Section: ENGLISH
Question 1
Which one of the following best describes the content of the passage as a whole?
C A contrast between the types of reasons embodied in the United States and English legal systems
Choice “a” is eliminated as the passage does not analyze the similarities between the legal systems of the two countries. Choice “b” is out because of “re-evaluation” and choice “d” is eliminated because the passage has not mentioned as to how these two distinct visons have shaped the development of legal reasoning. The passage talks about how profoundly the legal systems of England and the United States differ and hence “c” is the correct choice.
Question 2
It can be inferred from the passage that English judges would like to find the veterans' group discussed in the second paragraph guilty of violating the statute because
D the veterans failed to comply with the stipulated requirements of the statute
English judges will follow formal reasoning which as per the passage is a system of rules. An act is considered as violating a statute if it violates the rules defined in the statute. This makes choice “d” the correct choice.
Question 3
From the discussion of Wills in the third paragraph it can be inferred that substantive arguments as to the validity of a Will might be considered under which one of the following circumstances?
D A judge rules that the law can be interpreted to allow for a verbal witness to a Will in a case involving a medical emergency
Under the formal reasoning rules defined under the statute are of prime importance. Choice “d” offers a case wherein a rule specifies a circumstance where a will could be considered valid even without a written witness to it. Hence, choice “d” is the correct answer.
Question 4
Which one of the following best describes the function of the last paragraph of the passage?
A It presents the consequences of extreme interpretations of the two types of legal reasons discussed by the author
“Formal reasoning in England has led to wooden interpretations…” – “On the other hand, freewheeling substantive reasoning in the United States has resulted in ….”. Clearly the author is stating the consequences of the use of two systems in the two countries. Hence, “a” is the correct answer.
Question 5
The author of the passage suggests that in English law a substantive interpretation of a legal rule might be warranted under which one of the following circumstances?
C The legality of the rule is in question and its enforcement is open to judicial interpretation
Refer to line 6 of third paragraph – “Once the legal rule – that a Will…..and the legality of the rule is not in question…”. Choice “c” brings in an element of doubt on the legality of a rule and hence substantive reasons might be warranted.
Question 6
The author of the passage makes use of all of the following in presenting the discussion of the English and the United States legal systems except
D A chronology of historical development
The author has used comparison and contrast when he states that legal systems are superficially similar, they differ profoundly in their approaches….Refer to line 1 of paragraph 1. Generalization is used when it is stated that “Most judges in the United States would find ….” Refer to second paragraph last sentence.
Question 7
In the following questions, a group of sentences about a single topic are given. One or more of the sentence(s) is/are grammatically incorrect. You have to identify the incorrect sentence(s).
I) It began with acquisitions in information technology and related services sector.
II) In pharmaceuticals, Wockhardt has bought C.P. Pharma of the United Kingdom for $ 10.85 million.
III) Tata Tea has taken over Tetley of the UK, the world's biggest tea bag maker, for $ 430 million.
IV) With the processes, it has become the world's second largest tea company.
I) It began with acquisitions in information technology and related services sector.
II) In pharmaceuticals, Wockhardt has bought C.P. Pharma of the United Kingdom for $ 10.85 million.
III) Tata Tea has taken over Tetley of the UK, the world's biggest tea bag maker, for $ 430 million.
IV) With the processes, it has become the world's second largest tea company.
B IV only
The phrase ‘With the processes’ is incorrect. The correct phrase should be “In the process” which would then connect this statement to the previous ones.
Question 8
In the following questions, a group of sentences about a single topic are given. One or more of the sentence(s) is/are grammatically incorrect. You have to identify the incorrect sentence(s).
I) There are two main reasons for that predatory mood.
II) Having established a domestic presence, the component makers are now looking for an international presence.
III) Second, having improved their productivity, quality and reliability, Indian companies feel more confident about spreading their wings abroad.
IV) Various other factors are being attributed to this Indian penchant for the takeover game in all sectors.
I) There are two main reasons for that predatory mood.
II) Having established a domestic presence, the component makers are now looking for an international presence.
III) Second, having improved their productivity, quality and reliability, Indian companies feel more confident about spreading their wings abroad.
IV) Various other factors are being attributed to this Indian penchant for the takeover game in all sectors.
A I only
The first sentence has the demonstrative pronoun ‘that’ to describe ‘predatory mood’. However when all the sentences talk about the same thing, it would be proximate to the discussion. Hence the correct pronoun should be ‘this’.
Question 9
In the following questions, a group of sentences about a single topic are given. One or more of the sentence(s) is/are grammatically incorrect. You have to identify the incorrect sentence(s).
I) Moving one by one step away from the expected with the graphics and photography can also create reader's interest.
II) Try using a conceptual image or photo to highlight your main message versus very first thing to come to mind when thinking about your product or services.
III) Another form of contrast is in the actual design.
IV) An unusual fold in a brochure or direct mail piece can add excitement.
I) Moving one by one step away from the expected with the graphics and photography can also create reader's interest.
II) Try using a conceptual image or photo to highlight your main message versus very first thing to come to mind when thinking about your product or services.
III) Another form of contrast is in the actual design.
IV) An unusual fold in a brochure or direct mail piece can add excitement.
A I and II
Here the first statement uses the incorrect expression ‘one by one step away’. Instead this phrase should be ‘step by step away’ which would indicate a gradual movement away.
In the second statement there is more than one error. Firstly the indefinite article ‘a’ is seemingly common for both the nouns ‘conceptual image’ and ‘photo’ which gives the impression that both these nouns refer to the same thing. Instead we must repeat the article for both the nouns as they are two separate things. Additionally, the definite article ‘the’ is also needed before the noun phrase ‘very first thing’. Lastly, the noun phrase ‘to come to mind’ should be corrected to make the descriptive clause ‘that comes to mind’.
In the second statement there is more than one error. Firstly the indefinite article ‘a’ is seemingly common for both the nouns ‘conceptual image’ and ‘photo’ which gives the impression that both these nouns refer to the same thing. Instead we must repeat the article for both the nouns as they are two separate things. Additionally, the definite article ‘the’ is also needed before the noun phrase ‘very first thing’. Lastly, the noun phrase ‘to come to mind’ should be corrected to make the descriptive clause ‘that comes to mind’.
Question 10
In the following questions, a group of sentences about a single topic are given. One or more of the sentence(s) is/are grammatically incorrect. You have to identify the incorrect sentence(s).
I) The typeface that you choose for your print project is an important piece of the foremost overall design process.
II) First, narrow down your choice by selecting the tone you want to present.
III) Typefaces can convey personality.
IV) For instance, if you are in the banking industry you might choose a classic serif font, such as Garamond, to convey dependability.
I) The typeface that you choose for your print project is an important piece of the foremost overall design process.
II) First, narrow down your choice by selecting the tone you want to present.
III) Typefaces can convey personality.
IV) For instance, if you are in the banking industry you might choose a classic serif font, such as Garamond, to convey dependability.
A I only
The adjective ‘foremost’ is redundant here as the adjective ‘overall’ has already been used to describe the ‘design process’. Besides the sentence has already described ‘the typeface’ as ‘an important piece’ so there is no need to repeat this (with a stronger tone) with ‘foremost’.
Question 11
In the following questions, a group of sentences about a single topic are given. One or more of the sentence(s) is/are grammatically incorrect. You have to identify the incorrect sentence(s).
I) Readability is crucial.
II) Be sure of the font we choose is legible and logical.
III) With all of the newest and interesting typefaces available today, it is tempting to pick one that you think looks "cool".
IV) This can work if you are going for an edgy look that will appeal to a young audience, but your copy still needs to be easily understood.
I) Readability is crucial.
II) Be sure of the font we choose is legible and logical.
III) With all of the newest and interesting typefaces available today, it is tempting to pick one that you think looks "cool".
IV) This can work if you are going for an edgy look that will appeal to a young audience, but your copy still needs to be easily understood.
D II and III
The second statement should be ‘Be sure that the font we choose is legible and logical’. This usage then creates two clauses that are connected by the conjunction ‘that’.
The third statement has the incorrect superlative adjective ‘newest’ in describing ‘typefaces’ as the other adjective being used ‘interesting’ is in the positive form. The correct word should be ‘new’ which ensures that rule of parallelism is followed.
The third statement has the incorrect superlative adjective ‘newest’ in describing ‘typefaces’ as the other adjective being used ‘interesting’ is in the positive form. The correct word should be ‘new’ which ensures that rule of parallelism is followed.
Question 12
In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
Aberration
Aberration
A Deviation
The meaning of ‘aberration’ is ‘deviation from the normal’.
Question 13
In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
Potpourri
Potpourri
A Medley
‘Potourri’ is a ‘a mixture or medley of things’.
Question 14
In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
Imposture
Imposture
D Deception
‘Imposture’ is ‘an instance of pretending to be someone else in order to deceive others’ i.e. it comes closest to ‘deception’.
Question 15
In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
Parley
Parley
A Discuss
To ‘parley’ is to ‘hold a conference with the opposing side to discuss terms’ i.e. it comes closest to ‘discuss’.
Question 16
In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
Protean
Protean
D Cautious
‘Protean’ means ‘tending or able to change frequently or easily’ i.e. best choice for its opposite would be ‘dull’.
Question 17
In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
Predilection
Predilection
A Antipathy
‘Predilection’ is ‘a preference or special liking for something’, hence its opposite would be ‘Antipathy.
Question 18
In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
Impalpable
Impalpable
C Tangible
‘Impalpable’ is ‘unable to be felt by touch’, so its opposite would be ‘tangible’.
Question 19
In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
Parochial
Parochial
C Cosmopolitan
‘Parochial’ is ‘having a limited or narrow outlook or scope’, hence its opposite would be ‘cosmopolitan’.
