition, 'ES' had to reduce its fees. 'ES' filed a case against 'NS' saying that 'NS' had caused it (‘ES’) financial loss and, thus, claimed compensation.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
B Since damage is caused to 'ES', therefore, it should be awarded compensation
Even though ES had to reduce the fees it charged and, hence, suffered an economic loss. But there was no violation of their legal right as such and, hence, NS would not be liable for the economic loss suffered by ES.
Question 15
Principle: Whenever there is an invasion of a legal right, the person in whom the right is vested, is entitled to bring an action though he has suffered no actual loss or harm, and may recover damages (compensation).
Facts: 'A' was a qualified voter for the Lok Sabha election. However, a returning officer wrongfully refused to take A's vote. In spite of such wrongful refusal, the candidate, for whom 'A' wanted to vote, won the election. But, 'A' brought an action for damages:
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: 'A' was a qualified voter for the Lok Sabha election. However, a returning officer wrongfully refused to take A's vote. In spite of such wrongful refusal, the candidate, for whom 'A' wanted to vote, won the election. But, 'A' brought an action for damages:
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
B Since legal right of 'A' had been violated, therefore, compensation should be granted
The question is based on injuria sine damnum where a person is liable if the legal right has been violated despite no actual harm is caused.It is clear from the facts that there is a violation of the legal right to vote. Hence, option (b) is the most appropriate answer.
Question 16
Principle: In a civil action for defamation, truth of the defamatory matter is an absolute defence. However, the burden of proving truth is on the defendant; and he is liable if he does not successfully discharge this burden.
Facts: ‘D’, who was the editor of a local weekly, published a series of articles mentioning that ‘P’, who was a government servant, issued false certificates, accepted bribe, adopted corrupt and illegal means to mint money and was a ‘mischief monger’. ‘P’ brought a civil action against ‘D’, who could not prove the facts published by him.
Under the circumstances, which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: ‘D’, who was the editor of a local weekly, published a series of articles mentioning that ‘P’, who was a government servant, issued false certificates, accepted bribe, adopted corrupt and illegal means to mint money and was a ‘mischief monger’. ‘P’ brought a civil action against ‘D’, who could not prove the facts published by him.
Under the circumstances, which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
A ‘D’ would be liable, since he could not prove the facts published by him
D had published a series of articles defaming P and D could not prove the facts published by him. Hence, D would be liable for defamation.
Question 17
Principle: A gift comprising both existing and future property is void as to the latter.
Facts: ‘X’ has a house which is owned by him. He contracted to purchase a plot of land adjacent to the said house, but the sale (of the plot of land) in his favour is yet to be completed. He makes a gift of both the properties (house and land) to ‘Y’.
Under the afore-mentioned circumstances, which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: ‘X’ has a house which is owned by him. He contracted to purchase a plot of land adjacent to the said house, but the sale (of the plot of land) in his favour is yet to be completed. He makes a gift of both the properties (house and land) to ‘Y’.
Under the afore-mentioned circumstances, which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
D Gift of house is valid, but the gift of the plot of land is void
The gift of a house is valid, but the gift of the plot of land is void because the plot of land is a future property and the principle clearly states that the gift of a future property is void.
Question 18
Principle: Caveat emptor, i.e. ‘let the buyer beware’ stands for the practical skill and judgment of the buyer in his choice of goods for purchase. It is the business of the buyer to judge for himself that what he buys has its use and worth for him. Once bought, and if the buy is not up to his expectations, then he alone is to blame and no one else.
Facts: For the purpose of making uniform for the employees, ‘A’ bought dark blue coloured cloth from ‘B’, but did not disclose to the seller (‘B’) the specific purpose of the said purchase. When uniforms were prepared and used by the employees, the cloth was found unfit. However, the cloth was fit for a variety of other purposes (such as, making caps. boots and carriage lining. etc.).
Applying the afore-stated principle, which of the following derivations is CORRECT as regards remedy available to ‘A’ in the given situation?
Facts: For the purpose of making uniform for the employees, ‘A’ bought dark blue coloured cloth from ‘B’, but did not disclose to the seller (‘B’) the specific purpose of the said purchase. When uniforms were prepared and used by the employees, the cloth was found unfit. However, the cloth was fit for a variety of other purposes (such as, making caps. boots and carriage lining. etc.).
