AILET 2018 Question Paper With Solution




Section: ENGLISH

Question 1
For each question, choose the correct sentence/s.

I. Due to the amicable nature of the new neighbours in the locality, we could come to an amiable settlement of the dispute that had taken place.
II. Edmund Hillary and Tenzing Norgay gave ascent that they will assent the Mt. Everest and conquer it together.
III. His immanent literary qualities made him an eminent writer and hence fame became imminent for him.
IV. Kamal is very obedient, agreeable and gracious: a complaisant child. His mother feels complacent of her parentage.
AI, IV
BIII, IV
CII, IV
DI, III
B III, IV
In sentence I, the words ‘amicable’ and ‘amiable’ have been interchanged. While both words are quite similar in meaning, in the context of a settlement ‘amicable’ is more appropriate.
In sentence II, ‘ascent’ and ‘assent’ have been interchanged – while ‘ascend’ means ‘to climb’, ‘assent’ means ‘to agree.’ Thus, the sentence should be “Edmund Hillary and Tenzing Norgay gave assent that they will ascend the Mt. Everest and conquer it together.”
Question 2
For each question, choose the correct sentence/s.

I. The Music Director ingeniously told the media that the song was his ingenuous work.
II. If you are mendacious in life most of the times, you will have to be mendicant later to win their trust back again.
III. Being venal is not a venial crime under the court of law.
IV. The leader abjured his followers to adjure violence as a means to demand their rights.
AII, III
BI, IV
CII, IV
DI, Ill
A II, III
In sentence I the words ‘ingenious’ and ‘ingenuous’ have been interchanged. While ‘ingenious’ means “clever, original and inventive,” ‘ingenuous’ means “innocent and unsuspecting.’ The correct sentence should be “The Music Director ingenuously told the media that the song was his ingenious work.”
In sentence IV the words ‘abjure’ and ‘adjure’ have been interchanged. While ‘adjure’ means to ‘urge or request solemnly’, ‘abjure’ means ‘to renounce’. Hence the correct sentence should be “The leader adjured his followers to abjure violence as a means to demand their rights.
Question 3
For each question, choose the correct sentence/s.
AKetan has to be more discreet or he’ll literally drive his wife up the wall.
BKetan has to be more discrete or he’ll literally drive his wife up the wall.
CKetan has to be more discrete or he’ll drive his wife up the wall.
DKetan has to be more discreet or he’ll drive his wife up the wall.
D Ketan has to be more discreet or he’ll drive his wife up the wall.
To be ‘discreet’ means to be “prudent and careful in one’s speech or actions, especially to keep something confidential or to avoid embarrassment” which is clearly more appropriate in the first conditional clause as ‘discrete’ means ‘individually separate and distinct.’ Also, to ‘drive somebody up the wall’ means “to annoy or frustrate one to the point of exasperation.” Hence it cannot be a literal comment.
Question 4
For each question, choose the correct sentence/s.
AHema prophesized that if Ratna kept dancing that way, she’d get her just desserts.
BHema prophesized that if Ratna kept dancing that way, she’d get her just deserts.
CHema prophesied that if Ratna kept dancing that way, she’d get her just deserts.
DHema prophesied that if Ratna kept dancing that way, she’d get her just desserts.
D Hema prophesied that if Ratna kept dancing that way, she’d get her just desserts.
The first verb here is the past tense of ‘prophesy’ which is ‘prophesied’ and not ‘prophesized’. Also the correct phrase is ‘just deserts’ which means ‘to be punished or rewarded in a manner appropriate to one’s actions or behaviour.’ Hence statement c is the correct choice.
Note that the word ‘deserts’ is an almost obsolete word which means ‘reward or punishment that is deserved.’
Question 5
Following are the questions based on the same words used as different parts of speech. Choose the correct matches.

Well
1. Noun a. Well begun is half done.
2. Adjective b. Let well alone.
3. Adverb c. Well, who would have thought it?
4. Interjection d. I hope you are now well.
A1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
B1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
C1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D4-a, 3-b, 2-c, 1-b
B 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
The easiest to identify here is the interjection usage. Clearly option c uses the word ‘well’ as an interjection, so the correct pairing would be 4-c, which is only present in option b.
Question 6
Following are the questions based on the same words used as different parts of speech. Choose the correct matches.

What
1. Interjection Adjective a. Give me what you can. What happened then, I do not know.
2. Interjection b. What does he want ?
3. Interjection Pronoun c. What! You don’t mean to say so ?
4. Relative Pronoun d. What evidence have you got ?
A4-b, 1-c, 2-d, 3-a
B3-c, 2-b, 1-a, 4-d
C1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
D1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
D 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
Here the usage as an interjection is easiest to identify. Clearly only sentence c uses the word ‘what’ as an interjection alone. This gives us the combination 2-c which is only present in option d.
Question 7
Name the various Figures of Speech in the following.

He was a learned man among lords, and a lord among learned men.
AEpigram
BMetonymy
COxymoron
DAntithesis
A Epigram
An ‘epigram’ is a ‘pithy saying or remark expressing an idea in a clever and amusing way.’
A ‘metonymy’ is ‘the rhetorical strategy of describing something indirectly by referring to things around it.’
An ‘oxymoron’ is ‘A figure of speech in which incongruous or contradictory terms appear side by side.’
An ‘antithesis’ is ‘The juxtaposition of contrasting ideas in balanced phrases.’
Clearly the above sentence is a clever way of presenting an idea i.e. it is an epigram.
Question 8
Name the various Figures of Speech in the following.

Sceptre and crown
Must tumble down,
And in dust be equal made
With the poor crooked scythe and spade.
AIrony
BApostrophe
CMetonymy
DSynecdoche
C Metonymy
‘irony’ is ‘A statement or situation where the meaning is contradicted by the appearance or presentation of the idea.’
‘Apostrophe’ is ‘Breaking off discourse to address some absent person or thing, some abstract quality, an inanimate object, or a nonexistent character.’
A ‘metonymy’ is ‘the rhetorical strategy of describing something indirectly by referring to things around it.’
‘Synecdoche’ is ‘A figure of speech in which a part is used to represent the whole or the whole for a part.’
Clearly the given lines of the poem contain words that form an indirect reference. Thus, ‘sceptre and crown’ would refer to the ‘ruling class or king’, while ‘scythe and spade’ would refer to the ‘common gentry or working class people’. Hence this is a ‘metonymy’.
Question 9
Name the various Figures of Speech in the following.

Brave Macbeth, with his brandished steel, carved out his passage.
AMetaphor
BLitotes
CClimax
DSynecdoche
D Synecdoche
A ‘metaphor’ is ‘An implied comparison between two unlike things that actually have something important in common.’
‘litotes’ is ‘A figure of speech consisting of an understatement in which an affirmative is expressed by negating its opposite.’
‘climax’ is ‘a figure of speech in which words, phrases, or clauses are arranged in order of increasing importance.’
‘Synecdoche’ is ‘A figure of speech in which a part is used to represent the whole or the whole for a part.’
Clearly here the phrase ‘brandished steel’ refers to the sword that Macbeth is carrying, so this is a synecdoche.’
Question 10
Name the various Figures of Speech in the following.

We had nothing to do, and we did it very well.
AAntithesis
BParadox
CAnticlimax
DLitotes
B Paradox
An ‘antithesis’ is ‘The juxtaposition of contrasting ideas in balanced phrases.’
A ‘paradox’ is ‘A statement that appears to contradict itself.’
An ‘anticlimax’ is ‘a figure of speech in which statements gradually descend in order of importance.’
A ‘litote’ is ‘A figure of speech consisting of an understatement in which an affirmative is expressed by negating its opposite.’
The latter clause ‘and we did it very well’ seems to contradict the earlier clause ‘We had nothing to do’, so this is a clear case of a ‘paradox.’
Question 11
Name the various Figures of Speech in the following.

And thou, Dalhousie, the great god of war Lieutenant-Colonel to the Earl of Mar.
AApostrophe
BAnticlimax
CEpigram
DParadox
C Epigram
‘Apostrophe’ is ‘Breaking off discourse to address some absent person or thing, some abstract quality, an inanimate object, or a nonexistent character.’
An ‘anticlimax’ is ‘a figure of speech in which statements gradually descend in order of importance.’
An ‘epigram’ is a ‘pithy saying or remark expressing an idea in a clever and amusing way.’
A ‘paradox’ is ‘A statement that appears to contradict itself.’
Here the figure of speech clearly cannot be an apostrophe (it addresses a person ‘Dalhousie’), anticlimax (no multiple statements in descending order of importance) or paradox (does not contradict itself). Hence it must be an ‘epigram’ or a ‘witty remark’.
Question 12
Name the various Figures of Speech in the following.

The Puritan had been rescued by no common deliverer from the gasp of no common foe.
AHyperbole
BEpigram
CMetaphor
DLitotes
D Litotes
‘Hyperbole’ is ‘the use of exaggerated terms for the purpose of emphasis or heightened effect.’
An ‘epigram’ is a ‘pithy saying or remark expressing an idea in a clever and amusing way.’
A ‘metaphor’ is ‘An implied comparison between two unlike things that actually have something important in common.’
‘litotes’ is ‘A figure of speech consisting of an understatement in which an affirmative is expressed by negating its opposite.’
The negating phrases ‘no common deliverer’ and ‘no common foe’ clearly mean the opposite of the literal and hence form ‘litotes.’
Question 13
Choose the sentence (s) which is/are punctuated correctly.

I. Our daughter will be three years old next week.
II. Our son will be two-years-old next week.
III. Our two-year-old is starting to talk.
IV. Our two year old is starting to talk.
AI, III
BI & IV
CII, III
DIII
A I, III
When describing somebody’s age, we simply say ‘___ is X years old’ while when age is used in a noun phrase (with age acting as a modifier) we use hyphenate it as ‘X-year-old’.
Question 14
Choose the sentence (s) which is/are punctuated correctly.

I. Jan asked; “What did Joe mean when he said, ‘I will see you later.’ "
II. Jan asked, “What did Joe mean when he said, ’I will see you later?’ ”
III. Jan asked, “What did Joe mean when he said, 'I will see you later’?”
IV. Jan asked, “What did Joe mean when he said, ’I will see you later’ ”?
AII
BI
CIV
DIII
D III
Consider these options one by one:
In I, the semi-colon (;) is clearly inappropriate so it can be eliminated.
In the remaining sentences, this has been corrected to the comma (,). In fact these sentences also have the question-mark (?) instead of the period (.).
So which of these is correct?
Logically speaking, the question is not part of the inner quotation, but is part of the outer one. So the ‘?” must feature outside the single quotes (‘) and should come inside the double quotes (“) i.e. option c.
Question 15
Choose the sentence (s) which is/are punctuated correctly.

I. You are my friend; however, I cannot afford to lend you any more money.
II. Truly, a popular error has as many lives as a cat: it comes walking in, long after you have imagined it effectually strangled.
Ill. There is only one cure for the evils which newly acquired freedom produces, and that cure is freedom.
IV. There is a slavery that no legislation can abolish; the slavery of caste.
AI, II, III
BII, IV
CI, II, III, IV
DII, III
A I, II, III
The only incorrect punctuation above is in statement IV. The correct form should be “There is a slavery that no legislation can abolish – the slavery of caste.”
Note that the semi-colon must be used before conjunctive adverbs (like in sentence I). In sentence II, the colon (:) indicates that the clause that follows is explains (or expands upon) the previous sentence. The comma (,) in sentence III simply separates two related clauses.
Question 16
Choose the sentence (s) which is/are punctuated correctly.

I. Yes, Jagrit, you were right about that answer.
II. Yes Jagrit, you were right about that answer.
III. I saw our town’s ex-Mayor Prakash Kumar in the mall.
IV. I saw our town’s ex-mayor in the market.
AI, III
BI, III, IV
CI, IV
DII, III
B I, III, IV
In sentence I, the affirmation ‘Yes’ must be followed by the comma. Also, we need a comma after the address of the person by name (Jagrit). Hence sentence II is incorrect.
Also, sentences III and IV are both correct as job titles are capitalized when placed before the person’s name; however when used instead of the person’s name, they are not capitalized.
Question 17
Choose the sentence (s) which is/are punctuated correctly.

I. As Caesar loved me, I wept for him; as he was fortunate, I rejoice at it; as he was valiant, I honour him; but as he was ambitious, I slew him.
II. Danish, my friend from Chandigarh, Punjab, will join us.
III. Danish, my friend, from Chandigarh, Punjab will join us.
IV. As Caesar loved me, I wept for him; as he was fortunate, I rejoice at it; as he was valiant, I honour him: but as he was ambitious I slew him.
AII
BII, IV
CI, III
DI, II
B II, IV
Consider sentences I and IV – both contain multiple statements related by conjunctive adverbs, so these are separated by the semi-colon (;). However, in sentence IV, in the last clause clause there is a comma (,) missing between the dependent clause and the main clause. Hence sentence I is correct.
Also between sentences II and III, the former has the correct punctuation – the phrase ‘my friend from Chandigarh, Punjab’ is a non-essential modifier and must be separated by a comma.
Question 18
Choose the sentence (s) which is/are punctuated correctly.