Question 20
Fill in the blanks.
The event passed ______ without any untoward incident.
The event passed ______ without any untoward incident.
C off
‘Pass off’ is the best usage here and means ‘to happen or be concluded in a specified, usually satisfactory way’. On the other hand, ‘pass of’ is incorrect, while ‘pass on’ means to ‘give further’ and ‘pass away’ means ‘to die’ – both of which are incorrect here.
Question 21
Fill in the blanks.
Please give me _____ to drink.
Please give me _____ to drink.
B a little water
When only ‘little’ is used with something it means ‘negligible or almost none’, hence option a will be incorrect. ‘any’ water seems to suggest many types of water and any of them would do, which is clearly incorrect. ‘some water’, even though grammatically correct, is not as appropriate here as ‘a little water’.
Question 22
Fill in the blanks.
Her true feelings manifested themselves in her sarcastic asides; only then was her _______ revealed.
Her true feelings manifested themselves in her sarcastic asides; only then was her _______ revealed.
B bitterness
The hint here is in the first statement which talks about ‘her real feelings’ as being ‘sarcastic’ so we can deduce that the description must be negative. Hence ‘sweetness’ and ‘charm’ can be eliminated. Also, while ‘anxiety’ is a negative quality, the appropriate word is ‘bitterness’.
Question 23
Fill in the blanks.
The tapeworm is an example of _______ organism, one that lives within or on another creature, deriving some or all its nutrients from its host.
The tapeworm is an example of _______ organism, one that lives within or on another creature, deriving some or all its nutrients from its host.
B a parasite
From the given options, the best choice is option b as the description is that of a parasite. However, the correct word should have been ‘parasitic’ as it would then be an adjective instead of a noun.
Question 24
Fill in the blanks.
While the disease is in a latent state it is almost impossible to determine its existence by ____
While the disease is in a latent state it is almost impossible to determine its existence by ____
A observation
We want a word that agrees with ‘impossible to determine’ which means that the word must not be a comprehensive method of evaluation. Note that in the options, ‘analysis’, ‘examination’ and ‘estimate’ are all techniques for evaluation of given data, but ‘observation’ is merely taking note of the data or characteristics of the disease. Hence it best fits the context of this sentence.
Question 25
Fill in the blanks.
Language, culture and personality may be considered independently of each other in thought, but they are ______ in fact.
Language, culture and personality may be considered independently of each other in thought, but they are ______ in fact.
B inseparable
In this sentence, the adverb used ‘independently’ is in fact incorrect as the phrase should be ‘independent of each other’ and not ‘independently of each other’.
The conjunction ‘but’ indicates that the word in the blank should be opposite in meaning to ‘independent of each other’. The best choice in this context is ‘inseparable’ which indicates that they must be considered together only.
The conjunction ‘but’ indicates that the word in the blank should be opposite in meaning to ‘independent of each other’. The best choice in this context is ‘inseparable’ which indicates that they must be considered together only.
Question 26
Fill in the blanks.
The country is ushering ______ a new era.
The country is ushering ______ a new era.
B in
The correct phrasal verb is ‘ushering in’ which means ‘to serve to bring into being’.
Question 27
Fill in the blanks.
He is a traitor ______ the country.
He is a traitor ______ the country.
B to
It is proper to say that somebody is a traitor ‘to’ somebody else.
Question 28
Fill in the blanks.
There is no culture in the world _______ absolutely pure.
There is no culture in the world _______ absolutely pure.
C that is
A phrase that begins with ‘that’ usually forms a modifier and hence must describe it in a clause. Here the clause ‘that is absolutely pure’ is the only correct clause.
Question 29
Fill in the blanks.
He led me ______ the green lawn to the palatial building.
He led me ______ the green lawn to the palatial building.
B across
Clearly the meaning is that the ‘lawn’ was crossed to get to the building. Hence the appropriate choice would be ‘across’.
Question 30
Fill in the blanks.
The lease of our premises has ______ and we have to vacate it.
The lease of our premises has ______ and we have to vacate it.
A run out
When something ‘runs out’ it has ‘finished or been sold out so that there is none left’. Clearly this is the case here. ‘run off’ means ‘to leave a place suddenly’, ‘run over’ means to ‘drive a vehicle over somebody else’ and ‘run down’ means ‘to hit with a vehicle or to criticize someone/something often unfairly. We can see that these options do not agree with the given context.
Question 31
Fill in the blanks.
His boss ______ an explanation of his conduct with his colleagues.
His boss ______ an explanation of his conduct with his colleagues.
C called for
To ‘call for’ something means to ‘need or require something’ and clearly that is appropriate here. To ‘call up’ means to ‘make a phone call’, to ‘call upon’ means to ‘pay a visit’ and to ‘call off’ something means to ‘cancel’ it. Clearly these phrasal verbs are out of context here.
Question 32
Fill in the blanks.
He ______ his departure for a week as his mother was not well.
He ______ his departure for a week as his mother was not well.
A put off
To ‘put something off’ means to ‘postpone or delay’ it. This is clearly appropriate here.
To ‘put up’ with something means to ‘tolerate or bear it. To ‘put out’ means to ‘cause inconvenience or trouble to someone’. To ‘put something aside’ means ‘to save something, usually money or time, for a special purpose’. Clearly these phrasal verbs do not make sense in this context.
To ‘put up’ with something means to ‘tolerate or bear it. To ‘put out’ means to ‘cause inconvenience or trouble to someone’. To ‘put something aside’ means ‘to save something, usually money or time, for a special purpose’. Clearly these phrasal verbs do not make sense in this context.
Question 33
In this section, each passage consists of five sentences. The first sentence is given in the beginning. The four sentences in each passage have been jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
S1 : A suicide bomber killed 18 people near a hospital of Baghdad, keeping violence on the boil after Iraq's landmark election and ahead of an important Shia religious ceremony.
P : The bomber drove his vehicle towards local government offices and a hospital in the town, but detonated it outside blast walls protecting buildings.
Q : Around 25 people were wounded in the attack, the second suicide car bombing in as many days.
R : "Looking at the partial result, it appears the Sistani list will have over 50% and Kurdish parties will come second," said a Sunni politician.
S : Meanwhile, the two electoral power houses representing Iraq's Shia and Kurdish communities are poised to clinch the country's two top jobs, with results from the landmark January 30 polls expected anytime.
The proper sequence should be
S1 : A suicide bomber killed 18 people near a hospital of Baghdad, keeping violence on the boil after Iraq's landmark election and ahead of an important Shia religious ceremony.
P : The bomber drove his vehicle towards local government offices and a hospital in the town, but detonated it outside blast walls protecting buildings.
Q : Around 25 people were wounded in the attack, the second suicide car bombing in as many days.
R : "Looking at the partial result, it appears the Sistani list will have over 50% and Kurdish parties will come second," said a Sunni politician.
S : Meanwhile, the two electoral power houses representing Iraq's Shia and Kurdish communities are poised to clinch the country's two top jobs, with results from the landmark January 30 polls expected anytime.
The proper sequence should be
C PQSR
The basic thing that a para jumble question checks is the ability of a student to find a logical connect between two sentences.
In this question there is a logical connect (extension of idea) between P and Q and S and R. Since the opening sentence introduces a suicide bomber, P would follow S1. So the correct sequence would be PQSR, which is choice “c”.
In this question there is a logical connect (extension of idea) between P and Q and S and R. Since the opening sentence introduces a suicide bomber, P would follow S1. So the correct sequence would be PQSR, which is choice “c”.
Question 34
In this section, each passage consists of five sentences. The first sentence is given in the beginning. The four sentences in each passage have been jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
S1 : It should be noted that Lenin, being the head of the government. held no official posts in the Party Central Committee, but presided over sessions of the Central Committee plenary meetings and also of the Political Bureau.
P : In performing his party duties, he was assisted by a secretary of the Central Committee, or the head of the Secretariat.
Q : Officially, such a post did not exist at the time, but in practice one of the secretaries was expected to
R : That being the case, Lenin not only heads the Council of People’s commissars, but was also the de facto leader of the Party’s Central Committee.
S : When Lenin’s health deteriorated, the question arose of strengthening the secretariat and an authoritative leader has to be found who could supervise Perth’s affairs in Lenin’s absence.
The proper sequence should be
S1 : It should be noted that Lenin, being the head of the government. held no official posts in the Party Central Committee, but presided over sessions of the Central Committee plenary meetings and also of the Political Bureau.
P : In performing his party duties, he was assisted by a secretary of the Central Committee, or the head of the Secretariat.
Q : Officially, such a post did not exist at the time, but in practice one of the secretaries was expected to
R : That being the case, Lenin not only heads the Council of People’s commissars, but was also the de facto leader of the Party’s Central Committee.
S : When Lenin’s health deteriorated, the question arose of strengthening the secretariat and an authoritative leader has to be found who could supervise Perth’s affairs in Lenin’s absence.
The proper sequence should be
D RPQS
The basic thing that a para jumble question checks is the ability of a student to find a logical connect between two sentences.
Question 35
In this section, each passage consists of five sentences. The first sentence is given in the beginning. The four sentences in each passage have been jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
S1 : There is nothing in the world fascinating than watching a child grow and develop.
P: At first you think of it as just a matter of growing bigger.
Q: Then, as the infant begins to do things, you may think of it as “learning tricks”.
R: In some ways, the development of each child retraces the whole history of the human race, physically and spiritually, step by step.
S: But, it’s really more complicated and full of meaning than that.
The proper sequence should be
S1 : There is nothing in the world fascinating than watching a child grow and develop.
P: At first you think of it as just a matter of growing bigger.