Applying the afore-stated principle, which of the following derivations is CORRECT as regards remedy available to ‘A’ in the given situation?
B ‘A’ (the buyer) would not succeed in getting any remedy from ‘B’ (the seller)
A (the buyer) would not succeed in getting any remedy from ‘B’ (the seller) because the principle clearly states that it is the business of the buyer to judge for himself that what he buys has its use and worth for him and if subsequently it does not up to his expectations, then he, that is, the buyer alone is to blame and no one else.
Question 19
Principle: The transferor of goods cannot pass a better title than what he himself possesses.
Facts: ‘X’ sells a stolen bike to ‘Y’, ‘Y’ buys it in good faith.
As regards the title to bike, which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: ‘X’ sells a stolen bike to ‘Y’, ‘Y’ buys it in good faith.
As regards the title to bike, which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
A The real owner cannot get back the bike from ‘Y’
Follow the principle strictly, Y will get no title, as the transferor’s (X’s) title was defective in the sense that since X was himself not the owner of the bike such ownership cannot be passed to Y. The title was defective in first place itself.
Question 20
Principle: Negligence is a breach of duty or a failure of one party to exercise the standard of care required by law, resulting in damage to the party to whom the duty was owed. A plaintiff can take civil action against the respondent, if the respondent’s negligence causes the plaintiff injury or loss of property.
Facts: ‘D’ went to a café and ordered and paid for a tin/can of soft drink. The tin was opaque, and, therefore, the contents could not be seen from outside. She (‘D’) consumed some of the contents and then lifted the tin to pour the remainder of the content into a tumbler. The remains of a snail in decomposed state dropped out of the tin into the tumbler. ‘D’ later complained of a stomach pain and her doctor diagnosed her as having gastroenteritis and being in a state of severe shock. She sued the manufacturer of the drink for negligence.
Applying the afore-stated principle, which of the following derivations is CORRECT as regards liability of the manufacturer in the given situation?
Facts: ‘D’ went to a café and ordered and paid for a tin/can of soft drink. The tin was opaque, and, therefore, the contents could not be seen from outside. She (‘D’) consumed some of the contents and then lifted the tin to pour the remainder of the content into a tumbler. The remains of a snail in decomposed state dropped out of the tin into the tumbler. ‘D’ later complained of a stomach pain and her doctor diagnosed her as having gastroenteritis and being in a state of severe shock. She sued the manufacturer of the drink for negligence.
Applying the afore-stated principle, which of the following derivations is CORRECT as regards liability of the manufacturer in the given situation?
A The manufacturer is liable for negligence, as it owed at duty (to consumers) to take reasonable care to ensure that its products are safe for consumption
The manufacturer owed a duty of care towards the people who would end up consuming their products. Due to their negligence during the preparation of the product, D suffered injuries and therefore as per the principle manufacturer will be liable.
Question 21
Principle: Master is liable for the wrongful acts committed by his servant; provided the acts are committed during the course of employment. However, the master is not liable if the wrongful act committed by his servant has no connection, whatsoever, with the servants contract of employment.
Facts: ‘D’ is a driver employed by ‘M’, who is the owner of a company. During the lunch time, ‘D’ goes to a close by tea shop to have a cup of tea. There he (‘D’) picks up fight with the tea shop owner (‘T’), which resulted in some damage to his shop. ‘T’ wants to sue ‘M’ for claiming compensation for the damage caused by the fight.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: ‘D’ is a driver employed by ‘M’, who is the owner of a company. During the lunch time, ‘D’ goes to a close by tea shop to have a cup of tea. There he (‘D’) picks up fight with the tea shop owner (‘T’), which resulted in some damage to his shop. ‘T’ wants to sue ‘M’ for claiming compensation for the damage caused by the fight.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
C ‘M’ will not be liable because the wrongful act (picking up fight) was not committed in the course of D's employment
M will not be liable as D was on a break during the incident. In fact, it is pertinent that picking fights with a tea shop owner was not part of D’s contract with M. He has been signed by M in the capacity of a driver only. Picking up a fight with tea shop owner is a personal act of D which has to be carved out of an act done in the course of employment.
Question 22
Principle: The Constitution of India guarantees the ‘right to life’, which means ‘right to live with human dignity’. The right to life under the Constitution, however, does not include the right to die.