I. A liberally sprinkled dose of humour was very much appreciated.
II. Right now I want two things: peace and quiet.
Ill. Our liberal-minded clergyman managed to unite the entire congregation.
IV. Right now I want two things; peace and quiet.
AII, III
BI, IV
CI, II, III
DIII, IV
C I, II, III
Here the only error is in sentence IV where the two attributes listed (peace and quiet) are clearly the expansion of the previous sentence. When making a list, the colon (:) is more appropriate.
Question 19
Choose the sentence (s) which is/are punctuated correctly.

I. It may not be the correct part, but I bet that it works.
II. It may not be the correct part but: I bet that it works.
III. O father! I hear the sound of guns.
IV. O Hamlet, speak no more!
AI, III
BI, III, IV
CII, III
DI, IV
B I, III, IV
The only error is in sentence II. Here the colon is not necessary; rather the previous sentence I has the correct punctuation!
Question 20
For each question, identify the correct subjects and verbs. The subjects are in bold and the verbs are underlined.
AEvery environmental <strong>regulation</strong> has been undermined <u>by</u> that industry.
B<strong>Every</strong> environmental regulation <u>has been</u> undermined by that industry.
CEvery environmental <strong>regulation</strong> <u>has been undermined</u> by that industry.
DEvery environmental <strong>regulation</strong> has been <u>undermined</u> by that <strong>industry</strong>.
C Every environmental <strong>regulation</strong> <u>has been undermined</u> by that industry.
Clearly the action is that of ‘undermining’, so this must be the verb. Also note that the auxiliary or helping verbs here are ‘has been’. Now this action has been the doing of the ‘regulation’, so this is the subject.
Question 21
For each question, identify the correct subjects and verbs. The subjects are in bold and the verbs are underlined.
AMy <strong>gift</strong> for singing and dancing simultaneously did <u>not fail to attract</u> attention.
B<strong>My</strong> gift for <u>singing</u> and <u>dancing</u> simultaneously did not fail to attract attention.
CMy <strong>gift</strong> for <u>singing and dancing</u> simultaneously did not fail to attract attention.
DMy <strong>gift</strong> for singing and dancing simultaneously <u>did</u> not <u>fail</u> to attract attention.
D My <strong>gift</strong> for singing and dancing simultaneously <u>did</u> not <u>fail</u> to attract attention.
The action verb here is ‘fail’ while the auxiliary or helping verb is ‘did’. Now this action of ‘failing’ (or its negation as ‘not failing’) was the doing of the noun ‘my gift’, so this is the subject. Note that the phrase ‘singing and dancing simultaneously’ describes the gift i.e. it acts as a modifier here. Also ‘to attract attention’ is the object of the verb.
Question 22
For each question, identify the correct subjects and verbs. The subjects are in bold and the verbs are underlined.
A<strong>Every</strong> attempt to flatter her <u>failed miserably</u>.
BEvery <strong>attempt</strong> <u>to flatter</u> her failed miserably.
CEvery <strong>attempt</strong> to flatter her <u>failed</u> miserably.
DEvery attempt to flatter <strong>her</strong> <u>failed</u> miserably.
C Every <strong>attempt</strong> to flatter her <u>failed</u> miserably.
Here the verb is ‘failed’, and this action was the doing of every ‘attempt’ which is the subject here.
Question 23
For each question, identify the correct subjects and verbs. The subjects are in bold and the verbs are underlined.
AIf <strong>all</strong> <u>is</u> lost, why <u>am</u> <strong>I</strong> still <u>playing</u> cricket ?
BIf <strong>all</strong> <u>is lost</u>, why am I still playing cricket ?
CIf all is lost, why am <strong>I</strong> still <u>playing</u> cricket ?
DIf <strong>all</strong> is lost, why am <u>I still playing</u> cricket ?
A If <strong>all</strong> <u>is</u> lost, why <u>am</u> <strong>I</strong> still <u>playing</u> cricket ?
There are two clauses here. In the first dependent clause, the verb is ‘is’ while the subject is ‘all’. In the second independent clause, the action verb is ‘am playing’ which is the doing of the subject ‘I’.
Question 24
For each question, identify the correct subjects and verbs. The subjects are in bold and the verbs are underlined.
A“<strong>Buses</strong>” has only one <strong>s</strong> <u>in</u> the middle of it.
B“<strong>Buses</strong>” has only one s <u>in the middle</u> of it.
C“Buses” <u>has</u> only <strong>one s</strong> in the middle of it.
D“<strong>Buses</strong>" <u>has</u> only one s in the middle of it.
D “<strong>Buses</strong>" <u>has</u> only one s in the middle of it.
The verb here is ‘has’ while the subject is “Buses”.
Question 25
For each question, identify the correct subjects and verbs. The subjects are in bold and the verbs are underlined.
A<u>Have</u> <strong>you</strong> <u>memorized</u> all the chemical symbols on the chart ?
BHave you <u>memorized</u> all the chemical <strong>symbols</strong> on the chart ?
C<u>Have</u> <strong>you</strong> memorized all the chemical symbols on the chart ?
D<u>Have</u> you <u>memorized</u> all the chemical symbols on <strong>the chart</strong> ?
A <u>Have</u> <strong>you</strong> <u>memorized</u> all the chemical symbols on the chart ?
Clearly here the verb is ‘memorized’ which is aided by the helping/auxiliary verb ‘have’. The doer of this action is the subject ‘you’.
Question 26
For each question, identify the correct subjects and verbs. The subjects are in bold and the verbs are underlined.
AThis gorgeous grand <strong>sitar</strong> is tuned <u>to perfection</u>.
BThis gorgeous grand <strong>sitar</strong> <u>is tuned</u> to perfection.
CThis gorgeous <strong>grand</strong> sitar <u>is</u> tuned to perfection.
DThis <u>gorgeous</u> grand <strong>sitar</strong> is tuned to perfection.
B This gorgeous grand <strong>sitar</strong> <u>is tuned</u> to perfection.
The action verb here is ‘tuned’ which is aided by the auxiliary verb ‘is’. The subject or the doer of this action is ‘sitar’.
Question 27
Find out the sentence/s which is/are written correctly.

I. Some of the desserts was left by the end of the birthday party.
II. Your brilliant excuses almost makes up for your tardiness.
lll. Neither Jackson nor Jenna have played hooky.
IV. Either of us is capable of winning.
AI, II, III
BII, III
CII
DIV
D IV
In sentence I, the subject is ‘desserts’ which has also be described by the quantifier ‘some’. Now when a countable noun is modified by a quantifier the verb must be in the plural i.e. ‘were left’.
In sentence II, the subject ‘excuses’ is plural, so the verb should agree with it as ‘make up’.
In sentence III, when using the conjunction ‘neither – nor’ the verb must agree with the closest noun i.e. ‘Jenna’ here. So the verb must be ‘has played’.
Question 28
Find out the sentence/s which is/are written correctly.

I. Here’s the paper clips you requested.
II. A limousine and driver are in the driveway.
Ill. One-fourth of the voters tend not to cast its ballots in national elections.
IV. Either of the classic cars are for sale.
AI, II
BI, II, III
CII
DII, IV
C II
In sentence I, the antecedent of the demonstrative pronoun ‘here’ is ‘paper clips’ which is in the plural. Hence the verb should agree with it as ‘Here are the paper clips you requested’.
In sentence III, the subject is the countable noun ‘voters’ (which has been quantified further as ‘One-fourth’ of). So the possessive pronoun that refers to it must be in the plural as ‘their ballots’.
In sentence IV, the indefinite pronoun ‘Either’ is always singular, so the verb must be ‘is’.
Question 29
Find out the sentence/s which is/are written correctly.

l. Ten dollars are too much to pay for a pen.
II. The water polo team have won the state championship for the second time.
III. That skier is one of those who competes nationally.
IV. I can not be calm on roller coasters.
AI, II, III
BII, Ill, IV
CI, III, IV
Dnone of these
D none of these
In sentence I, the subject is the noun  phrase ‘Ten dollars’ which is treated as a singular subject, so the verb should agree with it as ‘is’.
In sentence II, the subject is the collective noun ‘team’ so the verb must be singular i.e. ‘has won’.
In sentence III, notice the use of the phrase ‘one of those’. Usually here the latter part of the sentence is in plural form. Now in this statement the latter part must be correctly expanded in the plural as ‘those who compete nationally’.
In sentence IV, the negative of ‘can’ is usually written as ‘cannot’.
Question 30
Find out the sentence/s which is/are written correctly.

I. The sexy, slim, Indian superstar.
II. The Indian, slim, sexy superstar.
III. My yellow, old, Ferrari sports car.
IV. My old, yellow, Ferrari sports car.
AI, IV
BI, III
CII, IV
DII, III
D II, III
We need to choose between I and II, and also between III and IV. Here we need the rationale to manage the order of the given adjectives.
The order of adjectives must be as follows:
  • Quantity or number
  • Quality or opinion
  • Size
  • Age
  • Shape
  • Colour
  • Proper adjective (nationality, place of origin, material etc.)
  • Purpose or qualifier
In sentence I and II, the adjective of opinion ‘sexy’ must come first, followed by shape adjective ‘slim’ and last of all should be the nationality ‘Indian’. Hence I is correct.
Similarly in II and IV, the adjective of age ‘old’ must come first, followed by the colour ‘yellow’ and lastly by the adjective ‘Ferrari’, so IV is correct.
Question 31
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/ phrase in the question.

Find your feet
Adesire to escape from a situation
Badapting and attuning to something
Cfinding one’s own space
Dready to fight a war
B adapting and attuning to something
To “find one’s feet” means that in a new situation, one is “starting to feel confident and dealing with things successfully”.
Question 32
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/ phrase in the question.

(To be) On the ball
Aanother thing coming
Bhaving fun
Cbeing alert or well prepared
Draise the roof
C being alert or well prepared
To be ‘on the wall’ means to be ‘alert, competent or efficient’.
Question 33
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/ phrase in the question.

(To) Go cold turkey
Aspeaking truth
Bgetting down to business
Cgradually cutting down
Dwithdraw abruptly and completely
D withdraw abruptly and completely
To go ‘cold turkey’ means to ‘withdraw suddenly and completely from an addictive substance or some other form of dependency’.
Question 34
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/ phrase in the question.

Break a leg
Agood luck
Btake a break
Cbad luck
Dtrying hard to succeed
A good luck
The expression ‘break a leg’ is usually meant as a greeting of ‘good luck’.
Question 35
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/ phrase in the question.

White-knuckled handshake
Asign of stressful situation
Bfriendly handshake
Csign of peace
Dholding hands very lightly
A sign of stressful situation
A ‘white knuckled handshake’ is one that is ‘marked by, causing, or experiencing tense nervousness’.