Q: Then, as the infant begins to do things, you may think of it as “learning tricks”.
R: In some ways, the development of each child retraces the whole history of the human race, physically and spiritually, step by step.
S: But, it’s really more complicated and full of meaning than that.
The proper sequence should be
A PQSR
The basic thing that a para jumble question checks is the ability of a student to find a logical connect between two sentences.
Section: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Question 1
The sun reaches its maximum angular distance from the equator at the
B solstice
Question 2
The difference in the duration of day and night increases as one move from
D Equator to poles
Question 3
When can one record the lowest temperature of air ?
A Just before sunrise
Question 4
What is the difference between a geyser and a hot spring ?
A Water is ejected explosively in a geyser
Question 5
Sher Shah is well-known for his administrative skill, especially his
B Land revenue system
Question 6
A monument resembling Taj Mahal was created by Aurangzeb in
B Aurangabad
Question 7
The maximum work in popularising female education in the nineteenth century was done by
A Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Question 8
The most learned ruler of the Delhi Sultanate who was well versed in various branches of learning including Astronomy, Mathematics and Medicine was
C Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
Question 9
Permanent Settlement was introduced to
B earn a fixed and regular revenue
Question 10
Who is, presently, the Director of the National Judicial Academy ?
B Dr. Balram K. Gupta
Question 11
Which of the following is/are listed among the Directive Principles in Part IV of the Constitution of India ?
I) Equal pay for equal work
II) Uniform Civil Code
III) Small family norm
IV) Education through mother tongue at primary level
I) Equal pay for equal work
II) Uniform Civil Code
III) Small family norm
IV) Education through mother tongue at primary level
B l and II
Question 12
Who decides whether a Member of Parliament is subject to any disqualification?
B Speaker
Question 13
The 9th Postal Zone of India covers
B Army Post Office
Question 14
Regarding No-Confidence Motion
B no grounds have to be set out for the motion
Question 15
Who is responsible for the elections
D Election Commission
Question 16
The term fiscal deficit means
C revenue receipts minus expenditure
Question 17
The functions of the Reserve Bank of India are
I) issuing all notes and coins
II) distributing all notes and coins
III) formulating monetary policy
IV) acting as agent of government in respect of India's membership of the IMF
I) issuing all notes and coins
II) distributing all notes and coins
III) formulating monetary policy
IV) acting as agent of government in respect of India's membership of the IMF
C II, III and IV
Question 18
What do you understand by Bear Raid ?
A An attempt to bring down the price of strong short selling
Question 19
The foreign exchange reserves of India include
D All of these
Question 20
Among the remedies of inflation, we cannot include
B lowering bank rate
Question 21
Which one of the following is the most effective carrier of communications ?
C Microwaves
Question 22
Which one of the following compounds is used as a sedative ?
A Potassium Bromide
Question 23
In a fire siren, a jet of air is directed against a series of evenly spaced holes in a rotating disc. As the disc speeds up, the tone
D increases in frequency
Question 24
After death, the
I) arteries are usually empty of blood
II) blood in arteries clots
III) veins are empty of blood
IV) veins are full of clots
I) arteries are usually empty of blood
II) blood in arteries clots
III) veins are empty of blood
IV) veins are full of clots
C I and IV
Question 25
A victim of a road accident is unconscious. Put in correct order the steps in First- Aid.
I) Treating for cardiac arrest
II) Treating for asphyxia
III) Treating for shock
IV) Arrest Haemorrhage
V) Cleanse and cover wounds
I) Treating for cardiac arrest
II) Treating for asphyxia
III) Treating for shock
IV) Arrest Haemorrhage
V) Cleanse and cover wounds
B II, I, IV, Ill, V
Question 26
Which one of the following international organisations does India disapprove of ?
B NATO
Question 27
Which space agency released surprising pictures of the remains of huge river which ran across Mars at some point of time on January 17, 2013 ?
B European Space Agency
Question 28
Name the Indian woman weight-lifter who in January 2013 won Maiden National Title in National Weightlifting Championship, 2013.
C Manpreet Kaur
Question 29
Which of the following Indian company got the top rank among Indian companies in Top 500 companies list of Fortune India ?
A Indian Oil Corporation
Question 30
The Report of Transparency International India released in December, 2012 places India at _________ rank among 176 nations of the basis of Corruption Percentage Index.
B 94th
Question 31
Who is crowned as Pond's Femina Ms. India, 2013?
C Navneet Kaur Dhillon
Question 32
Which Hindi film was awarded 60th National Film Award, 2013 for Best Feature Film
A Paan Singh Tomar
Question 33
Who is elected as the 266th Pope of the Roman Catholic Church at Rome In March, 2013?
D Francis
Question 34
Which country joined WTO in August 2012 ?
A Russia
Question 35
Which of the following are included in the definition of Sexual Harassment under the new Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention Prohibition and Redressal) Bill?
D All of the above
Section: LEGAL APTITUDE
Question 1
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: If a person brings anything dangerous on his land which may prove harmful if escapes, then that person must keep it at his peril. If a man fails to do so then he must be made responsible to all natural consequences.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A grows poisonous trees on his own land and lets the projection of the branches of his trees on the B's land. B's cattle die because of nibbling the poisonous leaves.
DECISION:
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: If a person brings anything dangerous on his land which may prove harmful if escapes, then that person must keep it at his peril. If a man fails to do so then he must be made responsible to all natural consequences.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A grows poisonous trees on his own land and lets the projection of the branches of his trees on the B's land. B's cattle die because of nibbling the poisonous leaves.
DECISION:
C A is liable to B because projection of branches with poisonous leaves amounts to escape
Since A allowed the projection of branches of trees into B's land he allowed the dangerous object to escape. Due to such escape it was a natural consequence that B's cattle died as it is reasonably foreseeable that a poisonous leaf can cause such damage. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).
Question 2
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Master/Principal is vicariously liable for the tort committed by an servant/agent, in the performance of his duties as an servant/agent.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A gave some cash and cheques to his friend B, who was an employee of the State Bank of India, to deposit the same in that Bank in the account of A. B misappropriated the amount. If A sues the Bank for damages, then the Bank is
DECISION:
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Master/Principal is vicariously liable for the tort committed by an servant/agent, in the performance of his duties as an servant/agent.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A gave some cash and cheques to his friend B, who was an employee of the State Bank of India, to deposit the same in that Bank in the account of A. B misappropriated the amount. If A sues the Bank for damages, then the Bank is
DECISION:
D Not liable because while committing the fraud, he was not acting as the agent or employee of the Bank
The principle states unequivocally that for the master to be liable for the wrongful acts of the servant, such acts should have been committed by the servant during the performance of his duties appointed by the master. B was not asked to transfer the money to the bank, by the bank. He was asked to do so by his friend. Therefore he was not acting in the capacity of an employee of the bank but he was acting in the capacity of a friend.
Question 3
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Master / Principal is vicariously liable for the tort committed by an servant / agent, in the performance of his duties as an servant / agent.
FACTUAL SITUATION: The plaintiff a bullion merchant was arrested by the police on a charge of purchasing stolen goods. Some of the gold and silver ornaments were seized from the plaintiff and were kept in the police station custody. The duty constable appropriated the gold ornaments and escaped to a foreign country. The plaintiff after being acquitted brought an action against the State for the compensation. In this case, compensation is
DECISION:
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Master / Principal is vicariously liable for the tort committed by an servant / agent, in the performance of his duties as an servant / agent.
FACTUAL SITUATION: The plaintiff a bullion merchant was arrested by the police on a charge of purchasing stolen goods. Some of the gold and silver ornaments were seized from the plaintiff and were kept in the police station custody. The duty constable appropriated the gold ornaments and escaped to a foreign country. The plaintiff after being acquitted brought an action against the State for the compensation. In this case, compensation is
DECISION:
A Payable as there is misappropriation by the servants of the State
Here the constable on duty was working in the capacity as an employee of the State. The State appointed him as a police constable for the purpose of guarding the persons who were in custody. During such duty he misappropriated the gold and ran away to a foreign country. Therefore, his action of misappropriation was within the course of his duties as a servant of the State. Therefore the State is liable.
Question 4
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1) Joint tort-feasers means joint wrong doers. People can be joint tort-feasors in case of common action, in fact or in law.
2) Joint tort-feasers are jointly and severally liable.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Two dogs belonging to two different owner acting in concert attacked a flock of sheep and injured several sheeps. In an action for damages brought against the owners of the dogs, if one of them puts a defence claiming that he was liable for one half only of the damage, then wt one of the following statements is legally sustainable in the above case ?
DECISION:
LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1) Joint tort-feasers means joint wrong doers. People can be joint tort-feasors in case of common action, in fact or in law.
2) Joint tort-feasers are jointly and severally liable.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Two dogs belonging to two different owner acting in concert attacked a flock of sheep and injured several sheeps. In an action for damages brought against the owners of the dogs, if one of them puts a defence claiming that he was liable for one half only of the damage, then wt one of the following statements is legally sustainable in the above case ?
DECISION:
C The owners themselves are not joint tort-feasers
Reason: The wrong committed is that the owners of the dogs could not control them which resulted in damage to the flock of sheep. This action therefore was the responsibility of both. As the principle precisely states that both joint tort feasors are jointly and severally liable, therefore both of them must incur half the liability of the total damage caused; therefore, option (c) is correct.
Question 5
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1) Negligence is the omission to do something which a reasonable man, guided upon those considerations which ordinarily regulate the conduct of human affairs, would do or doing something which a prudent or reasonable man would not do.
2) Defendant's duty of care depends on the reasonable foreseeability of injury which may be caused to the plaintiff on breach of duty.