Facts: ‘M’, who is 90, lives all alone as he has no family or children or grandchildren. He suffers from physical and mental distress, as there is no one to look after him. He has little means to foot his medical expenses. Under these circumstances, he approaches the court with a prayer that he should be granted the right to die with dignity because he does not want to be a burden on the society. Further, as it is his life, he has a right to put an end to it.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: ‘M’, who is 90, lives all alone as he has no family or children or grandchildren. He suffers from physical and mental distress, as there is no one to look after him. He has little means to foot his medical expenses. Under these circumstances, he approaches the court with a prayer that he should be granted the right to die with dignity because he does not want to be a burden on the society. Further, as it is his life, he has a right to put an end to it.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
D The prayer cannot be granted, as the right to life under the Constitution does not include the right to die
The Principle clearly and absolutely states that the right to life does not include the right to die under the Indian Constitution. Hence option (d) is the most appropriate answer.
Question 23
Principle: Trespass to land means direct interference with the possession of land without lawful justification. Trespass could be committed either by a person himself entering the land of another person or doing the same through some tangible object(s).
Facts: ‘A’ throws some stones upon his neighbour's (B's) premises.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: ‘A’ throws some stones upon his neighbour's (B's) premises.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
A ‘A’ has committed trespass
Principle states that trespass can be committed through some tangible object and since throwing stone falls within the said criteria and ‘A’ threw it in B’s premises, he will be liable for committing trespass.
Question 24
Principle: Nuisance is an unlawful interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land or some right over or in connection with it. If the interference is ‘direct’, the wrong is trespass; whereas, if the interference is ‘consequential’, it amounts to nuisance.
Facts: 'A' plants a tree on his land. However, he allows its branches to project over the land of ‘B’.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: 'A' plants a tree on his land. However, he allows its branches to project over the land of ‘B’.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
B ‘A’ has committed nuisance
Since branch projecting over B’s land is a consequence of tree, and as per the principle, if the interference is consequential, it will be nuisance henceforth A is liable for Nuisance.
Question 25
Principle: Interference with another’s goods in such a way as to deny the latter's title to the goods amounts to conversion, and thus it is a civil wrong. It is an act intentionally done inconsistent with the owner's right, though the doer may not know of, or intend to challenge, the property or possession of the true owner.
Facts: ‘R’ went to a cycle-stand to park his bicycle. Seeing the stand fully occupied, he removed a few bicycles in order to rearrange a portion of the stand and make some space for his bicycle. He parked his bicycle properly, and put back all the bicycles except the one belonging to ‘S’. In fact, ‘R’ was in a hurry, and therefore, he could not put back S's bicycle. Somebody came on the way and took away S's bicycle. The watchman of the stand did not take care of it assuming that the bicycle was not parked inside the stand. ‘S’ filed a suit against ‘R’ for conversion.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
Facts: ‘R’ went to a cycle-stand to park his bicycle. Seeing the stand fully occupied, he removed a few bicycles in order to rearrange a portion of the stand and make some space for his bicycle. He parked his bicycle properly, and put back all the bicycles except the one belonging to ‘S’. In fact, ‘R’ was in a hurry, and therefore, he could not put back S's bicycle. Somebody came on the way and took away S's bicycle. The watchman of the stand did not take care of it assuming that the bicycle was not parked inside the stand. ‘S’ filed a suit against ‘R’ for conversion.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
C ‘S’ would not succeed because ‘R’ did not take away the bicycle himself
Ram did not interfere with Shyam’s goods in ‘such a way’ as to deny him his title. There were other factors present which resulted in Shyam’s cycle being taken away by someone. Hence, option (c) is the most appropriate answer. ‘S’ would not succeed because ‘R’ did not take away the bicycle himself.
Question 26
Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is bound by law to do it.
Facts: ‘A’ a police officer, without warrant, apprehends ‘Z’, who has committed murder.
Facts: ‘A’ a police officer, without warrant, apprehends ‘Z’, who has committed murder.
D ‘A’ cannot apprehend ‘Z’ without a warrant issued by a court of law
‘A’ cannot apprehend ‘Z’ without a warrant issued by a court of law because unless the police officer has warrant of arrest he is not duty bound to apprehend (arrest) a person in whose name the warrant has been issued. Hence according to the principle, the arrest caused by A is not valid and he cannot avail the benefit mentioned in the principle.
Question 27
Principle: When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone.