Section: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Question 1
Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) is an independent verification system for EVM designed to
I. allow voters to verify that their votes are cast correctly.
II. detect possible election fraud or malfunction.
III. Provide a means to audit the stored electronic results.
IV. Voter can see printout and take it out too.
AI and II
BI, III and IV
CI, II and III
DAll of the above
C I, II and III
I, II and III
Question 2
The Film Federation of India (FFI) has selected the Hindi film to represent India in Best Foreign Language category at the 90 Academy Awards (Oscars).
APadmavat
BDangal
CBahubali
DNewton
D Newton
Newton
Question 3
Who is awarded the Person of the Year for 2017 by Times magazine?
AThe Silence Breakers
BCrown Prince Mohammed bin Salman
CThe Dreamers
DColin Kaepernick
A The Silence Breakers
The Silence Breakers
Question 4
How many banks have merged with SBI with effect from October 2017?
A4
B5
C6
D7
C 6
6
Question 5
According to a recent report by NASA, the El Nino led to excessive carbon dioxide releases in which of the following ways ?
I. Hot weather and drought caused extensive wildfires in south-east Asia.
II. Drought in the Amazon rainforest stunted plant growth, reducing the amount of carbon they absorb while growing.
III. Warmer weather and near normal rainfall in Africa caused forests to exhale more CO2.
AI only
BII only
CII and III
DI, II and III
D I, II and III
I, II and III
Question 6
Scientists from which of the following countries have developed the world’s first artificial intelligence politician named SAM ?
ANew Zealand
BJapan
CChina
DKorea
A New Zealand
New Zealand
Question 7
Which State became the first State in India to operate electric bus services ?
AAssam
BHimachal Pradesh
CKarnataka
DMaharashtra
B Himachal Pradesh
Himachal Pradesh
Question 8
_________ officially launched its own oil-backed cryptocurrency called Petro.
AChina
BSenegal
CVenezuela
DSingapore
C Venezuela
Venezuela
Question 9
_________ is the first Indian woman pilot of Indian Air Force who created history by completing a solo flight on a MiG-21 Bison fighter aircraft.
ABhawana Kanth
BMohana Singh
CAnny Divya
DAvani Chaturvedi
D Avani Chaturvedi
Avani Chaturvedi
Question 10
________ is first city in India to get World Heritage City status by United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
ADelhi
BMumbai
CAhmedabad
DJaipur
C Ahmedabad
Ahmedabad
Question 11
Which of these digital payment mechanisms does not require an internet connection ?
AUSSD
BUPI
Ce-wallets
DIMPS 24X7
A USSD
USSD
Question 12
_______ is a popular statistical simulation named after a city.
ABristol
BVienna
CBerlin
DMonte Carlo
D Monte Carlo
Monte Carlo
Question 13
BookMyShow and PayTM are examples of ________ and ________ wallets, respectively.
AOpen, Closed
BClosed, Semi-closed
CSemi-open, Semi-closed
DSemi-closed, closed
B Closed, Semi-closed
Closed, Semi-closed
Question 14
Which of the following Indian companies had become one of the top three most- valuable brands in the information technology (IT) service sector of the world ?
AWipro
BInfosys
CHCL Technologies
DTata Consultancy Services
D Tata Consultancy Services
Tata Consultancy Services
Question 15
ICC Under-19 World Cup Trophy 2018 was won by India defeating Australia. What is special about this tournament ?
AShubman Gill of India was declared the 'Man of the Tournament
BTeam Afghanistan defeated three high profile teams namely Pakistan, Sri Lanka and New Zealand.
CIndia now holds the most wins record in Under-19 World Cup.
DAll of the above
D All of the above
All of the above
Question 16
When ghee is kept in open air/sunlight for 30 minutes, the loss of Vitamin 'A' is
A100%
B75%
C34%
DNone of the above
D None of the above
100%
Question 17
Which one of the following has been appointed first female independent Director of International Cricket Council in 2018 ?
ANaina Lal Kidwai
BIndra Nooyi
CNita Ambani
DChitra Ramkrishna
B Indra Nooyi
Indra Nooyi
Question 18
Light waves can be polarised because they
Ahave high frequency
Bhave short wavelength
Care compressive
Dare transverse
D are transverse
are transverse
Question 19
As per NlTl Aayog’s Health Index, 2018, which of the following States is the healthiest State in India ?
APunjab
BHaryana
CKerala
DTamil Nadu
C Kerala
Kerala
Question 20
Which one of the following has been described as a 'Frozen Moment in History' ?
AFatehpur Sikri
BJallianwala Bagh
CGot Gumbas Bijapur
DKutub Minar
A Fatehpur Sikri
Fatehpur Sikri
Question 21
In a coastal city, a high tide occurs every
A24 hours
B12 hours and 25 minutes
C12 hours
D24 hours and 25 minutes
B 12 hours and 25 minutes
12 hours and 25 minutes
Question 22
Which of the followings are the exclusive powers of Rajya Sabha under the Constitution of India ?
I. Creation of new All India Services.
II. Enable Parliament to enact law on a subject in State List.
Ill. Enforcing proclamation of emergency when Lok Sabha is dissolved.
AI, II
BII, III
CI, III
DI, II, Ill
D I, II, Ill
I, II, Ill
Question 23
India and China jointly submitted a proposal to the World Trade Organisation (WTO) calling for the elimination - by developed countries - of the most trade-distorting form of farm subsidies, known in WTO parlance as support as a prerequisite for consideration of other reforms in domestic support negotiations.
AAmber Box
BGreen Box
CBlue Box
DOrange Box
A Amber Box
Amber Box
Question 24
Which of the following statements is correct as per the announcement of Union Budget 2018 - 19 ?
A24 new Medical Colleges will be established as green field projects.
B24 new Medical Colleges to be established by upgrading leading district hospitals.
C24 new Medical Colleges to be established in tribal areas.
D24 new Medical Colleges to be established for girl students.
B 24 new Medical Colleges to be established by upgrading leading district hospitals.
24 new Medical Colleges to be established by upgrading leading district hospitals.
Question 25
Which has been termed as the ‘Green Gold’ by the Finance Minister?
AShell Gas
BCNG
CBamboo
DMedicinal and Aromatic plants
C Bamboo
Bamboo
Question 26
Which of the following statements is not true about UNAIDS’ target 90: 90: 90?
A90% control of HIV infection by the year 2020.
B90% of all people living with HIV will know their HIV status.
C90% of all people with diagnosed HIV infection will receive sustained anti-retroviral therapy.
D90% of all people receiving anti-retroviral therapy will have viral suppression.
A 90% control of HIV infection by the year 2020.
90% control of HIV infection by the year 2020.
Question 27
According to John Templeton - Bull markets are born on pessimism, grow on scepticism, mature on optimism and die on ________.
AExcitement
BEuphoria
CEbullition
DRavishment
B Euphoria
Euphoria
Question 28
If RBI lowers the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), then
I. supply of money in the economy may increase.
II. banks will increase the interest rates.
III. exports will become cheaper.
AI
BI, II
CI, III
DI, II, III
A I
I
Question 29
GST has a ________ -tier structure for taxation of goods and services.
ATwo
BThree
CFour
DFive
C Four
Four
Question 30
Which of the following statements is correct about FDI in India ?
A100 % FDI is allowed in single brand retail via automatic route
B100 % FDI is admissible in construction sector via automatic route
CForeign airlines are allowed to invest upto 49% in Air India through approval route
DAll of the above
D All of the above
All of the above
Question 31
‘Diopter’ is the unit of measurement of
AHeat
BSound
CEnergy
Dpower of a lens
D power of a lens
power of a lens
Question 32
If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court, the acts performed by the President incumbent before the date of such decision of court are
Avalid but subject to judicial review
Binvalid
Cvalid
Dvalid but subject to the approval of the Parliament
C valid
valid
Question 33
In 2018, scientists have discovered a new organ which could also be the biggest organ in human body. What is the name of the organ?
Alnterstitium
BMesentery
CLangerhans
DMyeloid
A lnterstitium
lnterstitium
Question 34
World’s longest sandstone cave has been discovered in which of the following States ?
AAssam
BMeghalaya
CJammu & Kashmir
DNagaland
B Meghalaya
Meghalaya
Question 35
Which is the first Indian city to have its own logo for promoting tourism ?
AGoa
BAgra
CJaipur
DBengaluru
D Bengaluru
Bengaluru

Section: LEGAL APTITUDE

Question 1
Apply the legal principles to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