FACTUAL SITUATION: The defendants employees of the Municipal Corporation opened a manhole in the street and in the evening left the manhole open and covered it by a canvass shelter, unattended and surrounded by warning lamps. The plaintiff, an eight years old boy, took one of the lamps into the shelter and was playing with it there, when he stumbled over it and fell into the manhole. A violent explosion followed and the plaintiff suffered burn injuries. The defendants are
DECISION:
LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1) Negligence is the omission to do something which a reasonable man, guided upon those considerations which ordinarily regulate the conduct of human affairs, would do or doing something which a prudent or reasonable man would not do.
2) Defendant's duty of care depends on the reasonable foreseeability of injury which may be caused to the plaintiff on breach of duty.
FACTUAL SITUATION: The defendants employees of the Municipal Corporation opened a manhole in the street and in the evening left the manhole open and covered it by a canvass shelter, unattended and surrounded by warning lamps. The plaintiff, an eight years old boy, took one of the lamps into the shelter and was playing with it there, when he stumbled over it and fell into the manhole. A violent explosion followed and the plaintiff suffered burn injuries. The defendants are
DECISION:
D Liable because they acted unreasonably
Looking at the explanation of reasonable care which has been provided for in the principles, it can be seen that the workers acted unreasonably. The fact that they posted written notices is not care enough as some people may choose not to read them. A written notice is very different from a large signboard; therefore, the damage suffered by the child is something that they should have reasonably foreseen; therefore, the correct answer is (d).
Question 6
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1) Master / Principal is vicariously liable for the tort committed by an servant / agent, in the performance of his duties as an servant / agent.
2) Negligence is the omission to do something which a reasonable man, guided upon those considerations which ordinarily regulate the conduct of human affairs, would do or doing something which a prudent or reasonable man would not do.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A patient is brought to a hospital maintained by B. The patient is to be operated upon. As a result of faulty oxygen supply, the patient dies on the operation theatre table, then
DECISION:
LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1) Master / Principal is vicariously liable for the tort committed by an servant / agent, in the performance of his duties as an servant / agent.
2) Negligence is the omission to do something which a reasonable man, guided upon those considerations which ordinarily regulate the conduct of human affairs, would do or doing something which a prudent or reasonable man would not do.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A patient is brought to a hospital maintained by B. The patient is to be operated upon. As a result of faulty oxygen supply, the patient dies on the operation theatre table, then
DECISION:
B B would be liable because there is master and servant relationship between B and the surgeon
The hospital is maintained by B that would mean that every procedure or employee is directly handled by him. He appoints the surgeons, doctors and staff therefore there exists a master-servant relationship between him and the surgeon. As the servant acted negligently during the operation, therefore it was negligence during an act of the servant for which he was employed for by the master.
Question 7
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Defamation means publication of a false and derogatory statement about another person without lawful justification.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A writes a defamatory letter to B containing defamatory remarks in reference of B in Urdu language. A is aware that B does not know Urdu. B goes to C who knows Urdu and the letter is read over by C to him. B sues A for defamation.
DECISION:
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Defamation means publication of a false and derogatory statement about another person without lawful justification.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A writes a defamatory letter to B containing defamatory remarks in reference of B in Urdu language. A is aware that B does not know Urdu. B goes to C who knows Urdu and the letter is read over by C to him. B sues A for defamation.
DECISION:
C A is not liable because there is no publication of defamatory statement
Here while writing the letter A knew about the fact that B did not know Urdu, therefore he knew that A would have to get it translated from some other individual who would qualify as being a member of the public. Therefore once the information was provided to a member of the public, the ingredients of the principle had been satisfied. Hence the correct answer is (c).
Question 8
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
LEGAL PRINCIPLES: A private nuisance may consist of :
1) Any interference with a person's use or enjoyment of land.
2) The act of wrongfully causing or allowing the escape of deletes things into another person's land e.g. water, smoke, smell, etc.
FACTUAL SITUATION: D erected a brick grinding machine adjoining the premises of P, a medical practitioner. The dust from the machine polluted the atmosphere and caused inconvenience to P and his patients. Here
DECISION:
LEGAL PRINCIPLES: A private nuisance may consist of :
1) Any interference with a person's use or enjoyment of land.
2) The act of wrongfully causing or allowing the escape of deletes things into another person's land e.g. water, smoke, smell, etc.
FACTUAL SITUATION: D erected a brick grinding machine adjoining the premises of P, a medical practitioner. The dust from the machine polluted the atmosphere and caused inconvenience to P and his patients. Here
DECISION:
C P can claim compensation because D's activity amounts to<strong> </strong>nuisance for P
The deleterious material is the dust from the brick grinder. It was D's duty to keep the dust from escaping which he did not perform, as the second principle clearly states that if you do not perform a duty which results in the escape of deleterious material then you are liable for negligence.
Question 9
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: False imprisonment is the confinement of a person without just cause or excuse. There must be a total restraint of the person and the onus of proving reasonable cause is on the defendant.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A entered in B's park where there was an artificial lake for the boating. A paid Rs. 100 for entering the park and has to pay Rs. 100 at the time of exit. A waited for 30 minutes but no boat was available. A came out, however, denied to pay Rs. 100 for exit, B did not allow A to leave the park unless he paid Rs. 100 for exit. A sued B for false imprisonment.
DECISION:
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: False imprisonment is the confinement of a person without just cause or excuse. There must be a total restraint of the person and the onus of proving reasonable cause is on the defendant.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A entered in B's park where there was an artificial lake for the boating. A paid Rs. 100 for entering the park and has to pay Rs. 100 at the time of exit. A waited for 30 minutes but no boat was available. A came out, however, denied to pay Rs. 100 for exit, B did not allow A to leave the park unless he paid Rs. 100 for exit. A sued B for false imprisonment.
DECISION:
B B is not guilty of false imprisonment
A has been confined because he is not complying with the rules of the park. He knew that there was an amount which had to be paid while leaving the park and he also knew that while there were boat services available inside there might be a chance that he would not get to ride one. There was no guarantee of him getting a ride on the boat. Therefore he had to pay the pay amount required during exit, which he was not willing to do; therefore he was rightfully confined.
Question 10
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
LEGAL PRINCIPLES: In a suit for malicious prosecution, the plaintiff must prove the following essentials:
1) That he was prosecuted by the defendant.
2) That the proceeding complained was terminated in favour of the present plaintiff.
3) That the prosecution was instituted against him without any just or reasonable cause.
4) That the prosecution was instituted with a malicious intention, that is, not with the mere intention of getting the law into effect, but with an intention, which was wrongful in fact.
5) That he suffered damage to his reputation or to the safety of person, or to security of his property.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A recovered a large sum of money from Railway Co. for personal injuries. Subsequently, Railway Co. came to know that injuries were not real and were created by doctor B. Railway Co. prosecuted B for playing fraud on the company, but B was acquitted. B sued Railway Co. for malicious prosecution. In the light of these facts which of the following statements is true ?
DECISION:
LEGAL PRINCIPLES: In a suit for malicious prosecution, the plaintiff must prove the following essentials:
1) That he was prosecuted by the defendant.
2) That the proceeding complained was terminated in favour of the present plaintiff.
3) That the prosecution was instituted against him without any just or reasonable cause.
4) That the prosecution was instituted with a malicious intention, that is, not with the mere intention of getting the law into effect, but with an intention, which was wrongful in fact.
5) That he suffered damage to his reputation or to the safety of person, or to security of his property.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A recovered a large sum of money from Railway Co. for personal injuries. Subsequently, Railway Co. came to know that injuries were not real and were created by doctor B. Railway Co. prosecuted B for playing fraud on the company, but B was acquitted. B sued Railway Co. for malicious prosecution. In the light of these facts which of the following statements is true ?
DECISION:
B Railway Co. is not guilty of malicious prosecution because the Co. took reasonable care in determining the facts and honestly believed them to be true
The prosecution should have taken place without any just or reasonable cause. Here the prosecution took place because the Railway Co. had information as to the fact that doctor B had faked injuries of patients. Therefore they had reasonable apprehension of the fact that they had been cheated. Therefore they continued for the prosecution of B, i.e. they had a reasonable claim, therefore, they cannot be held guilty of malicious prosecution.
Question 11
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Attempt is an act done with an intent to commit crime, and forming part of the series of acts which would constitute actual commission of the crime, if not interrupted.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A intending to murder B by poison purchases poison and mixes the same with a glass of water. He gave to the bearer to serve B. The bearer while approaching B, loses the balance and the glass drops out of his tray.
DECISION:
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Attempt is an act done with an intent to commit crime, and forming part of the series of acts which would constitute actual commission of the crime, if not interrupted.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A intending to murder B by poison purchases poison and mixes the same with a glass of water. He gave to the bearer to serve B. The bearer while approaching B, loses the balance and the glass drops out of his tray.
DECISION:
C A has committed the offence of attempt to murder
A has purchased poison and mixed it with B's water in order to poison and has passed it on to the bearer. These acts are therefore most definitely a part of the series of acts which would result in B's death. The principle nowhere states that the crime actually has to occur. It merely lays down the requirement of the actions being part of the steps which would lead to the progression of a crime. Therefore the actions of A would amount to attempt.
Question 12
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1) The concept of joint liability comes under Section 34 of IPC which states that "when a criminal act is done by several persons, in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone".
2) A person abets an offence, who abets either the commission of an offence, or the commission of an act which would be an offence, if committed by a person capable by law of committing an offence with the same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor.
3) A criminal conspiracy takes place when two or more people get together and plan to commit a crime and then take some action toward carrying out that plan. The action taken does not have to be a crime itself to further the conspiracy.