Facts: Roshan along with two of his friends, Tushar and Tarang proceeded to the house of Darshan in order to avenge an insult made by the brother of Darshan. They opened fire on the members of Darshan's family. It was found that the shots of Roshan did not hit anyone, but the shots of Tushar and Tarang succeeded in killing Darshan.
Facts: Roshan along with two of his friends, Tushar and Tarang proceeded to the house of Darshan in order to avenge an insult made by the brother of Darshan. They opened fire on the members of Darshan's family. It was found that the shots of Roshan did not hit anyone, but the shots of Tushar and Tarang succeeded in killing Darshan.
C Roshan along with Tushar and Tarang was liable for the offence of murder of Darshan
Roshan along with Tushar and Tarang was liable for the offence of murder of Darshan because all the three committed the act in furtherance of common intention which was to avenge an insult made by the brother of Darshan.
Question 28
Principle: No communication made in good faith is an offence by reason of any harm to the person to whom it is made, if it is made for the benefit of that person.
Facts: ‘A’, a surgeon, in good faith, communicates to a patient his opinion that he cannot live. The patient dies in consequence of the shock.
Facts: ‘A’, a surgeon, in good faith, communicates to a patient his opinion that he cannot live. The patient dies in consequence of the shock.
B ‘A’ has not committed the offence of causing death of his patient
The principle provides for no liability of the person who communicates in good faith and the facts clearly reveals that the surgeon, in good faith, communicates to a patient his opinion that he cannot live. The surgeon therefore will not be liable for the consequence.
Question 29
Principle: Whoever, being legally bound to furnish information on any subject to any public servant, as such, furnishes, as true, information on the subject which he knows or has reason to believe to be false, has committed a punishable offence of furnishing false information.
Facts: Sawant, a landholder, knowing of the commission of a murder within the limits of his estate, willfully misinforms the Magistrate of the district that the death has occurred by accident in consequence of the bite of a snake.
Facts: Sawant, a landholder, knowing of the commission of a murder within the limits of his estate, willfully misinforms the Magistrate of the district that the death has occurred by accident in consequence of the bite of a snake.
B Sawant is guilty of the offence of furnishing false information to the Magistrate
Sawant is guilty of the offence as he willingly and knowingly misinforms the Magistrate that the death has occurred by accident in consequence of the bite of a snake despite the fact that he was aware of true facts which he was duty bound to disclose.
Question 30
Principle: Whoever unlawfully or negligently does any act which is, and which he knows or has reason to believe to be, likely to spread the infection of any disease dangerous to life, shall be guilty of a negligent act likely to spread infection of disease dangerous to life.
Facts: ‘K’, a person, knowing that he is suffering from Cholera, travels by a train without informing the railway officers of his condition.
Facts: ‘K’, a person, knowing that he is suffering from Cholera, travels by a train without informing the railway officers of his condition.
A ‘K’ has committed an unlawful and negligent act, which is likely to spread the infection of Cholera disease dangerous to the life of fellow-passengers
In this question, the candidate is not expected to determine as to whether Cholera is a life threatening disease or not; rather the Principle imposes a duty of reasonable precaution on the person suffering from such diseases which are likely to endanger the life of others. K has breached the essentials of such duty mentioned in the principle and is hence liable.
Question 31
Principle: Whoever drives any vehicle, or rides, on any public way in a manner so rash or negligent as to endanger human life or to be likely to cause hurt or injury to any other person, has committed an offence, which shall be punished in accordance with the law.
Facts: ‘X’, a truck driver, driving his vehicle rashly and negligently at a high speed climbed the footpath and hit ‘Y’, a pedestrian, from behind causing his death.
Facts: ‘X’, a truck driver, driving his vehicle rashly and negligently at a high speed climbed the footpath and hit ‘Y’, a pedestrian, from behind causing his death.
C ‘X’ is guilty of rash and negligent driving
In the light of given principle and facts, ‘X’ is clearly guilty of rash and negligent driving as he has fulfilled all the essentials mentioned in the principle.
Question 32
Principle: Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death, or with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or with the knowledge that he is likely by such act to cause death, commits the offence of culpable homicide.
Facts: ‘A’ knows ‘Z’ to be behind a bush. ‘B’ does not know it. ‘A’, intending to cause, or knowing it to be likely to cause Z’s death, induces ‘B’ to fire at the bush. ‘B’ fires and kills ‘Z’.