Legal Principle:
1. A person is liable for his negligence when he owed a duty of care to others and commits a breach of that duty causing injury thereby.
2. Volenti non fit iniuria is defence to negligence.
Factual Situation: Anil and his wife, Reena, were in a shop as customers, where a skylight in the roof of the shop was broken, owing to the negligence of the contractors engaged in repairing the roof, and a portion of the glass fell and struck Anil causing him a severe shock. Reena, who was standing close to him, was not touched by the falling glass, but, reasonably believing her husband to be in danger, she instinctively clutched his arm, and tried to pull him from the spot. In doing this, she strained her leg in such a way as to bring about a recurrence of thrombosis. Anil and Reena are claiming compensation for their injuries which were caused due to the negligence of the shop owners. The shop owners are denying liability on the grounds of volenti non fit injuria. The defence of volenti non fit injuria
Ais available in respect of husband
Bis available in respect of wife
Cis available in respect of both husband and wife
Dis not available in respect of both husband and wife
D is not available in respect of both husband and wife
VNFI will not be available in respect of Husband because the facts clearly shows that owing to the negligence of the contractors engaged in repairing the roof, and a portion of the glass fell and struck Anil causing him a severe shock and it will also not be available against Wife because she reasonably believed her husband to be in danger, she instinctively clutched his arm, and tried to pull him from the spot.
Question 2
Factual Situation: During 2011, a European Directive was issued requiring nations of the European Community to establish standards on the presence of Perchloroethene (PCE) in water, which the Kingsland did in 2013.
Alfa Water Co. purchased a borehole in 2007 to extract water to supply to the public In Kingsland. In 2014, it tested the water to ensure that it met minimum standards for human consumption and discovered that it was contaminated with an organochlorine solvent (PCE). On investigation, it emerged that the solvent seeped into the soil through the building floor of the Light & Soft Leather Tannery, about 3 miles from the borehole that eventually contaminated the Alfa's borehole.
Since the tannery opened in 1910, until 2007, the solvent it used had been delivered in 40-galIon drums which were transported by fork lift truck and then tipped into a sump. Since 2007, solvents has been delivered in bulk and stored in tanks. It was then piped to the tanning machinery. There was no evidence of any spills from the tanks or pipes, and it was concluded that the water had been contaminated by frequent spills under the earlier system. Alfa Water brought a claim against the Tannery on the grounds of nuisance. Whether the Tannery owners are liable?
AYes, the escape of the solvent which contaminated the water is sufficient for making them liable.
BNo, the damage is too remote as it was not possible for the Tannery owners to reasonably foresee a spillage which would eventually lead to contamination of a water borehole so far away.
CNo, because Alfa Water Co. shouId have been careful in using good purifying mechanisms to ensure that the water la fit for human consumption. They cannot shift the blame on the Tannery owners.
DYes, the damage is not remote ae it was possible for the Tannery owners to reasonably foresee a spillage. which would eventually lead to contamination of a water borehole just 3 miles away.
C No, because Alfa Water Co. shouId have been careful in using good purifying mechanisms to ensure that the water la fit for human consumption. They cannot shift the blame on the Tannery owners.
Tannery owners are not liable because the damage is too remote as it was not possible for the Tannery owners to reasonably foresee a spillage which would eventually lead to contamination of a water borehole so far away (about 3 miles).
Question 3
Factual Situation: M G Ltd. was constructing Crystal Heights, a posh state-of-the-art tower for commercial and residential purposes, in Gurugram. During construction, hundreds of claimants alleged that, in addition to dust and noise caused by the erection of the building, their television signals had been interrupted by the tower. The claimants, some of whom were absolute owners, and many others who were renting, sued in both negligence and in nuisance for the harm done to their amenity by the loss of their television signals. Whether the respondent’s action in causing the appellant’s television signals to be interrupted with the construction of their tower could constitute a private nuisance?
AThe interference with the television signal caused by the construction of the tower could not amount to a private nuisance at law. Effective town pIanning can sort this matter, instead.
BYes, the large tower had interrupted their television reception, and caused private nuisance — for loss of enjoyment — and remuneration for their wasted television license fee, from the time their signal had been impaired.
CNo, it cannot constitute private nuisance but the claimants can claim damages for loss of television signals.
DYes, the respondent’s conduct was unreasonable because the act of building the tower caused impairment of enjoyment of the land.
B Yes, the large tower had interrupted their television reception, and caused private nuisance — for loss of enjoyment — and remuneration for their wasted television license fee, from the time their signal had been impaired.
Yes, the large tower had interrupted their television reception, and caused private nuisance — for loss of enjoyment and remuneration for their wasted television license fee, from the time their signal had been impaired. Principle-1 is clearly applicable in this case.
Question 4
Legal Principle:
1. Any intentional false communication, either written or spoken, that harms a person’s reputation; decreases the respect, regard, or confidence in which a person is held; or induces disparaging, hostile, or disagreeable opinions or feelings against a person.
2. The statement must tend to lower the claimant in the estimation of right-thinking members of society.
3. A mere vulgar abuse is not defamation.
4. Sometimes a statement may not be defamatory on the face of it but contain an innuendo, which has a defamatory meaning.
5. Defamation encompasses both written statements, known as libel, and spoken statements, called slander.
Factual Situation: In May 2017, a memorial commemorating the women of World War II was vandalized during an anti-government demonstration following the General Election. An offensive political slogan was spray painted across the plinth of the memorial. This act caused public outrage and widespread condemnation. On Twitter, a political writer, Asha Mehta said that she did not have a problem with the vandalism of the memorial building. Chandna reacted to this negatively, suggesting that Asha should be sent to join Terrorist Organization. Asha’s comments and Chandna's reactions both received national media coverage.
A few days later, Chandna published a tweet asking the question “Scrawled on any war memorials recently? to Anshika Chauhan, another political activist. Anshika Chauhan responded stating that they had never vandalised any memorial building, and moreover had family members serving in the armed forces. Chandna followed with a second tweet, in which she asked if someone could explain the difference between Mehta (an “irritant") and Anshika Chauhan (whom she described as “social anthrax").
Anshika Chauhan asked for a retraction via Twitter and was promptly blocked by Chandna. Anshika Chauhan asked Chandna to make a public apology and claimed compensation for libel alleging that the First Tweet suggested that she had either vandalised a war memorial, which was a criminal act; and the Second Tweet suggested that she approved or condoned that vandalisation. What is the meaning of the Tweets and whether those meanings had defamatory tendency?
ABoth the tweets were defamatory to Anshika Chauhan as the hypothetical ordinary reader can be expected to understand defamatory tendency of the tweet in the context of the situation.
BSecond tweet was not defamatory as it was not referring directly to Anshika Chauhan. So, she cannot claim compensation.
CNatural and ordinary meaning of the tweets are not defamatory. So, she cannot claim compensation.
DFirst tweet was not defamatory because the natural and ordinary meaning of the statement which is conveyed to a hypothetical ordinary reader is not defamatory.
A Both the tweets were defamatory to Anshika Chauhan as the hypothetical ordinary reader can be expected to understand defamatory tendency of the tweet in the context of the situation.
Both the tweets were defamatory to Anshika Chauhan as the hypothetical ordinary reader can be expected to understand defamatory tendency of the tweet in the context of the situation. Principle-1 is clearly applicable in this case.
Question 5
Legal Principle:
1. An assault is an act which intentionally causes another person to apprehend the infliction of immediate, unlawful force on a person.
2. A battery consists of an intentional application of force to another person without any lawful justification.
Factual Situation: Jagan was in his car when he was approached by a police officer who told him to move the vehicle. Jagan did so, reversed his car and rolled it on to the foot of the police officer. The officer forcefully told him to move the car off his foot at which point Jagan swore at him and refused to move his vehicle and turned the engine off. Jagan was convicted for assaulting a police officer in the execution of his duty. Is he liable for battery or assault?
AHe is not liable because there cannot be an assault in omitting to act and that driving on to the officer’s foot was accidental, meaning that he was lacking mens rea when the act causing damage had occurred.
BHe is not liable as the act neither amount to an attempt nor a threat to commit a battery that amounts to an actionable tort of assault.
CJagan’s crime was not the refusal to move the car but that of having driven on to the foot of the officer and decided not to cease the act, he had established a continual act of battery.
DHe is neither liable for assault nor battery as he accidently drove his car on the police officer’s foot.
C Jagan’s crime was not the refusal to move the car but that of having driven on to the foot of the officer and decided not to cease the act, he had established a continual act of battery.
Jagan’s crime was not the refusal to move the car but that of having driven on to the foot of the officer and decided not to cease the act, he had established a continual act of battery. Jagan will be liable as he refused to move his vehicle while it was on the foot of the officer and turned the engine off.
Question 6
Factual Situation: The defendant, Mr. Dhawan, wrote to the complainant, Mr. Chaman, with an offer to sell his house to him for 78,00,000. He promised that he would keep this offer open to him until Friday. However, on the Thursday Mr. Dhawan accepted an offer from a third party and sold his house. According to Mr. Chaman, he was going to accept this offer but had not said anything to Mr. Dhawan because he understood that he had time until Friday. Mr. Dhawan communicated to Mr. Chaman that the offer had been withdrawn, through a friend to the complainant. After hearing this, Mr. Chaman went to find the defendant, informing of his acceptance to the offer. Thereafter, the complainant brought an action for specific performance and breach of contract against the defendant. Whether the defendant’s promise to keep the offer open until Friday morning was a binding contract between the parties and whether he was allowed to revoke this offer and sell to a third party?
AThe statement made by Mr. Dhawan amounts to a valid contract and he has committed a breach by selling the house before Friday.
BThe statement made by Mr. Dhawan was nothing more than a promise; there was no binding contract formed. He had communicated an offer for buying his house to the complainant and this offer can be revoked any time before there is acceptance.
CThe communication by a friend or other party that an offer had been withdrawn is invalid and could not be treated as if it came from the person himself.
DPromises to keep an offer open until a certain time is a binding agreement as it is accepted by the other party.
B The statement made by Mr. Dhawan was nothing more than a promise; there was no binding contract formed. He had communicated an offer for buying his house to the complainant and this offer can be revoked any time before there is acceptance.
The question is tricky and therefore try to solve it carefully on the basis of Principle-2. The statement made by Mr. Dhawan was nothing more than a promise; there was no binding contract formed. He had communicated an offer for buying his house to the complainant and this offer can be revoked any time before there is acceptance.
Question 7
Factual Situation: MXM Co. is a building contractor who entered into an agreement with Star Heights Housing Association to refurbish a block of 27 flats. This contract was subject to a liquidated damages clause if they did not complete the contract on time. The MXM Co. engaged Hasan to do the carpentry work for an agreed price of Z Rs. 20,000. After six months of commencing the work, Hasan realised he had priced the job too low and would be unable to complete at the originally agreed price. He approached MXM Co. who recognised that the price was particularly low and was concerned about completing the contract on time. MXM Co. agreed to make additional payments to Hasan in return for his promise to carry out his existing obligations. MXM Co. agreed to pay Hasan an additional Rs. 575 per flat. Hasan continued work on the flats for a further period of 6 weeks but only received an additional Rs. 5,000. He then ran out of money and refused to continue unless payment was made. MXM Co. engaged another carpenter to complete the contract and refused to pay Hasan any further sums. Hasan sued for payment under the original agreement and the subsequent agreement. MXM Co. argued that the agreement to make additional payments was unenforceable as Hasan has not provided any consideration to make this agreement a valid contract. Decide.
AThe agreement to pay extra was unenforceable as Hasan had provided no consideration as he was already under an existing contractual duty to complete the work.
BConsideration was provided by Hasan in the form of conferring a benefit on the MXM Co. by helping them to avoid the penalty clause. Therefore, MXM Co. was liable to make the extra payments promised.
CThere was no consideration provided by Hasan as to avoid the penalty clause was the main object of the contract. Therefore, MXM Co. was not liable to make the extra payments promised.
DMXM Co. is liable to pay compensation to Hasan as they have committed a breach of contract by employing another carpenter.
B Consideration was provided by Hasan in the form of conferring a benefit on the MXM Co. by helping them to avoid the penalty clause. Therefore, MXM Co. was liable to make the extra payments promised.
Consideration was provided by Hasan in the form of conferring a benefit on the MXM Co. by helping them to avoid the penalty clause. Therefore, MXM Co. was liable to make the extra payments promised.
Question 8
Factual Situation: Bournville ran a sales promotion whereby if persons sent in 3 chocolate bar wrappers and a postal order for Rs. 100 they would be sent a record. Big Beats owned the copyright in one of the records offered and disputed the right of Bournville to offer the records and sought an injunction to prevent the sale of the records which normally retailed at Rs. 1,000. Under the Copyright Act, retailers are protected from breach of copyright if they gave notice to the copyright holders of the ordinary retail selling price and paid them 6.25% of this. Bournville gave notice stating the ordinary selling price was Rs. 100 and three chocolate bar wrappers. The issue is whether the chocolate bar wrappers formed part of the consideration?
AThe wrappers were a mere token or condition of sale and not consideration.
BThe wrappers did form part of the consideration for the sale of records despite the fact that they had no intrinsic economic value in themselves.
CThe wrappers did not form part of the consideration for the sale of records as they had no intrinsic economic value in themselves.
DThere was consideration for the sale of records in the form of postal order for Rs. 100.
B The wrappers did form part of the consideration for the sale of records despite the fact that they had no intrinsic economic value in themselves.
Yes, chocolate bar wrappers formed part of valid consideration for the sale of records despite the fact that they had no intrinsic economic value in themselves but it is valuable I the eyes of law.
Question 9
Factual Situation: Tejas drove his car to a car park named Super Car Park (SCP). Outside the car park, the prices were displayed and a notice stated cars were parked at the owner’s risk. An automatic ticket vending machine provided a ticket, a barrier was raised and Tejas parked his car. In small print on the ticket it was stated that the ticket is issued subject to conditions displayed on the premises. On a pillar opposite to the machine was a notice stating the owners would not be liable for any injuries occurring on their premises. Tejas met with an accident and sought damages from SCP. SCP denied any liability on the basis of the exclusion clause which was mentioned in the notice on the pillar. Whether there is an offer and acceptance of the exclusion clause?
AThere is a valid contract between Tejas and SCP as SCP had taken reasonable steps to bring exclusion clause to Tejas's attention at the time of making the contract.
BThe contract was made when Tejas received the ticket and parked his car. The ticket amounted to a contractual document which effectively referred to the terms which were clearly visible on the premises.
CThe machine itself constituted the offer. The acceptance was by putting the money into the machine. The ticket was dispensed after the acceptance took place and therefore the exclusion clause was not incorporated into the contract.
DThe machine itself constituted the offer. The acceptance was by putting the money into the machine and acceptance of the offer mean acceptance of all the terms of the offer and hence SCP is not liable.
B The contract was made when Tejas received the ticket and parked his car. The ticket amounted to a contractual document which effectively referred to the terms which were clearly visible on the premises.
The contract was made when Tejas received the ticket and parked his car. The ticket amounted to a contractual document which effectively referred to the terms which were clearly visible on the premises. As per principle-2, when the person to whom the offer is made signifies his consent thereto, the proposal is said to be accepted and the parties are at consensus ad idem regarding the terms of the agreement.
Question 10
Factual Situation: The plaintiffs offered to provide delivery of a machine tool for a price of Rs. 75,535. The delivery of the tool was set for 10 months, with the condition that orders only qualified as accepted once the terms in the quotation were met and prevailed over any of the buyer’s terms. The buyer responded to the offer with their own terms and conditions, which did not include the ’price variation clause’ listed in the seller’s terms. This included a response section which required a signature and to be returned in order to accept the order. The sellers returned this response slip with a cover letter signaling that delivery would be in accordance with their original quotation. The tool was ready for delivery but the buyers could not accept delivery, for which the sellers increased the price which was in line with their initial terms. This was denied by the buyer and an action was brought by the seller to claim the cost of delay and interest. Was a contract made with or without a price variation clause?
AThe buyer’s order was not an acceptance of the initial offer from the seller but a counter-offer which the sellers had accepted by returning the signature section of the buyer’s letter and so the contract was completed without the price variation clause and therefore the seller could not increase the cost of the tool.