FACTUAL SITUATION: X and Y conspire to poison Z. X in pursuance of the conspiracy procures the poison and delivers it to Y in order that he may administer it to Z. Y in pursuance of the conspiracy, administer the poison in the presence of X and thereby causes Z's death. What offences X and Y have committed?
DECISION:
LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1) The concept of joint liability comes under Section 34 of IPC which states that "when a criminal act is done by several persons, in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone".
2) A person abets an offence, who abets either the commission of an offence, or the commission of an act which would be an offence, if committed by a person capable by law of committing an offence with the same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor.
3) A criminal conspiracy takes place when two or more people get together and plan to commit a crime and then take some action toward carrying out that plan. The action taken does not have to be a crime itself to further the conspiracy.
FACTUAL SITUATION: X and Y conspire to poison Z. X in pursuance of the conspiracy procures the poison and delivers it to Y in order that he may administer it to Z. Y in pursuance of the conspiracy, administer the poison in the presence of X and thereby causes Z's death. What offences X and Y have committed?
DECISION:
D Both X and Y has committed the offence of murder
As all the planning and plotting of X and Y is in the furtherance of the common intention to murder Z. As the poison was administered to Z in the furtherance of the common intention of all i.e. X and Y, therefore X and Yare jointly liable' irrespective of who physically administered the poison.
Question 13
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1) Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person' s consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.
2) Whoever dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use any movable property, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A takes umbrella belonging to Z out of Z's possession in good faith, believing at the time when he took it, that the property belongs to himself. His wife points out after some days that the umbrella does not belong to them but to Z. After coming to know that, A dishonestly keeps the umbrella.
DECISION:
LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1) Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person' s consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.
2) Whoever dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use any movable property, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A takes umbrella belonging to Z out of Z's possession in good faith, believing at the time when he took it, that the property belongs to himself. His wife points out after some days that the umbrella does not belong to them but to Z. After coming to know that, A dishonestly keeps the umbrella.
DECISION:
A A is guilty of criminal misappropriation
The distinction between the two that can be inferred from the principle is that in theft the property must be moved with the dishonest intention of acquiring it whereas in criminal misappropriation the property must be dishonestly misappropriated or converted for self-usage. Here while the umbrella (movable property) was being moved by A he had no intention of acquiring it dishonestly. Once he got to know that it was A's umbrella he merely misappropriated it to self usage. Therefore it cannot be theft as the property was not moved with the dishonest intention of acquiring it but was rather misappropriated by A.
Question 14
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: When at the desire of the promisor, the promisee has done or abstained from doing, or does or abstains from doing, or promises to do or abstain something, such an act or abstinence or promise is called consideration for the promise.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A daughter promises to give maintenance to her uncle in consideration of her mother making a gift of certain properties to her. The daughter pleads lack of consideration when the uncle seeks to enforce the contract. She says that the uncle is a stranger to the consideration and so he cannot enforce the contract. The daughter
DECISION:
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: When at the desire of the promisor, the promisee has done or abstained from doing, or does or abstains from doing, or promises to do or abstain something, such an act or abstinence or promise is called consideration for the promise.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A daughter promises to give maintenance to her uncle in consideration of her mother making a gift of certain properties to her. The daughter pleads lack of consideration when the uncle seeks to enforce the contract. She says that the uncle is a stranger to the consideration and so he cannot enforce the contract. The daughter
DECISION:
D None of the above
None of the options provided are in consonance with the principle that has been provided and make no logical sense. Thus the only choice we are left with is none of the above.
Question 15
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1) Parties to contract should be capable of entering in to contract, only then they can lay the foundation of a valid contract.
2) Every person is competent to contract who is of the age of majority.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A minor agreed with B to become a tenant of his house and to pay Rs. 1,000/- for the furniture therein. He paid Rs. 800/- in cash and gave a promissory note for the balance. A occupied the premises and used the furniture for some months and then brought an action for refund of consideration, in this case
DECISION:
LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1) Parties to contract should be capable of entering in to contract, only then they can lay the foundation of a valid contract.
2) Every person is competent to contract who is of the age of majority.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A minor agreed with B to become a tenant of his house and to pay Rs. 1,000/- for the furniture therein. He paid Rs. 800/- in cash and gave a promissory note for the balance. A occupied the premises and used the furniture for some months and then brought an action for refund of consideration, in this case
DECISION:
D Neither B is liable to refund Rs. 800 nor A is under obligation to pay Rs. 200
Here the contract is not a valid contract at all because it has been entered into by a minor and thus fails the requirement which has provided under principle II. Therefore as the contract is not valid it will not create any obligation on either party and therefore neither A nor B is under a duty to fulfil their obligations.
Question 16
"Begar" means
B Involuntary work without payment
Begar was a system of forced labour in India wherein the labour did involuntary work without payment . But now it is prohibited under Article 23 of the Constitution of India.
Question 17
In India, the reckoning date for the determination of the age of the juvenile is the
A date of offence
The Supreme Court in various cases has held that the age at the date of the commission of the offence will be the reckoning date for determination of the age of the juvenile.
Question 18
Which of the following rights is not available to the citizens of India under Article 21 of the Constitution?
B Right to Die
The true meaning of the word ‘life’ in Article 21 means life with human dignity. Any aspect of life which makes life dignified may be include in it but not that which extinguishes it. The ‘Right to Die’ if any, is inherently inconsistent with the “Right to Life”.
Question 19
The "Eco-mark" is given by the Ministry of Environment and Forest to the consumer products which
B are environment friendly
Ecomarkor Eco mark is a certification mark issued by the Bureau of Indian Standards(the national standards organization of India) to products conforming to a set of standards aimed at the least impact on the ecosystem.
Question 20
The EIA is abbreviated form of
A Environment Impact Assessment
d The Chipko movement or Chipko Andolan is a movement that practiced the Gandhian methods of satyagraha and non-violent resistance, through the act of hugging trees to protect them from being felled. Sunderlal Bahuguna, took a 5,000-kilometre trans- Himalaya foot march in 1981–83, spreading the Chipko message to a far greater area.
Question 21
____________ was the leader of "Chipko Movement".
D Sunderlal Bahuguna
The Chipko movement or Chipko Andolan is a movement that practiced the Gandhian methods of satyagraha and non-violent resistance, through the act of hugging trees to protect them from being felled. Sunderlal Bahuguna, took a 5,000-kilometre trans- Himalaya foot march in 1981–83, spreading the Chipko message to a far greater area.
Question 22
When two persons descend from a common ancestor but by different wives, they are said to be related to each other by
B Half blood
Two persons are said to be related by ‘half blood’ where the male parent/ancestor is the same, but the female parent/ancestor, through whom each makes a claim, is different.
Question 23
"Pacta sunt Servanda" means that
B The agreements entered into by the States will be respected and followed by them in good faith
Pactasuntservanda is a latin term which means agreements must be kept. It is the principle in international law which says that international treaties should be upheld by all the signatories. The rule of pacta sunt servanda is based upon the principle of good faith.
Question 24
An offence of breaking a divine idol
D Sacrilege
Sacrilege is the violation or injurious treatment of a sacred object or person.
Question 25
What is Plea Bargaining?
B A procedure by which an accused pleads guilty in exchange for a lesser punishment
Plea-Bargaining can be defined as Pre-Trial procedure whereby a bargain or deal is struck between the accused of an offence and the prosecution with the active participation of the trial judge.
Question 26
The act by members of a trade union, persuading others not to work is called as
B Picketing
Standing or parading near a business or government office usually with signs of protest or claims in labor disputes or public policy controversies (peace marches to pro- or anti-abortion advocates). Picketing is constitutionally guaranteed as free speech, but in some cases it may be limited by court order to prevent physical combat, blocking of entrances or threats to the public safety.
Question 27
In India, cyber terrorism is an offence punishable under
A Information Technology Act
Cyber terrorism is the use of Internet based attacks in terrorist activities, including acts of deliberate, largescale disruption of computer networks, especially of personal computers attached to the Internet, by the means of tools such as computer viruses. The Information Technology Act, the aims to provide for the legal framework so that legal sanctity is accorded to all electronic records and other activities carried out by electronic means.
Question 28
When a judge makes certain remarks in the course of his judgement, which are said "by the way" and do not have direct bearing on the facts at hand, such remarks are called
B Obiter Dictum
In English, ”obiter dicta” translates to “things said by the way”. In other words, obiter dicta are the judicial ponderings said in a case that are not directly relevant to the outcome of the case but that have the potential to inform or guide future decision-making.
Question 29
In Extradition Treaty, extradition means
C Two countries will deport criminal on reciprocal basis to each other
Extradition comes into play when a person charged with a crime under state statutes flees the state. Extradition between nations is usually based on a treaty between the country where the accused is currently located and the country seeking to place him or her on trial for an alleged crime.
Question 30
Who is the Chairperson of the 20th Law Commission of India?
D Justice D. K. Jain
Law Commission of India is an executive body established by an order of the Government of India. Its major function is to work for legal reform. Its membership primarily comprises legal experts, who are entrusted a mandate by the Government. The Commission is established for a fixed tenure and works as an advisory body to the Ministry of Law and Justice.
Question 31
__________ of the Constitution of India lays down that Union of India and the States are juristic person and can sue and be sued.
C Article 300
Article 300 of the Constitution of India lays down that Union of India and the States are juristic person and can sue and be sued.
Question 32
A post dated cheque bears _________ date.
C future
In banking, postdated refers to cheques which have been written by the drawer for a date in the future.
Question 33
According to the Doctrine of__________, every generation is obliged to preserve its natural and cultural heritage for the enjoyment of the future generations.