Facts: ‘A’ knows ‘Z’ to be behind a bush. ‘B’ does not know it. ‘A’, intending to cause, or knowing it to be likely to cause Z’s death, induces ‘B’ to fire at the bush. ‘B’ fires and kills ‘Z’.
B ‘A’ has committed the offence of culpable homicide
Since A knowingly and intentionally induced B to fire at Z and it was this act of A’s inducement that resulted in Z’s death, A will be liable for causing Z’s death. B’s act will be presumed innocent as he had no guilty intention.
Question 33
Principle: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.
Facts: ‘Z’, going on a journey, entrusts his plate to the possession of ‘A’, the keeper of a warehouse, till ‘Z’ shall return. Then, ‘A’ carries the plate to a goldsmith and sells it.
Facts: ‘Z’, going on a journey, entrusts his plate to the possession of ‘A’, the keeper of a warehouse, till ‘Z’ shall return. Then, ‘A’ carries the plate to a goldsmith and sells it.
B ‘A’ has not committed theft
‘A’ has not taken away the plate out of possession of Z without his consent; rather it is Z who has himself entrusted the possession which A subsequently sold to goldsmith and therefore ‘A’ may be liable for some other offence recognised in law but not for theft.
Question 34
Principle: Whoever makes any false document or part of a document with intent to cause damage or injury, to the public or to any person or to support any claim or title, or to cause any person to part with property, or to enter into any express or implied contract, or with intent to commit fraud or that fraud may be committed, commits forgery.
Facts: ‘A’ without Z’s authority, affixes Z’s seal to a document purporting to be a conveyance of an estate from to ‘A’, with the intention of selling the estate to ‘B’ and thereby of obtaining from ‘B’ the purchase-money.
Facts: ‘A’ without Z’s authority, affixes Z’s seal to a document purporting to be a conveyance of an estate from to ‘A’, with the intention of selling the estate to ‘B’ and thereby of obtaining from ‘B’ the purchase-money.
C ‘A’ has committed forgery
A has made a false document by affixing a seal with the intent of selling the estate and using the purchase money and has therefore committed forgery.
Question 35
Principle: Whoever intentionally uses force to any person, without that person’s consent, in order to the committing of any offence, or intending by the use of such force to cause, or knowing it to be likely that by the use of such force he will cause injury, fear or annoyance to the person to whom the force is used, is said to use criminal force to that other.
Facts: ‘Z’ is riding in a palanquin, ‘A’, intending to rob ‘Z’, seizes the pole and stops the palanquin. Here ‘A’ has caused cessation of motion to ‘Z’, and ‘A’ has done this by his own bodily power.
Facts: ‘Z’ is riding in a palanquin, ‘A’, intending to rob ‘Z’, seizes the pole and stops the palanquin. Here ‘A’ has caused cessation of motion to ‘Z’, and ‘A’ has done this by his own bodily power.
A A’ has used criminal force to ‘Z’
Since A intentionally and without Z’s consent, in order to the commission of an offence i.e. robbery stops the palanquin which caused cessation of motion. A has therefore used criminal force to Z.
Question 36
Principle: One of the essential conditions for a marriage between any two persons to be solemnized under the Special Marriage Act. 1954 is that at the time of the marriage the male has completed the age of twenty-one years and the female the age of eighteen years. If the said condition is not fulfilled such a marriage is null and void.
Facts: ‘A’, a male aged twenty-two years, proposes to marry ‘B’, a female aged sixteen years, at Delhi in the month of June 2014 under the Special Marriage Act, 1954.
Facts: ‘A’, a male aged twenty-two years, proposes to marry ‘B’, a female aged sixteen years, at Delhi in the month of June 2014 under the Special Marriage Act, 1954.
B Marriage between ‘A’ and ‘B’ cannot be legally solemnized under the Special Marriage Act, 1954
Marriage between ‘A’ and ‘B’ cannot be legally solemnized under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 because it is one of the essential requirement mentioned in the principle that for a valid marriage under Special Marriage Act 1954, the female must have completed the age of 18 years while in the facts the female is 16 years of age.
Question 37
Principle: Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 either the husband or the wife can move a petition for a decree of divorce on the ground of desertion. The term ‘desertion’ means desertion of the petitioner by the other party to the marriage for a continuous period of not less than two years immediately preceding the presentation of the petition, without reasonable cause and without the consent or against the wish of such party and includes the willful neglect of the petitioner by the other party to the marriage, and its grammatical variations and cognate expressions shall be construed accordingly. It is also said that desertion is withdrawal not from a place but from a state of things.