BThe buyer’s order was an acceptance of the initial offer from the seller and so the contract was completed with the price variation clause and therefore the seller can increase the cost of the tool.
CThe contract was made with price variation clause due to the condition that orders only qualified as accepted once the terms in the quotation were met and prevailed over any of the buyer’s terms.
DThe contract between the buyer and seller is not valid as both the parties are not agreeing to the same thing in the same sense.
A The buyer’s order was not an acceptance of the initial offer from the seller but a counter-offer which the sellers had accepted by returning the signature section of the buyer’s letter and so the contract was completed without the price variation clause and therefore the seller could not increase the cost of the tool.
The buyer’s order was not an acceptance of the initial offer from the seller but a counter-offer which the sellers had accepted by returning the signature section of the buyer’s letter and so the contract was completed without the price variation clause and therefore the seller could not increase the cost of the tool.
Question 11
Legal Principle:
1. 'Misrepresentation’ means and includes -the positive assertion, in a manner not warranted by the information of the person making it, of that which is not true, though he believes it to be true; any breach of duty which, without an intent to deceive, gains an advantage of the person committing it, or any one claiming under him, by misleading another to his prejudice, or to the prejudice of any one claiming under him; causing, however innocently, a party to an agreement, to make a mistake as to the substance of the thing which is the subject of the agreement.
2. The tort of negligent misstatement is defined as an inaccurate statement made honestly but carelessly usually in the form of advice given by a party with special skill/knowledge to a party that doesn’t possess this skill or knowledge.
Factual Situation: The plaintiff, Mr. Madan, entered into a tenancy agreement with the defendant, Esso Petroleum, in respect of a petrol station owned by the latter. During the course of the negotiation of the agreement, ’expert’ advisers employed by the defendant had provided an estimate of the sales which the petrol station could expect which was based on inaccurate information and consequently was significantly inflated. The value of the rent on the agreement had been calculated based on this inflated figure. As a result, it was impossible for the plaintiff to operate the petrol station profitably. Whether the plaintiff could have any action for negligent misrepresentation ?
AThe contract could not be held void for misrepresentation as the defendants presented the inflated figure as an estimate rather than as a hard fact.
BThe defendant has no obligation to disclose as the parties contracting should obtain the necessary information themselves without relying upon the other party.
CAs the defendant had taken it upon themselves to employ experts for the purpose of providing an estimate of sales, they owed a duty of care to the plaintiff to ensure that this was done on the basis of accurate information. Hence, the plaintiff can recover the losses which he had suffered as a result of the defendant's negligent misstatement.
DBoth (a) and (c)
D Both (a) and (c)
Firstly, the contract could not be held void for misrepresentation as the defendants presented the inflated figure as an estimate rather than as a hard fact and secondly, as the defendant had taken it upon themselves to employ experts for the purpose of providing an estimate of sales, they owed a duty of care to the plaintiff to ensure that this was done on the basis of accurate information. Hence, the plaintiff can recover the losses which he had suffered as a result of the defendant's negligent misstatement.
Question 12
Factual Situation: Amar worked for an iron works, Luxmi Mills & Co. Ltd. operating a remotely controlled crane, Amar galvanized items by dipping them into a large tank of molten metal. In order to protect its crane operators, whose controls were located just a few feet from the tank, Luxmi Mills erected a low wall around the tank and also provided a sheet of corrugated iron that crane operators placed between themselves and the wall. The operators were not facing the tank while operating the crane. Thus, they could not see the operation of the crane and therefore relied upon signals from another worker located farther from the tank. Many other galvanizers at the time situated their operators in enclosed, windowed spaces from which they could safely see and perform their work. Luxmi Mills eventually adopted that practice as well. One day, Amar was working on the crane. At one point, he either turned toward the tank or leaned out to see the worker giving him instructions, thereby placing his head outside the iron sheet. A spray of molten metal burned Amar’s lip. When it failed to heal and began to ulcerate, he consulted a doctor who diagnosed the wound as cancerous. Amar ultimately died from the spread of cancer after three years. His widow sued Luxmi Mills for negligence. Whether the employers would be liable for the full extent of the burn and cancer that had developed as a result?
AThe employers are liable for all of the consequences of their negligence; thus, liable for the employee’s death. His predisposition to cancer did not matter, nor did the results of the injury. The question of liability was, whether the defendant could reasonably foresee the injury.
BThe employers are not liable because the duty of care towards Amar was not breached by them as they were using the same practices which were used by other companies at that time.
CThe employers are not liable because Amar suffered injury due to his own negligence in stepping out of the protective shield.
DThe employers are liable for burns and not for the death which happened due to Amar’s cancerous condition which could not have been known to the employers.
D The employers are liable for burns and not for the death which happened due to Amar’s cancerous condition which could not have been known to the employers.
The question of liability was, whether the defendant could reasonably foresee the injury. The employers are liable for burns and not for the death which happened due to Amar’s cancerous condition which could not have been known to the employers. As per principle-2, the test of liability requires that the harm must be a reasonably foreseeable result of the defendant’s conduct, a relationship of proximity must exist and it must be fair, just and reasonable to impose liability.
Question 13
Factual Situation: A 13-year-old boy fell from a tree. He went to a hospital where his hip was examined, but an incorrect diagnosis was made. After 5 days it was found that he was suffering from avascular necrosis. This was more advanced and serious than if it had been spotted straight away. Despite receiving treatment, it was determined that he had suffered from a muscular condition (avascular necrosis) which left the boy with a permanent disability and further left a strong probability that he would develop severe osteoarthritis later in life. The expert medical testimony indicated that had his fractured hip been identified on his initial hospital visit, there was a 25% chance of his condition having been successfully treated. He is claiming compensation for the negligence of hospital. Whether the hospital’s negligence on his initial visit had caused his injury?
ANo, because there are very less chances that correct diagnosis and treatment would have prevented the disability from occurring.
BWhere there are a number of possible causes, the claimant must still prove the defendant’s breach of duty caused the harm or was a material contribution.
CYes, because there are some chances that correct diagnosis and treatment would have prevented the disability from occurring.
DBoth (a) and (b)
D Both (a) and (b)
Hospital cannot be held responsible because, there are very less chances that correct diagnosis and treatment would have prevented the disability from occurring. Also, where there are a number of possible causes, the claimant must still prove the defendant’s breach of duty caused the harm or was a material contribution.
Question 14
Legal Principle: Vicarious liability is when employers are held liable for the torts committed by their employees during the course of employment.
Factual Situation: New Vision School opened a boarding house(Shivaji House) for boys in the year 2000 for the students having behavioural and emotional difficulties. The claimants in the instant case had resided there between 2000 to 2003, being aged 12 to 15 during that time, under the care of a warden, who was in charge of maintaining discipline and the running of the house. The warden lived in the House, with his disabled wife, and together they were the only two members of staff in the House. His duties were ensuring order, in making sure the children went to bed, went to school, engaged in evening activities, and supervising other staff. It had been alleged by some of the boys that the warden had sexually abused them, including inappropriate advances and taking trips alone with them. A criminal investigation took place some ten years later, resulting in the warden being sentenced to seven years imprisonment. Following this, the victims brought an action for personal injury against the employers, alleging that they were vicariously liable. Whether the employers of the warden may be held vicariously liable for their employee’s intentional sexual abuse of school boys placed under his care?
ANo, vicarious liability could only arise when the employee is acting during the course of his employment and for his employer’s benefit.
BNo, the employers cannot be made liable for acts which are not authorised by them.
CYes, there was a sufficient connection between the work that the warden was employed to do and the abuse that he committed to render it within the scope of employment. The abuse was committed at the time, premises and during the course of the warden’s care of the boys.
DYes, because the employers should be made liable in cases of sexual abuse of differently abled children.
C Yes, there was a sufficient connection between the work that the warden was employed to do and the abuse that he committed to render it within the scope of employment. The abuse was committed at the time, premises and during the course of the warden’s care of the boys.
Yes, there was a sufficient connection between the work that the warden was employed to do and the abuse that he committed to render it within the scope of employment. The abuse was committed at the time, premises and during the course of the warden’s care of the boys.
Question 15
In 2017, Special Leave Petition for re-investigation in the Mahatma Gandhi murder case was filed by___________.
AAmrendra Sharan
BPankaj K. Phadnis
CTushar Gandhi
DRaju Ramachandran
B Pankaj K. Phadnis
The petition was filed by Mumbai-based Pankaj Phadnis, co-founder of Abhinav Bharat, who suggested a foreign conspiracy involving ‘Force 136’, the presence of a second assassin and a ‘fourth bullet’ fired at the Mahatma on January 30, 1948.
Question 16
Who is the first Indian woman to be elected as the Judge of the International Tribunal for the Law of Sea?
ADr. Neeru Chadha
BJustice Gita Mittal
CVijaya Lakshmi Pandit
DDr. Menaka Guruswamy
A Dr. Neeru Chadha
Indian lawyer Dr Neeru Chadha will be the first Indian woman to be a judge at the International Tribunal law of the Sea (ITlOS).
Question 17
Which of the following river(s) is/are declared as a legal entity by an Act of Parliament ?
AGanga
BWhanganui
CYamuna
DAll of the above
B Whanganui
Whanganui River, located in the north island of New Zealand, was the first river in the world got this distinction. The only difference is that in New Zealand, it was Parliament that gave the special status to Whanganui River while in India the legal status was conferred upon Ganga and Yamuna by Uttarakhand High Court.
Question 18
Which of the following lawyers approached the Supreme Court challenging the existing system of ‘designation of Senior Advocates' ?
AMeenakashi Lekhi
BVrinda Grover
CIndira Jaisingh
DMeenakshi Arora
C Indira Jaisingh
Indira Jaisingh approached the Supreme Court challenging the existing system of ‘designation of Senior Advocates'
Question 19
'Drunken Driving’ is punishable under _________.  
AIndian Penal Code
BMotor Vehicles Act
CRoad Safety Standards Act
DNational Highways Act
B Motor Vehicles Act
As per the Motor Vehicle Act, driving by a drunken person or by a person under the influence of drugs is punishable for the first offence with imprisonment for a term of upto six months and/or with fine which may extend to two thousand rupees.
Question 20
The Supreme Court on 12 December 2017, had directed that _______ special criminal courts, to be set up to exclusively deal with cases involving _____ should start functioning from March 1, 2018.
A12, MPs/MLAs
B12, Rape Accused
C24, child-sexual abuser
D24, Terrorism related offences
A 12, MPs/MLAs
The Supreme Court on 12 December 2017, had directed that 12 special criminal courts, to be set up to exclusively deal with cases involving MPs and MLAs should start functioning from March 1, 2018.
Question 21
Which State Government, in India, has recently sanctioned stipend for junior lawyers practicing in the courts ?
ADelhi
BPunjab
CKerala
DMaharashtra
C Kerala
Government of Kerala, sanctioned stipend for junior lawyers practicing in the courts.
Question 22
From the field of Law and Justice, who is awarded the Nari Shakti Puraskar 2018 on the International Women’s Day?
AGeeta Mittal
BSudha Bharadwaj
CFlavia Agnes
DIndira Jaisingh
A Geeta Mittal
Geeta Mittal awarded the Nari Shakti Puraskar 2018 on the International Women’s Day
Question 23
Recently, the Supreme Court allowed ______ euthanasia and right to give advance medical directives ______, stating that human beings have the right to die with dignity as part of fundamental right to life.
Aactive, dying will
Bpassive, living will
Cactive, living will
Dpassive, dying will
B passive, living will
Supreme Court allowed passive euthanasia and right to give advance medical directives living will, stating that human beings have the right to die with dignity as part of fundamental right to life.
Question 24
Local self-governance is an example of
Afederalism
Bdemocratic decentralisation
Cdirect democracy
Dadministrative delegation
B democratic decentralisation
Local self-governance is an example of democratic decentralisation.
Question 25
The institutional infrastructure under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, rests on certain pillars:
I. Insolvency Professionals
II. Information Utilities
III. Adjudication
IV. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
V. Asset Construction
Companies Correct code is :
AI, II and III
BII, III and IV
CI, II, III and IV
DAll of the above
C I, II, III and IV
The institutional infrastructure under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, rests on Insolvency Professionals, Information Utilities, Adjudication, The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India.
Question 26
In 2017, the Supreme Court held that right to privacy is protected under Article 21 of the Constitution of India in the context of ________
AState Surveillance
BPower of search & seizure
CHomosexuality
DIndian Biometric Identification Scheme
D Indian Biometric Identification Scheme
In 2017, the Supreme Court held that right to privacy is protected under Article 21 of the Constitution of India in the context of Indian Biometric Identification Scheme.
Question 27
The age of consent for sexual intercourse between a husband and wife has been made _____ from _______ years by the Supreme Court of India.
A18, 16
B16, 15
C21, 18
D18, 15
D 18, 15
The age of consent for sexual intercourse between a husband and wife has been made 18 from 15 years by the Supreme Court of India [Independent Thought vs Union of India 2017]
Question 28
An accused is entitled to statutory bail (default bail) if the police failed to file the charge-sheet ______ within of his arrest for the offence punishable with 'imprisonment up to 10 years’.
A30 days
B60 days
C90 days
D180 days
B 60 days
An accused is entitled to statutory bail (default bail) if the police failed to file the charge-sheet 60 within of his arrest for the offence punishable with 'imprisonment up to 10 years’.
Question 29
Nelson Mandela Rules deals with _______
AApartheid
BTruth and Reconciliation
CPrison Management
DGlobal Peace-making
C Prison Management
The Rules pertaining to Prison Management are known as the 'Nelson Mandela Rules' to honour the legacy of the late President of South Africa, who spent 27 years in prison in the course of his struggle for global human rights, equality, democracy and the promotion of a culture of peace'.
Question 30
The Lok Sabha passed the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriages) Bill 2017. Which of the following are true about it?
I. It declares instant triple talaq illegal and criminalizes it.
II. It makes declaration of talaq a bailable offence.
III. A husband declaring talaq can be imprisoned for up to two years along with a fine.
IV. It entitles Muslim woman against whom triple talaq has been declared to seek subsistence allowance from her husband for herself and for her dependent children.
AI and IV
BI, III and IV
CI, II and IV
DAll of the above
A I and IV
The Lok Sabha passed the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriages) Bill 2017, it declares instant triple talaq illegal and criminalizes it and entitles Muslim woman against whom triple talaq has been declared to seek subsistence allowance from her husband for herself and for her dependent children.
Question 31
In August 2017, the Union Ministry of Law & Justice in association with the National Legal Service Authority (NALSA) launched 'Tele-Law’ scheme in ______ to provide legal aid services to marginalised communities and citizens living in rural areas through digital technology.
AAndhra Pradesh
BBihar
CMadhya Pradesh
DRajasthan
B Bihar
In August 2017, the Union Ministry of Law & Justice in association with the National Legal Service Authority (NALSA) launched 'Tele-Law’ scheme in Bihar to provide legal aid services to marginalised communities and citizens living in rural areas through digital technology.
Question 32
In March 2018, the Supreme Court of India has held that there cannot be a stay of more than _______ on trial of ________
A6 months, civil and criminal cases
B6 months, criminal cases
C3 months, rape cases
D3 months, civil and criminal cases
A 6 months, civil and criminal cases
In March 2018, the Supreme Court of India has held that there cannot be a stay of more than 6 months on trial of civil and criminal cases.
Question 33
Which country has withdrawn from the International Criminal Court (ICC) citing reasons of international bias in March, 2018 ?
ABurundi
BRussia
CSouth Africa
DPhilippines
D Philippines
Philippines has announced to withdraw from International Criminal Court (ICC) citing reason of international bias and held that ICC was being utilised as a political tool against it. It will make Philippines only second country to withdraw from the Rome statute, following Burundi in 2017. South Africa attempted to leave in 2016, but its withdrawal was revoked by UN....
Question 34
Regarding foreign law firms, the Supreme Court held
I. That foreign law firms can set up offices in India.
II. Foreign lawyers can practice in India.
III. Foreign lawyers can visit India for a temporary period on a fly in and fly out basis.
IV. Foreign lawyers can give advice to their clients on Indian laws.
AI, II, III
BII, IV
CIII
DIII, IV
C III
In Bar Council of India vs A.K. Balaji, 2018, the Supreme Court held that Foreign lawyers can visit India for a temporary period on a fly in and fly out basis.
Question 35
Which is the world's first country to enact a law under which companies and government agencies that employ at least 25 people will be fined if they can’t prove they pay men and women equally ?
AIceland
BIndia
CSweden
DFrance
A Iceland
Iceland, is the world's first country to enact a law under which companies and government agencies that employ at least 25 people will be fined if they can’t prove they pay men and women equally.