D Inter-generational equity
Intergenerational Equity: The present generation does not destroy or deplete resources or significantly alter anything; rather it saves resources for future generations and preserves the same level of quality in all aspects of the environment. Sustainable Development: Right to wholesome environment is a fundamental right protected under Article 21 of the Constitution of India. But Development comes through industrialization, which in turn the main factor behind the degradation of environment. Hence, we follow the doctrine called ‘Sustainable Development’, i.e. there must be balance between development and ecology.
Question 34
Which of the following is not recommended by the Justice Verma Committee?
D Death sentence for "rarest of rare cases" of rape
Justice Verma Committee was constituted to recommend amendments to the Criminal Law so as to provide for quicker trial and enhanced punishment for criminals accused of committing sexual assault against women. The Committee submitted its report on January 23, 2013.
Question 35
High Courts has been constituted in all these States in January, 2013 except
A Assam
High Courts have been constituted in all these States in January, 2013 except in Assam.
Section: REASONING
Question 1
Information that is published is part of the public record. But information that a reporter collects, and sources that he contacts, must be protected in order for our free press to function free of fear.
The above argument is most severely weakened by which one of the following statements ?
The above argument is most severely weakened by which one of the following statements ?
B Undocumented evidence may be used to convict an innocent person
The basic premise used in the argument is the sources must be protected in order for press to function free of fear, however, if statement “b” is correct than the free functioning of press might prove detrimental to the society. Choice “d” also weakens the argument but “b” does that more severely and is the correct answer.
Question 2
Psychological novels are superior to novels of adventure. Immature readers prefer novels of adventure to novels with less action and greater psychological depth. The immature reader, who prefers James Bond's exploits to the subtleties of Henry James, can be identified easily by his choice of inferior reading matter.
A criticism of the logic of this argument would be likely to find fault with the author's
A criticism of the logic of this argument would be likely to find fault with the author's
A Presupposing the conclusions he wishes to prove
The author just makes a claim but does not prove the claim or offers any explanation. Instead the author further makes another claim on the basis of his first claim. Thus, choice “a” is the correct answer.
Question 3
Many very effective prescription drugs are available to patients on a "one time only" basis. Suspicious of drug abuse, physicians will not renew a prescription for a medicine that has worked effectively for a patient. This practice denies a patient her right to health.
Which one of the following is a basic assumption made by the author ?
Which one of the following is a basic assumption made by the author ?
D Patients are liable to suffer the same ailment repeatedly
If the patient suffers from same illness and is not allowed the same effective drug that helped the patient earlier to recover then it could be said that by denying the patient the medicine her right to health is denied. But it is not mentioned by the author that a patient can suffer the same ailment and hence this is the assumption made by the author for the argument.
Question 4
Vijay claimed that the large dent in the fender of the company-owned vehicle he had borrowed was caused by the careless act of another motorist, who backed into the car when it was parked in a public garage. Yet Vijay's own car has several dents in its fenders, all of which he acknowledges as having caused by his own careless driving. Therefore, Vijay's contention that the dent in the formerly undented company-owned vehicle was caused by the careless act of another person is not true.
The reasoning in this argument is vulnerable because it
The reasoning in this argument is vulnerable because it
D Presumes, without justification, that because Vijay has caused similar dents to his own car, he caused the dent in the company car
Just because Vijay acknowledges that dents in his car were caused by his own careless driving it cannot be inferred that he would have done the same with the borrowed car, hence “d” is the correct answer.
Question 5
It takes a good telescope to see the moons of Neptune. I can't see the moons of Neptune with my telescope. Therefore, I do not have a good telescope.
Which one of the following most closely parallels the logic of this statement ?
Which one of the following most closely parallels the logic of this statement ?
D If you know the area of a circle, you can find its circumference. You cannot figure out the circumference. Therefore, you do not know the area
The argument is in the form if “a” then “b”; therefore, if not “b” so it would mean not “a”.
Choice “a” follows a completely different logic – the final conclusion is affirmative so this cannot be the answer.
Choice “b” and “c” follow the logic that not “a” therefore not “b”.
Choice “d” follows the logical pattern given and is the correct answer.
Choice “a” follows a completely different logic – the final conclusion is affirmative so this cannot be the answer.
Choice “b” and “c” follow the logic that not “a” therefore not “b”.
Choice “d” follows the logical pattern given and is the correct answer.
Question 6
Statement : As poor people in India prefer and use jaggery rather than sugar, the government has decided to decontrol and scrap sugar distribution through Public Distribution System (PDS).
Assumption I : Jaggery is freely available at reasonable price to all poor people.
Assumption II : PDS has lost its utility.
Assumption I : Jaggery is freely available at reasonable price to all poor people.
Assumption II : PDS has lost its utility.
C If neither I nor II is implicit
Official key gives “d” as the correct answer. We are of the opinion that “c” is the correct answer.
“freely” and “all poor people” are extreme deductions which cannot be made from the statement given to us and so assumption I is not implicit. Similarly if one commodity (sugar) is scrapped from PDS it does not make the entire system loose its utility. Hence, choice “c” is the correct answer.
“freely” and “all poor people” are extreme deductions which cannot be made from the statement given to us and so assumption I is not implicit. Similarly if one commodity (sugar) is scrapped from PDS it does not make the entire system loose its utility. Hence, choice “c” is the correct answer.
Question 7
Statement : Unless country ‘X’ achieves total literacy, it cannot achieve its mission of development.
Assumption I : It is possible to achieve total literacy in country ‘X’.
Assumption II : No development is possible without a proper mission.
Assumption I : It is possible to achieve total literacy in country ‘X’.
Assumption II : No development is possible without a proper mission.
A If only I assumption is implicit
Since it is mentioned as a condition in the statement it is fair to assume that it is possible to achieve total literacy in country X. “No development” is extreme and can, therefore, not be implicit.
Question 8
Statement : Many species of animals on our earth are still not studied scientifically and if we do not do this work urgently, many species will face extinction.
Assumption I : Earth may lose all types of life very shortly.
Assumption II : It is desirable and possible to study scientifically many animal species.
Assumption I : Earth may lose all types of life very shortly.
Assumption II : It is desirable and possible to study scientifically many animal species.
B If only I assumption is implicit
Assumption I is eliminated for its extreme nature “may lose all”. Assumption II is implied as that is the suggestion made by the statement.
Question 9
Statement : Herbs can safely be used for treating diseases of human animal species.
Assumption I : Herbs cannot be used for treating diseases of animals.
Assumption II : Herbs treatment is getting popular.
Assumption I : Herbs cannot be used for treating diseases of animals.
Assumption II : Herbs treatment is getting popular.
C If neither I nor II is implicit
Official key gives “b” as the correct answer. We are of the opinion that “c” is the correct answer.
Question 10
Which one of the following must be true ?
D Diya does not eat raisin cookies
Using the basic information given and first two clues we get the table as shown below:-
Using clue 3 and 4 we can update the table as shown below. As Bina eats chocolate chip cookies Champak won’t eat them and as Champak eats Sugar cookies Bina won’t eat them.
Now since we know that at least two people eat sugar cookies we can infer that Diya must eat sugar cookies. Also, since nobody eats both sugar and raisin cookies we can infer that Champak and Diya will not eat Raisin cookies. The table will look as shown below:-
We can see from the table that Diya cannot eat raisin cookies and so “d” is the correct answer.
Using clue 3 and 4 we can update the table as shown below. As Bina eats chocolate chip cookies Champak won’t eat them and as Champak eats Sugar cookies Bina won’t eat them.
Now since we know that at least two people eat sugar cookies we can infer that Diya must eat sugar cookies. Also, since nobody eats both sugar and raisin cookies we can infer that Champak and Diya will not eat Raisin cookies. The table will look as shown below:-
We can see from the table that Diya cannot eat raisin cookies and so “d” is the correct answer.
Question 11
If Bina eats exactly three kinds of cookies, which one of the following must be true ?
D Champak eats oatmeal cookies
Using the basic information given and first two clues we get the table as shown below:-
Using clue 3 and 4 we can update the table as shown below. As Bina eats chocolate chip cookies Champak won’t eat them and as Champak eats Sugar cookies Bina won’t eat them.
Now since we know that at least two people eat sugar cookies we can infer that Diya must eat sugar cookies. Also, since nobody eats both sugar and raisin cookies we can infer that Champak and Diya will not eat Raisin cookies. The table will look as shown below:-
If Bina eats exactly three kinds of cookies –
Case 1: Bina eats chocolate chip, oatmeal and peanut.
Now Champak we already know cannot eat chocolate chip and raisin. In this he will not be able to eat oatmeal or peanut as well. So he will be able to eat only sugar. As per a basic condition all of them eat at least two cookies so this case is not possible.
Case 2. Bina eats chocolate chip, peanut and raisin.
The table in this case will look as shown below:-
Choice “a” is out as Champak eats only two types of cookies.
Choice “b” is easy to eliminate as it violates the basic condition that everybody eats at least two type os cookies.
Choice “d” is correct as Champak does eat oatmeal cookies.
Using clue 3 and 4 we can update the table as shown below. As Bina eats chocolate chip cookies Champak won’t eat them and as Champak eats Sugar cookies Bina won’t eat them.
Now since we know that at least two people eat sugar cookies we can infer that Diya must eat sugar cookies. Also, since nobody eats both sugar and raisin cookies we can infer that Champak and Diya will not eat Raisin cookies. The table will look as shown below:-
If Bina eats exactly three kinds of cookies –
Case 1: Bina eats chocolate chip, oatmeal and peanut.
Now Champak we already know cannot eat chocolate chip and raisin. In this he will not be able to eat oatmeal or peanut as well. So he will be able to eat only sugar. As per a basic condition all of them eat at least two cookies so this case is not possible.