Facts: Rohan, a technocrat, went to US in January 201l for pursuing his higher studies for a period of three years. In fact, Rohan went to US with the consent of his wife Basanti, who stayed at her parents’ home, and with a promise of his return to India upon the completion of his studies. From US he has quite often been in touch with his wife. Subsequently, Rohan has got a job there in US and he wishes to take his wife. She refuses to go to US and. in the meanwhile, she files a petition for a decree of divorce on the ground of desertion by her husband.
Facts: Rohan, a technocrat, went to US in January 201l for pursuing his higher studies for a period of three years. In fact, Rohan went to US with the consent of his wife Basanti, who stayed at her parents’ home, and with a promise of his return to India upon the completion of his studies. From US he has quite often been in touch with his wife. Subsequently, Rohan has got a job there in US and he wishes to take his wife. She refuses to go to US and. in the meanwhile, she files a petition for a decree of divorce on the ground of desertion by her husband.
B Rohan’s three year stay in US in the above context cannot amount to a ground of desertion for divorce.
Principle determines wilful neglect as an essential criteria of desertion but in the given facts there is no wilful neglect, as Rohan is in touch with his wife and also wishes to take Basanti to the US. The facts does not qualify the essentials of the given principle. Rohan’s stay in US does not amount to desertion.
Question 38
Principle: Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, no person shall be capable of being taken in adoption unless he or she is a Hindu, he or she not already been adopted, he or she has not been married, unless there is a custom or usage applicable to the parties which permits persons who are married being taken in adoption, and he or she has not completed the age of fifteen years, unless there is a custom or usage applicable to the parties which permits persons who have completed the age of fifteen years being take in adoption.
Facts: Vijay being natural father had given Tarun, a boy aged 10 years, in adoption to Manoj in March 2010 in accordance with the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956. In May 2012 Manoj gave Tarun in adoption to Sanjay. Subsequently in December 2013, Sanjay gave Tarun in adoption to Vijay.
Facts: Vijay being natural father had given Tarun, a boy aged 10 years, in adoption to Manoj in March 2010 in accordance with the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956. In May 2012 Manoj gave Tarun in adoption to Sanjay. Subsequently in December 2013, Sanjay gave Tarun in adoption to Vijay.
C Adoption of Tarun by Manoj is valid
The given principle clearly states that, one of the conditions for an adoption to be valid is that the child who is being adopted should not have already been adopted and therefore the adoption of Tarun by Manoj is valid and all subsequent adoptions are void.
Question 39
Principle: Under copyright law copyright subsists in original literary works also. A literary work need not be of literary quality. Even so prosaic a work as an index of railway stations or a railway guide or a list of stock exchange quotations qualifies as a literary work if sufficient work has been expended in compiling it to give it a new and original character.
Facts: Michael works hard enough, walking down the streets, taking down the names of people who live at houses and makes a street directory as a result of that labour.
Facts: Michael works hard enough, walking down the streets, taking down the names of people who live at houses and makes a street directory as a result of that labour.
A Michael’s exercise in making a street directory is sufficient to justify in making claim to copyright in that work which is ultimately produced
Since sufficient work has been expended in compiling directory to give it a new and original character therefore Michael shall have a valid claim to copyright in his compilation.
Question 40
Principle: Every person shall be liable to punishment under the Indian Penal Code and not otherwise for every act or omission contrary to the provisions of the Code of which he shall be guilty within the territory of India. In other words, the exercise of criminal jurisdiction depends upon the locality of the offence committed, and not upon the nationality or locality of the offender.
Facts: ‘X’, a Pakistani citizen, while staying at Karachi, made false representations to ‘Y’, the complainant, at Bombay through letters, telephone calls and telegrams and induced the complainant to part with money amounting to over rupees five lakh to the agents of ‘X’ at Bombay, so that rice could be shipped from Karachi to India as per agreement. But the rice was never supplied to the complainant.
Facts: ‘X’, a Pakistani citizen, while staying at Karachi, made false representations to ‘Y’, the complainant, at Bombay through letters, telephone calls and telegrams and induced the complainant to part with money amounting to over rupees five lakh to the agents of ‘X’ at Bombay, so that rice could be shipped from Karachi to India as per agreement. But the rice was never supplied to the complainant.