Section: REASONING

Question 1
Who is fourth to the right of Bunty ?
AEsha
BHema
CGazal
DDeepak
A Esha
From Deepak is between Akash and Esha only and Fiza is second to the left of Esha we get the arrangement as shown below:-

Bunty is between Chandan and Ghazal only. There is only one position where we can place Bunty to fulfill this condition as is shown below.

Now, the remaining position has to be filled by Hema. From – Fiza is between Gazal and Hema only we get the final positions of Chandan and Gazal.

Esha is fourth to the right of Bunty.
 
Question 2
In which of the following pairs, second person is to the immediate left of the first person ?
ADeepak, Akash
BBunty, Gazal
CBunty, Chandan
DHema, Esha
C Bunty, Chandan
From Deepak is between Akash and Esha only and Fiza is second to the left of Esha we get the arrangement as shown below:-

Bunty is between Chandan and Ghazal only. There is only one position where we can place Bunty to fulfill this condition as is shown below.

Now, the remaining position has to be filled by Hema. From – Fiza is between Gazal and Hema only we get the final positions of Chandan and Gazal.

Chandan is to the immediate left of Bunty.
 
Question 3
Which of the following is definitely true ?
AChandan is to the immediate right of Bunty.
BEsha is to the immediate left of Chandan.
CDeepak is second to the left of Hema.
DAkash is second to the right of Esha.
D Akash is second to the right of Esha.
From Deepak is between Akash and Esha only and Fiza is second to the left of Esha we get the arrangement as shown below:-

Bunty is between Chandan and Ghazal only. There is only one position where we can place Bunty to fulfill this condition as is shown below.

Now, the remaining position has to be filled by Hema. From – Fiza is between Gazal and Hema only we get the final positions of Chandan and Gazal.

Akash is second to the right of Esha.
 
Question 4
Who is sitting in the immediate left of Esha ?
AFiza
BHema
CGazal
DDeepak
B Hema
From Deepak is between Akash and Esha only and Fiza is second to the left of Esha we get the arrangement as shown below:-

Bunty is between Chandan and Ghazal only. There is only one position where we can place Bunty to fulfill this condition as is shown below.

Now, the remaining position has to be filled by Hema. From – Fiza is between Gazal and Hema only we get the final positions of Chandan and Gazal.

Hema is sitting to the immediate left of Esha.
 
Question 5
Who is third to the right of Gazal ?
AFiza
BAkash
CHema
DEsha
D Esha
From Deepak is between Akash and Esha only and Fiza is second to the left of Esha we get the arrangement as shown below:-

Bunty is between Chandan and Ghazal only. There is only one position where we can place Bunty to fulfill this condition as is shown below.

Now, the remaining position has to be filled by Hema. From – Fiza is between Gazal and Hema only we get the final positions of Chandan and Gazal.

Esha is third to the right of Gazal.
 
Question 6
Harsh moves 15 kms in East direction, then turns towards North and moves 4 kms. From there he turns West and travels 12 kms. How far and in which direction is he from his starting point ?
A5 kms, North-East
B5 kms, South-West
C27 kms, North-East
D19 kms, North-East
A 5 kms, North-East

Distance = AC
AC2 = AB2 + BC2 = 32 + 42; AC2 = 25; AC = 5.
Point C is north east from the starting point. Hence, the correct answer is “a”.
Question 7
Pratham travels 10 metres in North direction, he tums right and travels 20 metres. Again, he tums towards right and travels 25 metres. Then, he turns towards left and travels 15 metres. In which direction and how far is Pratham from his original position ?
A35 metres, East
B38. 07 metres, South-East
C25. 08 metres, West
D25 metres, North-East
B 38. 07 metres, South-East

In this case there is no need to calculate the distance as we can get the correct answer from the direction from his original position itself. Pratham is south east from his original position and only one choice “b” has this. So no need to calculate distance in this question.
Distance = AC.
AC2 = AB2 + AC2; = (25 – 10)2 + (20 +15)2 = 1450; AC2 = 1450; AC = 38.07.
Question 8
Which one of the following could be an accurate matching of film buffs to films?
AAamna: the Steven Spielberg film; Archana: the Satyajit Ray film; Anuja: the Satyajit Ray film
BAnu: the Steven Spielberg film; Aahana: the Steven Spielberg film; Anuja: the Steven Spielbergfilm
CAnu: the Stanley Kubrick film; Aahana: the Stanley Kubrick film; Aashna: the Stanley Kubrickfilm
DArchana: the Stanley Kubrick film; Aahana: the Steven Spielberg film; Anuja: the Satyajit Ray film
B Anu: the Steven Spielberg film; Aahana: the Steven Spielberg film; Anuja: the Steven Spielbergfilm
It is given that exactly twice as many of the film buffs see the Stanley Kubrick film as the Satyajit Ray film.
This leaves us with two scenarios –
Case 1: Satyajit Ray – 1; Stanley Kubrick – 2 and Steven Spielberg - 4
Case 2: Satyajit Ray – 2; Stanley Kubrick – 4 and Steven Spielberg - 1
For such caselets (we call them Panel) it is extremely important that you get the diagrammatic representation of the information. A diagram that could help in this case would look something like this:-

Also, try to make as many inferences as possible: - For example if we take case 1

We can see that to fulfill this condition Anuja and Aashna will have to watch Steven Spielberg’s film. If they watch Satyajit Ray’s movie the count there will go to 2 (not allowed under this case) and if they watch Stanley Kubrick’s movie the count will go to 3 again not allowed under this case.
Let us look at the other case:-

Here it may seem that Anuja + Aashna can watch either Satyajit Ray’s movie or Stanley Kubrick’s movie. But this is not so simple. If they watch Satyajit Ray’s movie then we will not be able to satisfy clue “ii” and “iii” as these have to be allocated either Stanley or Steven’s movie and only one could see Steven Spielberg’s movie. So Anuja + Aashna will watch Stanley Kubrick’s movie in this case.
So our diagram and deductions will look like this:-

This particular question is best solved using elimination technique.
Choice “a” is eliminated we know Anuja cannot watch Satyajit Ray’s movie. Also Anuja and Aashna have to be together.
Choice “b” is the correct answer.
Choice “c” is eliminated as this choice takes the total count of people watching Stanley Kubrick movie to 5 which is not possible. As per the choice Anu, Aahana And Aashna; Anuja will also have to watch this movie since Aashna watches this movie and clue number “v” states that Aradhana sees Stanley Kubrik film. This takes the count to 5 which is not possible.
Choice “d” is eliminated as we are not able to make any of the two possible cases.
Question 9
Each of the following must be false EXCEPT
AAahana is the only film buff to see the Satyajit Ray film.
BAahana is the only film buff to see Stanley Kubrick film.
CAashna is the only film buff to see the Steven Spielberg film.
DExactly three film buffs see the Stanley Kubrick film.
A Aahana is the only film buff to see the Satyajit Ray film.
It is given that exactly twice as many of the film buffs see the Stanley Kubrick film as the Satyajit Ray film.
This leaves us with two scenarios –
Case 1: Satyajit Ray – 1; Stanley Kubrick – 2 and Steven Spielberg - 4
Case 2: Satyajit Ray – 2; Stanley Kubrick – 4 and Steven Spielberg - 1
For such caselets (we call them Panel) it is extremely important that you get the diagrammatic representation of the information. A diagram that could help in this case would look something like this:-

Also, try to make as many inferences as possible: - For example if we take case 1

We can see that to fulfill this condition Anuja and Aashna will have to watch Steven Spielberg’s film. If they watch Satyajit Ray’s movie the count there will go to 2 (not allowed under this case) and if they watch Stanley Kubrick’s movie the count will go to 3 again not allowed under this case.
Let us look at the other case:-

Here it may seem that Anuja + Aashna can watch either Satyajit Ray’s movie or Stanley Kubrick’s movie. But this is not so simple. If they watch Satyajit Ray’s movie then we will not be able to satisfy clue “ii” and “iii” as these have to be allocated either Stanley or Steven’s movie and only one could see Steven Spielberg’s movie. So Anuja + Aashna will watch Stanley Kubrick’s movie in this case.
So our diagram and deductions will look like this:-

Choice “b” is incorrect as minimum number of people (Case 1) who watch Stanley Kubrick’s movie is 2. Also if Aashna watches any movie than Anuja also watches the same movie. 
Choice “c” is eliminated as if Aashna watches any movie Anuja also watches the same movie. 
Choice “d” is eliminated as we know that Anuja cannot watch Satyajit Ray’s movie.
Question 10
Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the film buffs who do Not see the Stanley Kubrick film ?
AAamna, Aahana
BAamna, Archana, Aahana
CAamna, Anu, Aashna
DAamna, Anuja, Aashna
B Aamna, Archana, Aahana
It is given that exactly twice as many of the film buffs see the Stanley Kubrick film as the Satyajit Ray film.
This leaves us with two scenarios –
Case 1: Satyajit Ray – 1; Stanley Kubrick – 2 and Steven Spielberg - 4
Case 2: Satyajit Ray – 2; Stanley Kubrick – 4 and Steven Spielberg - 1
For such caselets (we call them Panel) it is extremely important that you get the diagrammatic representation of the information. A diagram that could help in this case would look something like this:-

Also, try to make as many inferences as possible: - For example if we take case 1

We can see that to fulfill this condition Anuja and Aashna will have to watch Steven Spielberg’s film. If they watch Satyajit Ray’s movie the count there will go to 2 (not allowed under this case) and if they watch Stanley Kubrick’s movie the count will go to 3 again not allowed under this case.
Let us look at the other case:-

Here it may seem that Anuja + Aashna can watch either Satyajit Ray’s movie or Stanley Kubrick’s movie. But this is not so simple. If they watch Satyajit Ray’s movie then we will not be able to satisfy clue “ii” and “iii” as these have to be allocated either Stanley or Steven’s movie and only one could see Steven Spielberg’s movie. So Anuja + Aashna will watch Stanley Kubrick’s movie in this case.
So our diagram and deductions will look like this:-

In case 1 the list should have 5 people who did not watch Stanley Kubrick’s movie and in case 2 the list should have 3 such people. So choice “a” is easily eliminated. Now all the remaining choices give us a list of 3 people. This implies that these choices refer to case 2.

Choices “c” and “d” are out as Aashna must watch Stanley Kubrick’s movie. So the correct answer is choice “b”.
Question 11
If exactly one film buff sees the Steven Spielberg film, then which one of the following must be true ?
AAamna sees the Satyajit Ray film.
BAnu sees the Satyajit Ray film.
CAnuja sees the Stanley Kubrick film.
DArchana sees the Satyajit Ray film.
C Anuja sees the Stanley Kubrick film.
It is given that exactly twice as many of the film buffs see the Stanley Kubrick film as the Satyajit Ray film.
This leaves us with two scenarios –
Case 1: Satyajit Ray – 1; Stanley Kubrick – 2 and Steven Spielberg - 4
Case 2: Satyajit Ray – 2; Stanley Kubrick – 4 and Steven Spielberg - 1
For such caselets (we call them Panel) it is extremely important that you get the diagrammatic representation of the information. A diagram that could help in this case would look something like this:-

Also, try to make as many inferences as possible: - For example if we take case 1

We can see that to fulfill this condition Anuja and Aashna will have to watch Steven Spielberg’s film. If they watch Satyajit Ray’s movie the count there will go to 2 (not allowed under this case) and if they watch Stanley Kubrick’s movie the count will go to 3 again not allowed under this case.
Let us look at the other case:-

Here it may seem that Anuja + Aashna can watch either Satyajit Ray’s movie or Stanley Kubrick’s movie. But this is not so simple. If they watch Satyajit Ray’s movie then we will not be able to satisfy clue “ii” and “iii” as these have to be allocated either Stanley or Steven’s movie and only one could see Steven Spielberg’s movie. So Anuja + Aashna will watch Stanley Kubrick’s movie in this case.
So our diagram and deductions will look like this:-

If exactly one film buff sees the Steven Spielberg film it refers to case 2

So we know that Anuja watches Stanley Kubrick’s movie so “c” is the correct choice.
Question 12
Which of the following must be true ?
AArchana, Aradhana and Anuja do not all see the same film.
BArchana sees a different film than Anuja does.
CAamna sees a different film than Archana does.
DAamna, Aradhana and Anu do not all see the same film.
D Aamna, Aradhana and Anu do not all see the same film.
It is given that exactly twice as many of the film buffs see the Stanley Kubrick film as the Satyajit Ray film.
This leaves us with two scenarios –
Case 1: Satyajit Ray – 1; Stanley Kubrick – 2 and Steven Spielberg - 4
Case 2: Satyajit Ray – 2; Stanley Kubrick – 4 and Steven Spielberg - 1
For such caselets (we call them Panel) it is extremely important that you get the diagrammatic representation of the information. A diagram that could help in this case would look something like this:-

Also, try to make as many inferences as possible: - For example if we take case 1

We can see that to fulfill this condition Anuja and Aashna will have to watch Steven Spielberg’s film. If they watch Satyajit Ray’s movie the count there will go to 2 (not allowed under this case) and if they watch Stanley Kubrick’s movie the count will go to 3 again not allowed under this case.
Let us look at the other case:-

Here it may seem that Anuja + Aashna can watch either Satyajit Ray’s movie or Stanley Kubrick’s movie. But this is not so simple. If they watch Satyajit Ray’s movie then we will not be able to satisfy clue “ii” and “iii” as these have to be allocated either Stanley or Steven’s movie and only one could see Steven Spielberg’s movie. So Anuja + Aashna will watch Stanley Kubrick’s movie in this case.
So our diagram and deductions will look like this:-

If we look at both the cases we’ll see that choice “d” is correct.