Case 2. Bina eats chocolate chip, peanut and raisin.
The table in this case will look as shown below:-
Choice “a” is out as Champak eats only two types of cookies.
Choice “b” is easy to eliminate as it violates the basic condition that everybody eats at least two type os cookies.
Choice “d” is correct as Champak does eat oatmeal cookies.
Question 12
Which one of the following cannot be true ?
B Ali and Diya both eat oatmeal cookies
Using the basic information given and first two clues we get the table as shown below:-
Using clue 3 and 4 we can update the table as shown below. As Bina eats chocolate chip cookies Champak won’t eat them and as Champak eats Sugar cookies Bina won’t eat them.
Now since we know that at least two people eat sugar cookies we can infer that Diya must eat sugar cookies. Also, since nobody eats both sugar and raisin cookies we can infer that Champak and Diya will not eat Raisin cookies. The table will look as shown below:-
If Ali and Diya both eat oatmeal cookies then nobody else will be able to eat oatmeal cookies as maximum two people can eat oat meal cookies. The table will look as shown below:-
As could be seen that in this case one of either Bina or Champak will not be able to eat at least two cookies. Hence, “b” cannot be true.
Using clue 3 and 4 we can update the table as shown below. As Bina eats chocolate chip cookies Champak won’t eat them and as Champak eats Sugar cookies Bina won’t eat them.
Now since we know that at least two people eat sugar cookies we can infer that Diya must eat sugar cookies. Also, since nobody eats both sugar and raisin cookies we can infer that Champak and Diya will not eat Raisin cookies. The table will look as shown below:-
If Ali and Diya both eat oatmeal cookies then nobody else will be able to eat oatmeal cookies as maximum two people can eat oat meal cookies. The table will look as shown below:-
As could be seen that in this case one of either Bina or Champak will not be able to eat at least two cookies. Hence, “b” cannot be true.
Question 13
Which pair of cookie types could each be eaten by at least three different people ?
C Chocolate chip and peanut butter
It is given that oatmeal cookies could be eaten by a maximum of two people. So choices “a”, “b” and “d” are easily eliminated. Hence, choice “c” is the correct answer.
Question 14
Which pair of cookie types contains a cookie type eaten by exactly two different people ?
D Sugar and raisin
“d” would be the correct choice as no one eats both raisin cookies and sugar cookies.
Question 15
Which cookie type could be eaten by none of the people ?
D Raisin
We know that sugar is eaten by at least 2 people and Bina eats chocolate chip cookie so choices “a” and “c” are out. Next you need to try to make cases – you may start by assuming that no one eats raisin cookie and see whether all other conditions are met. If it does it is the correct answer if it doesn’t than choice “b” will be the correct answer.
So let us check choice “d” that nobody eats raisin cookie.
Using the basic information given and first two clues we get the table as shown below:-
Using clue 3 and 4 we can update the table as shown below. As Bina eats chocolate chip cookies Champak won’t eat them and as Champak eats Sugar cookies Bina won’t eat them.
Now since we know that at least two people eat sugar cookies we can infer that Diya must eat sugar cookies. Also, since nobody eats both sugar and raisin cookies we can infer that Champak and Diya will not eat Raisin cookies. The table will look as shown below:-
Now, we’ll assume nobody eats raisin cookie.
Since, all the conditions are met this is a possibility and hence, “d” is the correct answer.
So let us check choice “d” that nobody eats raisin cookie.
Using the basic information given and first two clues we get the table as shown below:-
Using clue 3 and 4 we can update the table as shown below. As Bina eats chocolate chip cookies Champak won’t eat them and as Champak eats Sugar cookies Bina won’t eat them.
Now since we know that at least two people eat sugar cookies we can infer that Diya must eat sugar cookies. Also, since nobody eats both sugar and raisin cookies we can infer that Champak and Diya will not eat Raisin cookies. The table will look as shown below:-
Now, we’ll assume nobody eats raisin cookie.
Since, all the conditions are met this is a possibility and hence, “d” is the correct answer.
Question 16
How is Rahul related to Arjun ?
D Maternal uncle
In this question the gender is assumed from the name. For example Sunita is taken as a female.
Rahul is Sunita’s brother and is so Arjun’s maternal uncle.
Rahul is Sunita’s brother and is so Arjun’s maternal uncle.
Question 17
Rani is Sohan’s
C Aunt
In this question the gender is assumed from the name. For example Sunita is taken as a female.
Rani is Shyam’s sister and so is Sohan’s aunt.
Rani is Shyam’s sister and so is Sohan’s aunt.
Question 18
Shyam and Suraj are related as
A Brother-in-law
In this question the gender is assumed from the name. For example Sunita is taken as a female.
Shyam is Sunita’s husband and Suraj is Sunita’s brother, so Shyam and Suraj are brother - in – laws.
Shyam is Sunita’s husband and Suraj is Sunita’s brother, so Shyam and Suraj are brother - in – laws.
Question 19
Shyam travels 5 km towards East and turns left and moves 6 km further. He then turns right and moves 9 km. Finally, he turns once again to his right and moves 6 km. How far is he from the starting point ?
C 14 km
Required distance = AB + BC = 14 km
Question 20
Reaching a place of appointment on Friday, I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday, how many days late would I have been ?
C Three days
I reached Friday which was two days earlier the scheduled day – So the scheduled day was Sunday. If I had reached the following Wednesday I would have been 3 days late from Sunday.
Question 21
X was born on March, 6, 1993. The same year Independence Day was celebrated on Friday. Find out the birth day of X.
A Thursday
Independence Day was celebrated after 162 days of X’s birth. March (25 days), April (30 says), May (31 days), June (30 days), July (31 days) and August (15 days). Total of 162/7 = 1 odd day. This means that the day on 15th Aug 1993 was the day when X was born + 1. Independence Day was a Friday so X must have born on a Thursday.
For theory on calendar get in touch with us at www.eptitude.co.in.
For theory on calendar get in touch with us at www.eptitude.co.in.
Question 22
Kamala would like to complete all her home work before 10 p.m. in order to watch an important TV programme. She has 40 minutes assignment in each of her five subjects. What is the latest time at which she can start and still complete work in time for the programme ?
A 6.40 p.m.
To complete her assignments Kamala would require 5 x 40 minutes = 200 minutes or 3 hours and 20 minutes. Assuming she does not take any break between her assignments she needs to start her work at 6:40 p.m. to finish her work by 10 p.m.
Question 23
In the following number series only one number is wrong.
21, 28, 33, 35, 37, 36
21, 28, 33, 35, 37, 36
B 35
Hence, the incorrect value in the series is 35.
Question 24
In the following number series only one number is wrong.
5, 13, 29, 61, 120, 253
5, 13, 29, 61, 120, 253
C 120
Hence, the incorrect value in the series is 120.
Question 25
In the following number series only one number is wrong.
0, 7, 28, 63, 124, 215
0, 7, 28, 63, 124, 215
C 28
13 – 1 = 0, 23 – 1 = 7, 33 – 1 = 26, 43 – 1 = 63, 53 – 1 – 124 and 63 – 1 = 215. Hence, the incorrect value in the series is 28.
Question 26
In the following number series only one number is wrong.
9, 19, 40, 83, 170, 340, 340
9, 19, 40, 83, 170, 340, 340
A 340
9 x 2 + 1 = 19, 19 x 2 + 2 = 40, 40 x 2 + 3 = 83, 83 x 2 + 4 = 170, 170 x 2 + 5 = 345. Hence, the wrong number in the series is 345.
Question 27
In a certain code, TEAMWORK is written as NBFUJQNV and SOME is written as PTDL. How is PERSON written in that code ?
C SFQMNR
Question 28
In certain code, BASKET is written as 5$3%#1 and TRIED is written as 14*#2. How is SKIRT written in that code ?
A 3%*41
In this every letter has a unique code. So,
B is 5, A is $, S is 3, K is %, E is # and T is 1. The way we identify this code is by looking at the other word TRIED. The only common letter is E and in both the places it is coded as #. So SKIRT will be coded as 3%*41.
B is 5, A is $, S is 3, K is %, E is # and T is 1. The way we identify this code is by looking at the other word TRIED. The only common letter is E and in both the places it is coded as #. So SKIRT will be coded as 3%*41.
Question 29
Eagle : Swoops : : Duck : ?
C Waddles
Movement of eagle is like swooping, in the same way movement of duck is waddle.
Question 30
APPLE : 50 : : ORANGE : ?
C 60
The logic is the numeric value is the sum of positions of numbers of all the alphabets of the words.
APPLE = 1 + 16 + 16 + 12 + 5 = 50. By the same logic ORANGE will be 15 + 18 + 1 + 14 + 7 + 5 = 60.
APPLE = 1 + 16 + 16 + 12 + 5 = 50. By the same logic ORANGE will be 15 + 18 + 1 + 14 + 7 + 5 = 60.
Question 31
In questions 136 to 140, a particular word is given. The word is followed by four words as given in the alternatives. One of these four words cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question.
ENTHUSIASTICALLY
ENTHUSIASTICALLY
B HELMINTH
There is no “M” in ENTHUSIASTICALLY and so HELMINTH cannot be formed.
Question 32
In questions 136 to 140, a particular word is given. The word is followed by four words as given in the alternatives. One of these four words cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question.
CONCENTRATE
CONCENTRATE
C REASON
CONCENTRATE does not have an “S” so REASON is out.
Question 33
In questions 136 to 140, a particular word is given. The word is followed by four words as given in the alternatives. One of these four words cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question.
INTRANSIGENT
INTRANSIGENT
C TRACE
There is no “C” in INTRANSIGENT so TRACE is out.