A The offence of cheating under section 420 of the Code was committed by ‘X’ within India, even though he was not physically present at the time and place of the crime
‘X’ is liable because the offence of cheating under section 420 of the Code was committed by ‘X’ within India, even though he was not physically present at the time and place of the crime. As per the principle, physical presence of X in India is immaterial because exercise of criminal jurisdiction depends upon the locality of the offence committed, which is Bombay in the given facts, and not upon the nationality or locality of the offender.
Question 41
Principle: When two or more persons agree to do, or cause to be done, (1) an illegal act, or (2) an act which is not illegal by illegal means, through such an agreement such persons are said to have been engaged in a criminal conspiracy to commit an offence. It is said that no consummation of the crime need be achieved or even attempted.
Facts: ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ plan to kill ‘D’. They agree that only one among them, that is ‘Z’, will execute the plan. In pursuance of it ‘Z’ buys a gun and loads it.
Facts: ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ plan to kill ‘D’. They agree that only one among them, that is ‘Z’, will execute the plan. In pursuance of it ‘Z’ buys a gun and loads it.
B All of them, i.e., ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’, can be charged with criminal conspiracy to kill 'D'
As per the given principle, once a crime has been conspired, there does not need to be a consummation of the crime or even an attempt. In the given case, 'X', 'Y' and 'Z' entered into an agreement to kill 'D'. This is enough to charge them under criminal conspiracy.
Question 42
Principle: 'Wrongful gain' is gain by unlawful means of property to which the person gaining is not legally entitled. 'Wrongful loss' is the loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing it is legally entitled.
Facts: 'X' takes away Y's watch out of Y's possession, without Y's consent and with the intention of keeping it.
Facts: 'X' takes away Y's watch out of Y's possession, without Y's consent and with the intention of keeping it.
C 'X' causes 'wrongful loss' to 'Y'
Where 'X' takes away Y's watch out of Y's possession, without Y's consent and with the intention of keeping it, in the light of given principle, X has caused 'wrongful loss' to 'Y'.
Question 43
Principle: Nothing is an offence by reason that it causes, or that it is intended to cause, or that it is known to be likely to cause, any harm, if that harm is so slight that no person of ordinary sense and temper would complain of such harm.
Facts: ‘X’ takes a plain sheet of paper from Y’s drawer without Y’s consent to write a letter to his friend.
Facts: ‘X’ takes a plain sheet of paper from Y’s drawer without Y’s consent to write a letter to his friend.
B ‘X’ has committed no offence in the above context
Taking a plain sheet of paper from Y’s drawer without Y’s consent to write a letter to friend is in the light of given principle, an act which is so slight and trivial that no person of ordinary sense and temper would complain of such harm.
Question 44
Principle: When an act which would otherwise be a certain offence, is not that offence, by reason of the youth, the want of maturity of understanding, the unsoundness of mind or the intoxication of the person doing that act, or by reason of any misconception on the part of that person, every person has the same right of private defence against that act which he would have if the act were that offence.
Facts: ‘X’, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill ‘Y’.
Facts: ‘X’, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill ‘Y’.
B ‘Y’ does not have the right of private defence against ‘X’
As per the principle, if ‘X’ attempt to kill ‘Y’ under the influence of madness, ‘X’ will have the same right of private defence as he would have exercised against a person of sound mind.
Question 45
Principle: Where a person fraudulently or erroneously represents that he is authorized to transfer certain immovable property and professes to transfer such property for consideration, such transfer shall, at the option of the transferee, operate on any interest which the transferor may acquire in such property at any time during which the contract of transfer subsists.
Facts: ‘A’, a Hindu who has separated from his father ‘B’, sells to ‘C’ three fields, X, Y and Z, representing that ‘A’ is authorized to transfer the same. Of these fields Z does not belong to ‘A’, it having been retained by ‘B’ on the partition; but on B's dying ‘A’ as successor obtains ‘Z’ and at that time ‘C’ had not cancelled the contract of sale.
Facts: ‘A’, a Hindu who has separated from his father ‘B’, sells to ‘C’ three fields, X, Y and Z, representing that ‘A’ is authorized to transfer the same. Of these fields Z does not belong to ‘A’, it having been retained by ‘B’ on the partition; but on B's dying ‘A’ as successor obtains ‘Z’ and at that time ‘C’ had not cancelled the contract of sale.