Aradhana watches Stanley Kubrick’s movie so Aamna, Aradhana and Anu cannot watch the same movie in case 1 as exactly 2 people can watch Stanley’s movie in case 1.
Aamna, Aradhana and Anu cannot watch Stanley’s movie in case 2 as well as Anuja and Aashna also watch this movie in case 2 and this will take the total count to 5.
Question 13
If Anuja sees the same film as Aamna does, then which one of the following could be true ?
AAahana sees the Stanley Kubrick film.
BAashna sees the Satyajit Ray film.
CArchana sees the Stanley Kubrick film.
DAamna sees the Satyajit Ray film.
C Archana sees the Stanley Kubrick film.
It is given that exactly twice as many of the film buffs see the Stanley Kubrick film as the Satyajit Ray film.
This leaves us with two scenarios –
Case 1: Satyajit Ray – 1; Stanley Kubrick – 2 and Steven Spielberg - 4
Case 2: Satyajit Ray – 2; Stanley Kubrick – 4 and Steven Spielberg - 1
For such caselets (we call them Panel) it is extremely important that you get the diagrammatic representation of the information. A diagram that could help in this case would look something like this:-

Also, try to make as many inferences as possible: - For example if we take case 1

We can see that to fulfill this condition Anuja and Aashna will have to watch Steven Spielberg’s film. If they watch Satyajit Ray’s movie the count there will go to 2 (not allowed under this case) and if they watch Stanley Kubrick’s movie the count will go to 3 again not allowed under this case.
Let us look at the other case:-

Here it may seem that Anuja + Aashna can watch either Satyajit Ray’s movie or Stanley Kubrick’s movie. But this is not so simple. If they watch Satyajit Ray’s movie then we will not be able to satisfy clue “ii” and “iii” as these have to be allocated either Stanley or Steven’s movie and only one could see Steven Spielberg’s movie. So Anuja + Aashna will watch Stanley Kubrick’s movie in this case.
So our diagram and deductions will look like this:-

AILET key says “c” is the correct answer, however, even “a” could be correct.
Aamna watches either Satyajit Ray or Steven Spielberg film. If Anuja sees the same film as Aamna then it has to be a Steven Spielberg film and it has to be case 1.

On this case, choice “c” is possible.

However, even “a” is possible.
Question 14
Each of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the film buffs who see the Satyajit Ray film EXCEPT
AAamna, Archana
BAnuja, Aashna
CAnu, Aahana
DAamna, Anu
B Anuja, Aashna
It is given that exactly twice as many of the film buffs see the Stanley Kubrick film as the Satyajit Ray film.
This leaves us with two scenarios –
Case 1: Satyajit Ray – 1; Stanley Kubrick – 2 and Steven Spielberg - 4
Case 2: Satyajit Ray – 2; Stanley Kubrick – 4 and Steven Spielberg - 1
For such caselets (we call them Panel) it is extremely important that you get the diagrammatic representation of the information. A diagram that could help in this case would look something like this:-

Also, try to make as many inferences as possible: - For example if we take case 1

We can see that to fulfill this condition Anuja and Aashna will have to watch Steven Spielberg’s film. If they watch Satyajit Ray’s movie the count there will go to 2 (not allowed under this case) and if they watch Stanley Kubrick’s movie the count will go to 3 again not allowed under this case.
Let us look at the other case:-

Here it may seem that Anuja + Aashna can watch either Satyajit Ray’s movie or Stanley Kubrick’s movie. But this is not so simple. If they watch Satyajit Ray’s movie then we will not be able to satisfy clue “ii” and “iii” as these have to be allocated either Stanley or Steven’s movie and only one could see Steven Spielberg’s movie. So Anuja + Aashna will watch Stanley Kubrick’s movie in this case.
So our diagram and deductions will look like this:-

Anuja and Aashna can only watch either Steven Spielberg or Stanley Kubrick’s movie.
Question 15
Assertion (S) — Bulb filament is made of titanium.
Reason (R) — The filament should have low melting point.
Aif both 'S' & 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'S'
Bif 'S' is true but 'R' is false
Cif 'S' is false and 'R' is true
Dif both 'S' &'R' are false
D if both 'S' &'R' are false
Both the statements are false. A filament is made up of a substance having high melting point (like tungsten) because a bulb lights up by heating the filament. The heated filament is the source of light, and if the melting point of filament's substance is low, it may melt.
Question 16
Assertion (S) — Moon cannot be used as a satellite for communication.
Reason (R) — Moon does not move in the equatorial plane of the Earth.
Aif both ‘S’ & ’R’ are true and 'R’ is the correct explanation of ‘S’.
Bif ’S’ is true but ’R' is false
Cif 'S’ is false and ’R’ is true
Dif both 'S’ &’R’ are false
A if both ‘S’ & ’R’ are true and 'R’ is the correct explanation of ‘S’.
Assertion is correct and the reason given is the correct reason for not using moon as a satellite for communication.
Question 17
Being obliged to break confidentiality in a mediator-client relationship is always a direct result of the law.
ADefinitely True
BDefinitely False
CData Inadequate
DProbably False
B Definitely False
In the passage it is given “this obligation….and it may occur as a result of their employment contract or of the law”. So only law is not the only reason why the mediator may be obliged to break confidentiality.
Question 18
When a client reports their involvement in a serious crime, their Mediators is legally obliged to report this ?
ADefinitely True
BProbably True
CDefinitely False
DData Inadequate
C Definitely False
“There are other circumstances where breaching confidentiality may be considered legitimate, for example, in the case of serious crime or suspected child abuse” – from this we can conclude that if a mediator breaks confidentiality in this case the breach may be considered legitimate – even this is not certain. We can definitely not conclude from this information that the mediators are obliged to report such cases.
Question 19
Mediators have some flexibility regarding what they deem serious enough to lead them to breach confidentiality.
ADefinitely True
BDefinitely False
CProbably False
DData Inadequate
A Definitely True
The passage has given us instances on breaches that are (information that relates to anti-national activities) and may be (information relating to serious crime or suspected child abuse) considered legitimate. The passage also states that “Mediation service providers and mediators practicing independently have their own boundaries” – from this we can conclude that mediators do have some flexibility regarding what they do deem serious enough to lead them to breach confidentiality.
Question 20
Most Mediators agree with the conditions that the law places on them relating to breaching client confidentiality.
ADefinitely True
BDefinitely False
CProbably False
DData Inadequate
D Data Inadequate
How mediators react or respond to the conditions imposed on them is not mentioned in the passage and so the data is not sufficient to make any conclusion on this.
Question 21
If a mediator breaches his client’s confidence about a serious issue without first informing their client of their intentions, they are breaking the law.
ADefinitely True
BProbably False
CDefinitely False
DData Inadequate
C Definitely False
In the first paragraph it is stated “however, in situations where the factors under consideration are particularly urgent, it is accepted that this cannot always be the case”. From this we can easily say that this cannot be concluded.
Question 22
Find out the wrong number in the series.

1, 2, 8, 33, 148, 760, 4626
A760
B148
C4626
D2
A 760
The logic is –
Second term = First term x 1 + 12; 1 x 1 + 12 = 1 + 1 = 2
Third term = Second term x 2 + 22; 2 x 2 + 22 = 4 + 4 = 8
Fourth term = Third term x 3 + 32 = 8 x 3 + 32 = 24 + 9 = 33
Fifth term = Fourth term x 4 + 42 = 33 x 4 + 42 = 132 + 16 = 148
Sixth term = Fifth term x 5 + 52; 148 x 5 + 52 = 740 + 25 = 765. However in the series the value given is 760, so this value is the odd one out.
Seventh term will be Sixth term x 6 + 62 = 4590 + 36 = 4626.
Question 23
Find out the wrong number in the series.

888, 440, 216, 104, 48, 22, 6
A440
B216
C22
D6
C 22
The logic is –
Starting difference is of -448. So the second term is first term – 448 = 888 – 448 = 440.
In the next term the difference is half of the first difference, that is 448/2 = 224. So the third term = Second term – second difference = 440 – 224 = 216.
Third difference will be Second difference/2 = 216 /2 = 112. Fourth term = Third term – third difference = 216 – 112 = 104.
Fourth difference = Third difference/2 = 104 /2 = 56. Fifth term = Fourth term – fourth difference = 104 – 56 = 48.
Fifth difference = Fourth difference/2 = 56 /2 = 28. Sixth term = Fifth term – fifth difference = 48 – 28 = 20. However in the series the value given is 22, so this value is the odd one out.
Sixth difference = Fifth difference/2 = 28/2 = 14. Final term = Sixth term – sixth difference = 20 – 14 = 6.
Question 24
Find the one that does not belong to the group.
A1 : 0
B7 : 50
C6 : 35
D3 : 8
B 7 : 50
The logic is first term2 – 1 = 12 – 1 = 0, 62 – 1 = 35, 32 – 1 = 8. Only “b” is the odd one out as the value should have been 72 – 1 = 48.
Question 25
Find the one that does not belong to the group.
ALO
BHS
CDW
DJR
D JR
In all other pairs of letters first and second letters are equidistant from the beginning and end in alphabetical series.
So in LO, A + 11 = L and Z – 11 = O. In HS, A + 7 = H and Z – 7 = S. In DW, A + 3 = D and Z – 3 = W. But this is not the case with JR, A + 9 = J and Z – 8 = R. Hence JR is the odd one out.
Question 26
If in a certain code language ’BETTER’ is written as 'EHWQBO’, then how will ‘LAWYER’ be written in that language ?
AODZVBO
BOBZVDO
CDOZVBO
DOVZOBD
A ODZVBO
The logic is simple – First three letters are changed by adding 3 to each letter and the next three letters are changed by subtracting 3 from each letter.
So BET becomes B + 3 = E, E + 3 = H and T + 3 = W.
The second half TER becomes T – 3 = Q, E – 3 = B and R – 3 = O. So BETTER becomes EHWQBO. Applying the same logic LAWYER will become –
LAW = L + 3 = O, A + 3 = D and W + 3 = Z. We don’t need to solve any further as only choice “a” has these three values. So we know the answer is “a”.
YER will become Y – 3 = V, E – 3 = B and R – 3 = O. So LAWYER will become ODZVBO.
Question 27
If in a certain code language 'PERFECT' is written as ‘116’, then how will ‘DIVORCE’ be written in that code ?
A111
B120
C113
D117
C 113
The rank of letter A in the series is 1 and from the reverse it is 26. Similarly the rank of B is 2 and taken backwards it is 25. This question is solved taking the reverse rank of the letters and then adding them up. By this logic PERFECT could be converted to 11, 22, 9, 21, 22, 24, 7. We add them up and we get 116. Applying same logic to DIVORCE - the numbers we will get are 23, 18, 5, 12, 9, 24, 22. When we add these numbers we get a total of 113.
Question 28
Which is the largest fraction ?
A3/4
B7/8
C4/5
D7/9
B 7/8
3/4 = 0.75, 7/8 = 0.875, 4/5 = 0.8 and 7/9 = 0.77. So the largest fraction is 7/8.
Question 29
How many degrees are there between clock hands at 3. 15 ?
A0
B5.5
C7.5
D10
C 7.5
Speed of hours hand = 0.5 degree per minute. Time travelled by hour hand = 3 hours + 15 minutes ; 195 minutes. Distance travelled by hour hand = 195 x 0.5 = 97.5 degrees.
For the minute hand every hour is irrelevant as after every hour the minute hand comes back to the starting point. So for the minute hand relevant time is 15 minutes.
Speed of minute hand is 6 degrees per minute. Distance travelled by minute hand = 15 x 6 = 90 degrees.
So the degrees or distance between the two hands at 3:15 = 97.5 – 90 = 7.5 degrees. Refer to Eptitude’s theory on clocks and calendar.
Question 30
Read the following short passages and choose the best answer to the questions that follow each passage.

Modern science is built on the process of posing hypotheses and testing them against observations — in essence, attempting to show that the hypotheses are incorrect. ! Nothing brings more recognition than overthrowing conventional wisdom. It is accordingly not surprising that some scientists are sceptical of the widely accepted predictions of global warming. What is instead remarkable is that with hundreds of researchers striving to make breakthroughs in climatology, very few find evidence that global warming is unlikely.

The information above provides the most support for which one of the following statements?
AMost researchers in climatology have substantial motive to find evidence that would discredit the global warming hypothesis.
BThere is evidence that conclusively shows that the global warming hypothesis is true.
CMost scientists who are reluctant to accept the global warming hypothesis are not acting in accordance with the accepted standards of scientific debate.
DResearch in global warming is primarily driven by a desire for recognition in the scientific community.
A Most researchers in climatology have substantial motive to find evidence that would discredit the global warming hypothesis.
The passage states that the researchers have the motivation to discredit the conventional wisdom as in doing so they get recognition and fame.
Option a states that “Most researchers in climatology have substantial motive to find evidence that would discredit the global warming hypothesis” and it goes with the essence of the passage.
Question 31
Read the following short passages and choose the best answer to the questions that follow each passage.

The indigenous people of Tago are clearly related to the indigenous people of Taminia, but were separated from them when the land bridge between Taminia and Tago disappeared approximately 10,000 years ago. Two thousand years after the disappearance of the land bridge, however, there were major differences between the culture and technology of the indigenous Tagoians and those of the indigenous Taminians. The indigenous Tagoian unlike their Taminian relatives, had no domesticated dogs, fishing nets, polished stone tools, or hunting implements like the boomerang and the spear-thrower.