Question 34
In questions 136 to 140, a particular word is given. The word is followed by four words as given in the alternatives. One of these four words cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question.
PERPETUATION
PERPETUATION
D PENANCE
PERPETUATION has only one “N” while PENANCE has two “N” and so is out.
Question 35
In questions 136 to 140, a particular word is given. The word is followed by four words as given in the alternatives. One of these four words cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question.
ESTRANGEMENT
ESTRANGEMENT
A ENTANGLE
There is no “L” in ESTRANGEMENT so ENTANGLE is out.
Section: MATHEMATICS
Question 1
The difference between the number of numbers from 2 to 100 which are not divisible by any other number except 1 and itself and the numbers which are divisible by atleast one more number along with one and itself.
C 49
Clearly we want the difference number of prime numbers and the number of composite numbers.
In the given range i.e. from 2 to 100, there are 25 primes, and the remaining 74 will be composite. Hence the difference will be 74 – 25 = 49
In the given range i.e. from 2 to 100, there are 25 primes, and the remaining 74 will be composite. Hence the difference will be 74 – 25 = 49
Question 2
The average of three prime numbers lying between 47 and 74 is 191/3. The greatest possible sum between any two out of the 3 prime numbers is
C 132
Since average of three primes is 191/3, their sum will be 191/3 x 3 = 191
There are only 5 primes in the given range i.e. 53, 59, 61, 67 and 71.
Check to verify that the three numbers must be 59, 61 and 71.
Hence greatest sum will be 132.
There are only 5 primes in the given range i.e. 53, 59, 61, 67 and 71.
Check to verify that the three numbers must be 59, 61 and 71.
Hence greatest sum will be 132.
Question 3
Divya purchased 6 mangoes, 10 oranges and 5 apples for a certain amount. With 40% less amount Anu could purchase 3 mangoes, 5 oranges and 4 apples. What percentage of the total amount did Divya spend on apples ?
B 33.333%
Let Divya have Rs. 100 initially. Also let M, O and A be the price of a mango, orange and apple respectively.
Then, 6M + 10O + 5A = 100 ... (1)
And, 3M + 5O + 4A = 40/100 x 100 = 40
Multiplying second equation by 2:
6M + 10O + 8A = 80 ... (2)
On subtracting (1) from (2) we get:
3A = 20 or A = 20/3
Now money spent on apples = 5A = 5 x 20/3 = 100/3
Hence % spent on apples = Money spent on Apples/Total spend x 100 = (100/3)/100 x 100 = 33.333%
Then, 6M + 10O + 5A = 100 ... (1)
And, 3M + 5O + 4A = 40/100 x 100 = 40
Multiplying second equation by 2:
6M + 10O + 8A = 80 ... (2)
On subtracting (1) from (2) we get:
3A = 20 or A = 20/3
Now money spent on apples = 5A = 5 x 20/3 = 100/3
Hence % spent on apples = Money spent on Apples/Total spend x 100 = (100/3)/100 x 100 = 33.333%
Question 4
Military camp is having the provisions for 300 people consuming 600 grams daily for 75 days. They are joined by 60 more men and daily ration was reduced by 100 grams. How long will the provisions last approximately ?
C 75 days
Total provisions in the camp = 300 x 600 x 75 grams
Now, number of men = 300 + 60 = 360
Also daily consumption = 600 – 100 = 500 grams
This way if the provisions last for N days.
Then provisions consumed = 360 x 500 x N
Equating provisions available and consumed:
300 x 600 x 75 = 360 x 500 x N
i.e. N = 300/360 x 600/500 x 75 = 75 days
Now, number of men = 300 + 60 = 360
Also daily consumption = 600 – 100 = 500 grams
This way if the provisions last for N days.
Then provisions consumed = 360 x 500 x N
Equating provisions available and consumed:
300 x 600 x 75 = 360 x 500 x N
i.e. N = 300/360 x 600/500 x 75 = 75 days
Question 5
A contractor Abhay Singh employed some men to do a piece of work which can be done by 16 men in 14 days. At the end of 5 days, 7 of the men stopped working and 3 days later half of the remainder stopped working; the rest finished the work in 5 days. What is the number of men originally employed ?
A 25
Let work done by 1 man in 1 day be 1 unit
Then Total work = work done by 16 men in 14 days = 16 x 14 = 224 units
Now let N men be hired initially.
Then work done by N men in 5 days = N x 5 = 5N units
Now, 7 men stop working i.e. (N – 7) men will be working.
So work done by (N – 7) men in 3 days = (N – 7) x 3 = 3(N – 7) units
Then, only half the workers work for 5 days.
So work done by (N – 7)/2 men in 5 days = (N – 7)/2 x 5 = 5(N – 7)/2 units
Clearly, 5N + 3(N – 7) + 5(N – 7)/2 = 224
i.e. 10N + 6N – 42 + 5N – 35 = 448
i.e. 21N = 525 or N = 25 men
Then Total work = work done by 16 men in 14 days = 16 x 14 = 224 units
Now let N men be hired initially.
Then work done by N men in 5 days = N x 5 = 5N units
Now, 7 men stop working i.e. (N – 7) men will be working.
So work done by (N – 7) men in 3 days = (N – 7) x 3 = 3(N – 7) units
Then, only half the workers work for 5 days.
So work done by (N – 7)/2 men in 5 days = (N – 7)/2 x 5 = 5(N – 7)/2 units
Clearly, 5N + 3(N – 7) + 5(N – 7)/2 = 224
i.e. 10N + 6N – 42 + 5N – 35 = 448
i.e. 21N = 525 or N = 25 men
Question 6
Ram is travelling by car at the rate of 40 kmph. After 80 km he rests for 20 minutes. How long will he take to cover a distance of 240 kms ?
A 6 hrs 40 min
Time taken to cover 80 km = D/S = 80/40 = 2 hours
So Ram rests for 20 minutes after every 2 hours i.e. 120 mins
So distance covered in 140 mins = 80 kms
Note that for the last 80 kms, he will only take 120 minutes (he will rest at the destination!)
Hence time taken = (240 – 80)/80 x 140 + 120 = 400 minutes
i.e. 6 hours and 40 minutes
So Ram rests for 20 minutes after every 2 hours i.e. 120 mins
So distance covered in 140 mins = 80 kms
Note that for the last 80 kms, he will only take 120 minutes (he will rest at the destination!)
Hence time taken = (240 – 80)/80 x 140 + 120 = 400 minutes
i.e. 6 hours and 40 minutes
Question 7
There is leak in the bottom of a tank. This leak can empty a full tank in 8 hours. When the tank is full, a tap is opened into the tank which admits 6 litres per hour and the tank is now emptied in 12 hours. What is the capacity of the tank ?
C 144 litres
Let the rate of leakage be N litres per hour.
Then capacity of the tank = amount leaked in 8 hours = 8N litres
Also, when the tap is open the net emptying rate will be (N – 6) litres per hour.
Again, capacity of the tank = amount leaked in 12 hours
i.e. 8N = 12(N – 6)
i.e. N = 12 x 6/4 = 18 litres per hour
So capacity of tank = 18 x 8 = 144 litres
Then capacity of the tank = amount leaked in 8 hours = 8N litres
Also, when the tap is open the net emptying rate will be (N – 6) litres per hour.
Again, capacity of the tank = amount leaked in 12 hours
i.e. 8N = 12(N – 6)
i.e. N = 12 x 6/4 = 18 litres per hour
So capacity of tank = 18 x 8 = 144 litres
Question 8
A and B walk from X to Y, a distance of 27 km at 5 km/hr and 7 km/hr, respectively. B reaches Y and immediately turns back meeting A at Z. What is the distance from X to Z ?
B 22.5 km
Distance walked by A = XZ = D
Distance walked by B = XY + YZ = 27 + (27 – D) = 54 – D
Clearly these distances are walked by them in the same time.
Since Time = Distance/Speed
D/5 = (54 – D)/7
i.e. 7D = 270 – 5D
i.e. D = 270/12 = 22.5 km
Distance walked by B = XY + YZ = 27 + (27 – D) = 54 – D
Clearly these distances are walked by them in the same time.
Since Time = Distance/Speed
D/5 = (54 – D)/7
i.e. 7D = 270 – 5D
i.e. D = 270/12 = 22.5 km
Question 9
Three consecutive positive even numbers are such that thrice the first number exceeds double the third by 2, the third number is
B 14
Let the three consecutive even numbers be (N – 2), N and (N + 2)
Then, 3 x (N – 2) = 2 x (N + 2) + 2
i.e. 3N – 6 = 2N + 4 + 2
i.e. N = 12
So third number will be N + 2 = 14
Then, 3 x (N – 2) = 2 x (N + 2) + 2
i.e. 3N – 6 = 2N + 4 + 2
i.e. N = 12
So third number will be N + 2 = 14
Question 10
Devendra, a computer accessories vendor gave a discount of 20% on a pen-drive and his profit reduced from Rs. 200 to Rs. 100. What is Devendra's cost price ?
A Rs. 300
Let P be original selling price.
Since Devendra makes a profit of Rs. 200, his cost price = P – 200
Now, new selling price = P – 20/100 x P = 4P/5
Then, his profit now is Rs. 100
i.e. SP = CP + 100
i.e. 4P/5 = P – 200 + 100
i.e. P/5 = 100 or P = 500
Hence his cost price = P – 200 = Rs. 300
Since Devendra makes a profit of Rs. 200, his cost price = P – 200
Now, new selling price = P – 20/100 x P = 4P/5
Then, his profit now is Rs. 100
i.e. SP = CP + 100
i.e. 4P/5 = P – 200 + 100
i.e. P/5 = 100 or P = 500
Hence his cost price = P – 200 = Rs. 300