C ‘A’ is required to deliver Z to ‘C’
Since the field Z does not belong to A at the time of transfer and A fraudulently represented that he is authorized to sell the field Z to C now, subsequently, even if A actually becomes the owner of Z, A will have no claim over Z and he is required to deliver Z’ to C.
Question 46
Principle: Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 a property must be transferred by one living person to another living person. The Act deals only with transfer of property between living persons.
Facts: ‘X’ wants to transfer his property to the presiding deity in a temple situated within the estate of ‘A’.
Facts: ‘X’ wants to transfer his property to the presiding deity in a temple situated within the estate of ‘A’.
B Transfer of property by ‘X’ will be invalid
Follow the given principle strictly as it says that property can only be transferred between the living persons, Deity is not a living person and therefore transfer of property will not be valid.
Question 47
Principle: Where there is transfer of ownership of one thing for the ownership of some other thing it is called exchange; while transfer of ownership for consideration of money is called sale, whereas, without consideration it becomes gift.
Facts: ‘A’ transfers his house worth `50 Lakhs to ‘B’ for a shopping building worth the same amount, as consideration, from ‘B’.
Facts: ‘A’ transfers his house worth `50 Lakhs to ‘B’ for a shopping building worth the same amount, as consideration, from ‘B’.
B The transaction is a sale
The transaction will amount to sale because 50 Lakhs is an amount of money in consideration of which the transaction is being considered.
Question 48
Principle: One of the principles of natural justice is Nemo judex in causa sua, which means that no one should be a judge in his own cause. In other words, no person can judge a case in which he has an interest.
Facts: ‘X’, a member of the selection board for a government service, was also a candidate for selection for the same service. ‘X’ did not take part in the deliberations of the board when his name was considered and approved.
Facts: ‘X’, a member of the selection board for a government service, was also a candidate for selection for the same service. ‘X’ did not take part in the deliberations of the board when his name was considered and approved.
B Selection of ‘X’ is not against the principle of natural justice.
Abstaining of ‘X’ from the deliberations of the board will validate the rule of natural justice and therefore selection of X is not against the principle of natural justice. ‘X’ cannot be said to have judged his own cause.
Question 49
Principle: Strike is a collective stoppage of work by workmen undertaken in order to bring pressure upon those who depend on the sale or use of the products of work: whereas, lock-out is a weapon in the hands of the employer, similar to that of strike in the armoury of workmen, used for compelling persons employed by him to accept his terms or conditions of or affecting employment. While in closure there is permanent closing down of a place of employment or part thereof, in lay-off an employer, who is willing to employ, fails or refuses or is unable to provide employment for reasons beyond his control.
Facts: Workmen of a textile factory went on strike as per law, demanding the payment of bonus. Employer of the factory refused to pay any extra allowances, including bonus, and besides he closed down the factory till the strike was stopped.
Facts: Workmen of a textile factory went on strike as per law, demanding the payment of bonus. Employer of the factory refused to pay any extra allowances, including bonus, and besides he closed down the factory till the strike was stopped.
C Act of closing down the factory by the employer amounted to lock-out
The act of closing down the factory by the employer will amount to a lock-out as he closed down the factory till the strike was stopped and thereby used it as weapon for compelling persons employed by him to accept his terms or conditions of or affecting employment.
Question 50
Principle: Trade dispute means any dispute between employers and workmen or between workmen and workmen, or between employers and employers which is connected with the employment or non-employment, or the terms of employment or the conditions of labour, of any person. Disputes connected with the non-employment must be understood to include a dispute connected with a dismissal, discharge, removal or retrenchment of a workman.
Facts: ‘X’, an employee in a sugar factory, raised a dispute against ‘Y’, the employer, through trade union regarding certain matters connected with his suspension from the employment.
Facts: ‘X’, an employee in a sugar factory, raised a dispute against ‘Y’, the employer, through trade union regarding certain matters connected with his suspension from the employment.
B Matters connected with suspension cannot amount to a trade dispute
Suspension of X will not amount to a trade dispute because as per the principle a trade dispute includes disputes with respect to dismissal, discharge, removal or retrenchment of a workman and does not include suspension. As according to the principle, suspension is not covered under trade dispute.