Each of the following, if true, would contribute to an explanation of differences described above EXCEPT
AAlthough the technological and cultural innovations were developed in Taminia more than 10,000 years ago, they were developed by groups in Northern Taminia with whom the indigenous Tagoian had no contact prior to the disappearance of the land bridge.
BDevices such as the spear-thrower and the boomerang were developed by the indigenous Tagoian more than 10,000 years ago.
CAfter the disappearance of the land bridge the indigenous Tagoian simply abandoned certain practices and technologies that they had originally shared with their Taminian relatives.
DIndigenous people of Taminia developed hunting implements like boomerang and the spear-thrower after the disappearance of the land bridge.
B Devices such as the spear-thrower and the boomerang were developed by the indigenous Tagoian more than 10,000 years ago.
The incorrect choice is to be the one which offers no explanation as to the differences between the indigenous people of Tago and Taminia. Choice “b” actually contradicts the information given in the passage. If they were able to develop these devices 10,000 years ago why do they don’t have them now. It does not explains the difference between the two people.
Question 32
Read the following short passages and choose the best answer to the questions that follow each passage.

Arbitrator: The shipping manager admits that he decided to close the old facility on October 14 and to schedule the new facility’s opening for October 17, the following Monday. But he also claims that he is not responsible for the business that was lost due to new facility’s failing to open as scheduled. He blames the contractor for not finishing on time, but he too, is to blame, for he was aware of the contractor’s typical delays and should have planned for this contingency.

Which one of the following principles underlies the arbitrator’s argument?
AA manager should see to it that contractors do their job promptly.
BA manager should be held responsible for mistakes by those whom the manager directly supervises.
CA manager should take foreseeable problems into account when making decisions.
DA manager, and only a manager, should be held responsible for a project’s failure.
C A manager should take foreseeable problems into account when making decisions.
The Arbitrator holds the manager “also” responsible as the manager was aware of the contractor’s delay. Choice “c” covers this aspect which is the main aspect of the arbitrator’s argument.
Question 33
Read the following short passages and choose the best answer to the questions that follow each passage.

Anita: Television programs and movies that depict violence among teenagers are extremely popular. Given how influential these media are, we have good reason to believe that these depictions cause young people to engage in violent behaviour. Hence, depictions of violence among teenagers should be prohibited from movies and television programs.
Amrita: But you are recommending nothing short of censorship! Besides which, your claim that television and movie depictions of violence causes violence is mistaken: violence among young people predates movies and television by centuries.

Amrita’s attempted refutation of Anita’s argument is vulnerable to criticism on which one of the following grounds ?
AIt confuses a subjective judgment of private moral permissibility with an objective description of social fact.
BIt presupposes that an unpopular policy cannot possibly achieve its intended purpose.
CIt cite purported historical facts that cannot possibly be verified.
DIt rules out something as a cause of a current phenomenon solely on the ground that the phenomenon used to occur without that thing.
D It rules out something as a cause of a current phenomenon solely on the ground that the phenomenon used to occur without that thing.
Amrita rules out violence in television programs and movies as the current cause of increasing violence among teenagers on the premise that teenage violence was present pre television programs. This is a faulty line of reasoning as a new cause could emerge for a problem or a new cause can increase the intensity of a problem. Choice “d” covers this aspect and is the correct answer.
Question 34
Read the following short passages and choose the best answer to the questions that follow each passage.

Most people feel that they are being confused by the information from the broadcast news. This could be the effect of the information’s being delivered too quickly or of its being poorly organized. Analysis of the information content of a typical broadcast news story shows that news stories are far lower in information density than the maximum information density with which most people can cope at any one point of time. So, the information in typical broadcast news stories is poorly organised.

Which one of the following is an assumption that the argument requires in order for its conclusion to be properly drawn ?
AIt is not the number of broadcast news stories to which a person is exposed that is the source of the feeling of confusion.
BPoor organisation of information in a news story makes it impossible to understand the information.
CBeing exposed to more broadcast news stories within a given day would help a person to better understand the news.
DMost people can cope with a very high information density.
A It is not the number of broadcast news stories to which a person is exposed that is the source of the feeling of confusion.
The author states that information per show is way below that what can confuse most people but it is quite possible that within a time slot more number of shows are shown which cumulatively can confuse the viewers. This is the assumption that the author has made and so choice “a” is the best answer.
Question 35
Read the following short passages and choose the best answer to the questions that follow each passage.

Cafe’s Coffee Emporium stocks only two decaffeinated coffees: English Roast and German Mocha. Ratan only serves decaffeinated coffee, and the coffee he served after dinner last night was far too smooth and mellow to have been English Roast. So, if Ratan still gets all his coffee from Cafe’s, what he served last night was German Mocha.

The argument above is most similar in its logical structure to which one of the following ?
ASunny wants to take three friends to the beach. His mother owns both a sedan and a convertible. The convertible can accommodate four people. Although the sedan has a more powerful engine, if Sunny borrows a vehicle from his mother, he will borrow the convertible.
BRuchi can either take a two-week vacation in July or wait until October and take a three-week vacation. The trail she had planned to hike requires three weeks to complete but is closed by October, so if Ruchi takes a vacation, it will not be the one she had planned.
CIf Tamanna does not fire her assistant, her staff will rebel and her department’s efficiency will decline. Losing her assistant would also reduce its efficiency, so, if no alternative solution can be found, Tamanna’s department will become less efficient.
DWikro, Inc. has offered Arshit a choice between a job in sales and a job in research. Arshit would like to work at Wikro but he would never take a job in sales when another job is available, so if he accepts one of these jobs, it will be the one in research.
D Wikro, Inc. has offered Arshit a choice between a job in sales and a job in research. Arshit would like to work at Wikro but he would never take a job in sales when another job is available, so if he accepts one of these jobs, it will be the one in research.
The passage follows a simple logic – final act and two choices A and B so if the act happened and not A then has to be B. For example I can be fit if I either go to a Gym or I jog daily. I am fit but I didn’t go to gym. This means I would have gone jogging daily. The same pattern is given in choice “d” – the act is accepting the job – two choices are sales job or research job. Arshit will never take a sales jon so he must have taken a research job.

Section: MATHEMATICS

Question 1
Two cards are drawn together from a pack of 52 cards. The probability that one is a club and one is a diamond, is
A13/102
B46/104
C12/21
D13/200
A 13/102
Probability = Favourable cases / Total cases
Now, total ways of drawing 2 cards from a deck = 52C2 = 52 x 51/2 = 26 x 51 = 1326
Also, favourable ways = Ways of drawing 1 club (out of 13 clubs) and 1 diamond (out of 13 diamonds) = 13C1 x 13C1 = 13 x 13 = 169
Hence required probability = 169/1326 = 13/102
Question 2
Sanju has two watches with a 12-hour cycle. One of these watches, gains one minute a day and the other loses 1 and 1/2 minutes per day. If Sanju sets both the watches at the correct time, how long will it be before they again show the correct time together ?
A482 days
B290 days
C1440 days
D730 days
C 1440 days
Time gained by watch-1 = 1 minute in 1 day
Hence to show correct time again, it needs to gain 12 hours i.e. 12 x 60 = 720 minutes
Hence time needed = 720 days
But this means that watch-1 will show correct time at a multiple of 720 days (720, 1440, 2160...)
Also, time lost by watch-2 = 1.5 minutes in 1 day
Hence this watch needs to lose 12 hours or 720 minutes.
So time needed = 720/1.5 = 480 days
i.e. this watch shows correct time at multiple of 480 days (480, 960, 1440...)
Hence, both watches will show correct time at LCM of these intervals
i.e. LCM (720, 480) = 1440 days
Question 3
To display 500 Wax Statuettes in a Museum, it is required to construct a big rectangular hall, allowing 22.5 m3 space per statuette. The height of the hall is to be kept at 7.5 m, while the total inner surface area of the walls must be 1,200 sq.m. Then the length and breadth of the hall, respectively, are
A62 m and 22m
B50 m and 30 m
C46 m and 35 m
D40 m and 32 m
B 50 m and 30 m
Space for 500 statuettes = 500 x 22.5 = 11250 m3
Let L and B be the dimensions of the hall.
Then, Area of 4 walls = 2LH + 2BH = 2H(L + B) = 15(L + B) = 1200
i.e. L + B = 80      ... (1)
Now volume of the room = space needed = 11250
i.e. LBH = 11250
i.e. LB = 11250/7.5 = 1500              ... (2)
The only option that satisfies both conditions is option b.
(In fact statement 1 alone is enough to eliminate the other options!)
Question 4
The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular Jogging Park is 3 : 2. If Ashish cycling along the boundary of the park at the speed of 12 km/hr completes one round in 8 minutes, then the area of the park (in sq. m) is
A3,07,200 sq. m
B30,720 sq. m
C1,53,600 sq. m
D15,360 sq. m
C 1,53,600 sq. m
Let the length and breadth of the park be 3D and 2D respectively.
Then its perimeter = 2(3D + 2D) = 10D
Now Ashish covers one round of the perimeter in 8 minutes
Now, Distance = Speed x Time
i.e. 10D = 12 x (8/60)
i.e. D = 8/50 = 4/25 km or 4/25 x 1000 = 160 metres
Hence L = 480 m and B = 320 m
i.e. Area = 480 x 320 = 153600 sq.m
Question 5
A certain sum of money amounts to Rs. 1,008 in 2 years and to Rs. 1,164 in 3 1/2 years. Find the sum and the rate of interest.
ARs. 900 and 12 %
BRs. 800 and 12 %
CRs. 700 and 13 %
DRs. 800 and 13 %
D Rs. 800 and 13 %
Since nothing is mentioned we will assume ‘Simple Interest’.
Amount after 2 years = Rs. 1008
Amount after 3.5 years = Rs. 1164
Hence interest for the last 1.5 years = 1164 – 1008 = Rs. 156
i.e. SI for 1.5 years = 156
So SI for 1 year = 156/1.5 = Rs. 104
i.e. SI for 2 years = 2 x 104 = 208
Now, Amount after 2 years = P + SI = 1008
i.e. P + 208 = 1008 or P = Rs. 800
Now, SI for 1 year = 104 = 800 x R x 1/100
i.e. R = 104 x 1/8 = 13%
Question 6
Azhar can row 9.333 kmph in still waters and finds that it takes him thrice as much time to row up than as to row down the same distance in the river. The speed of the current of the river is
A3. 333 km/hr
B3.111 km/hr
C4.666 km/hr
D4.5 km/hr
C 4.666 km/hr
Given, boat’s speed B = 9.333 km/hr
Also, Time to travel D km upstream = 3 x Time to travel D km downstream
So, D/(B – S) = 3 x D/(B + S)
i.e. (B + S) = 3(B – S)
i.e. 2B = 4S or S = B/2 = 9.333/2 = 4.666 km/hr
Question 7
A wheel that has 6 cogs is meshed with a larger wheel of 14 cogs. When the smaller wheel has made 21 revolutions, then the number of revolutions made by the larger wheel is
A7
B9
C14
D42
B 9
When smaller wheel makes 1 revolution, it moves 6 cogs.
So when smaller wheel makes 21 revolutions, it moves 21 x 6 cogs.
Now since the two wheels are meshed together, the big wheel will also move 21 x 6 cogs
When larger wheel makes 1 revolution, it moves 14 cogs.
Hence number of revolutions made by larger wheel = (21 x 6)/14 = 9
Question 8
In a University, for each Rs. 200 spent by the Cultural Committee, Debating Committee spends Rs. 20 and for every Rs. 400 spent by the Debating Committee, the Student Welfare Committee spends Rs. 150. The triple ratio of the money spent by the Cultural Committee to the money spent by the Debating Committee to the money spent by the Student Welfare Committee can be expressed as
A80 : 8 : 3
B60 : 8 : 3
C40 : 4 : 3
D20 : 4 : 3
A 80 : 8 : 3
Using given information,
Ratio of cultural committee spend to debating committee spend = 200 : 20 = 10 : 1
Ratio of debating committee spend to student welfare committee spend = 400 : 150 = 8 : 3
Now to combine we can rewrite the first ratio as 80 : 8
Hence the triple ratio will be 80 : 8 : 3
Question 9
A wooden almirah is sold at a certain price. By selling it at 2/3 of that price one loses 10%. Find the profit per cent at the original price.
A15%
B25%
C35%
D45%
C 35%
Let usual SP be Rs. S
Then, at 2S/3 the man makes 10% loss
i.e. 2S/3 = CP – 10% of CP = 9/10 x CP
i.e. CP = 2S/3 x 10/9 = 20S/27
Hence usual profit = S – 20S/27 = 7S/27
Hence % profit = profit/CP x 100 = (7S/27)/(20S/27) x 100 = 35%
Question 10
The ratio between the present ages of Anu and Balbir is 5 : 3, respectively. The ratio between Anu’s age 4 years ago and Balbir’s 4 years hence is 1: 1. What is the ratio between Anu’s age 4 years hence and Balbir's age 4 years ago ?
A4 : 1
B2 : 4
C3 : 2
D3 : 1
D 3 : 1
Let present ages of Anu and Balbir be 5n and 3n.
Then Anu’s age 4 years ago = 5n – 4
And Balbir’s age 4 years hence = 3n + 4
Since this ratio is 1 : 1, the ages must be equal
i.e. 5n – 4 = 3n + 4 or n = 4
So present ages are 20 and 12 years respectively.
So Anu’s age 4 years hence = 24 years
And, Balbir’s age 4 years ago = 8 years
i.e. required ratio = 24 : 8 or 3 : 1
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