AILET 2015 Question Paper With Solution




Section: ENGLISH

Question 1
In which one of the following cases would the owner of the property probably be most free to restrict the freedom of speech?
Aan amusement park attended by five million people each year owned by a multinational company.
Ba small grocery shopping mall owned by a husband and wife
Can enclosed shopping mall owned by a single woman
Dan eight-unit residential apartment building owned by a large real estate company
D an eight-unit residential apartment building owned by a large real estate company
As per the passage the ability of the owner of the property to restrict the freedom of speech depends on how open the property is to general public. The more open the property to general public the less freedom the owner will have to restrict freedom of speech. From the given choices in choice “d” the building will be least open to general public and hence the owner of this property would probably be most free to restrict the freedom of speech.
Question 2
A conflict between property rights and freedom of speech might arise in all of the following situations, EXCEPT
Aprotestors carrying signs outside a cinema in an enclosed shopping mall
Ba disgruntled employee passing out leaflets in front of a hairdresser‘s salon
Ca religious order soliciting funds and converts in the swimming pool area of a condominium
Da candidate for mayor handing out flyers in front of his opponent‘s headquarters
C a religious order soliciting funds and converts in the swimming pool area of a condominium
As per the passage a conflict between property rights and freedom of speech might arise whenever it is not clear whether the forum (para 1 last sentence) is clearly public or clearly private. The least the confusion the least will be the chances of the occurrence of the conflict. From amongst the four choices in choice “c” there is more clarity , that is, the forum (swimming pool area of a condominium) is more private in nature and hence the chances of a conflict is least in this case.
Question 3
According to the passage, an owner‘s freedom to deny freedom of speech on his property is determined by all of the following EXCEPT
Awhether or not the land is open to the public
Bthe nature of and the usual use of the property
Cthe type of persons who frequents the land
Dthe nature of character of the owner
D the nature of character of the owner
All the points other than “nature of character of the owner” are mentioned by the author in the passage. Hence, choice “d” is the correct answer. Refer to lines 7, 8 and 9 of paragraph 1.
Question 4
We can infer from the passage that the author believes that shopping malls in America
Ashould be in the service of the people who frequent them
Bhave a right to prohibit distribution of advertising handbills
Chave a right to control any distributed materials
Dshould permit any charitable solicitations
A should be in the service of the people who frequent them
In the opening lines of the last paragraph the author states “The only real purpose and justification of any of these centers (reference is to a shopping center in the previous paragraph) is to serve the people in the area – not the merchant…..”. This makes choice “a” the correct choice.
Question 5
According to the passage, the idea that a property owner‘s rights decline as the property is more used by the general public
Ais peculiar to recent Supreme Court decisions
Bis attested by a three-hundred-year-old opinion
Cconflicts with the idea that property affected with a public interest ceases to be private
Dis now universally accepted in Great Britain and in Canada
B is attested by a three-hundred-year-old opinion
In the third paragraph opening lines the author states “The precept………              is not new. In 1675, Lord Chief Justice Hale wrote that when private…., it ceases to be private.” From this we can conclude that the idea that a property owner’s rights decline as the property is more used by the general public is not a new one and it goes back to three – hundred years in the past.
Question 6
All other things being equal, the courts must
Afavour First Amendment rights over property rights
Bfavour property rights over First Amendment rights
Ctreat property rights and First Amendment rights equally
Dprotect property rights of the owners
A favour First Amendment rights over property rights
Refer to para 1 lines 4 and 5. “On the other hand, if public land is at issue, the First Amendment protections of expression are applicable”. This makes choice “a” the correct answer.
Question 7
For each of the following words below, a context is provided. From the alternatives given, pick the word or phrase that is closest in meaning in the given context.

Alphanumeric: The inclusion of alphanumeric features in cellular phones has made sending SMSs very convenient.
Ausing only alphabets
Busing digital codes
Cusing OSCOLA
Dusing both letters and numerals
D using both letters and numerals
Even a cursory glance at the word reveals that it is composed of two words – alpha-bet and numeric-al. Hence the meaning must be ‘using both letters and numerals.
Question 8
For each of the following words below, a context is provided. From the alternatives given, pick the word or phrase that is closest in meaning in the given context.

Oligarchy: Mrigank argued that all political parties, including those which profess democratic values become the instruments of their leaders who eventually become a self-interested and self-satisfied oligarchy.
Arule of a mob or crowd
Bsmall group of people having control of state
Can iron-rule of democrats
Da socialist rule of activists
B small group of people having control of state
‘Oligarchy’ means ‘a small group of people having control of a country or organization’.
Question 9
For each of the following words below, a context is provided. From the alternatives given, pick the word or phrase that is closest in meaning in the given context.

Perestroika: In the 1980‘s, the "state socialist" tradition became totally discredited as Gorbachev‘s programme of perestroika revealed the fundamental failures of the planned economies of the Communist bloc.
Aclosing off all entries
Bmanifesto of failure
Copening up
Dnagging policies
C opening up
The sentence indicates that ‘perestroika’ discredited ‘the state socialist tradition’, hence it must mean the opposite. Clearly option a and d are incorrect in this respect. Also, ‘manifesto of failure’ cannot describe a ‘programme’, hence this too can be eliminated. So the correct choice must be option c.
Note: The actual meaning of ‘perestroika’ is ‘restructuring’.
Question 10
For each of the following words below, a context is provided. From the alternatives given, pick the word or phrase that is closest in meaning in the given context.

Bequeath: In consequences, they bequeathed to their followers no clear vision of the economics of socialism, that is state ownership and planning the means of production, distribution and exchange, and others had to advocate market socialism, the state regulation of capital rather than state ownership of planning.
Ahand down or pass on
Ba powerful will of the people
Ca method of governing
Dto give in promise
A hand down or pass on
To ‘bequeath’ is to ‘pass on or leave to someone else’.
Question 11
For each of the following words below, a context is provided. From the alternatives given, pick the word or phrase that is closest in meaning in the given context.

Redundancy: Communication is a subtle, complex and continuously fluctuating process, affected by a multitude of factors both external and internal, and two such elements are noise and redundancy.
Athat part of message that is predictable or conventional
Bthat word or phrase which is surprising
Cthat meaning of a word which is sparingly used
Dthat message which has no clear meaning
D that message which has no clear meaning
The choices here are all incorrect, however we must attempt to choose the best choice!
Clearly, since ‘redundancy’ is mentioned along with ‘noise’ it must be a negative, so we can rule out option a and b. Also, since it is a factor that affects communication, it cannot be ‘sparingly used’.
The best option here would be option d i.e. ‘that message which has no clear meaning’.
The dictionary meaning of ‘redundancy’ is that ‘which is not or no longer needed/useful’.
Question 12
In the following questions, choose the word which is odd one out.
Abedlam
Banarchy
Canatomise
Dinsurrection
C anatomise
Here ‘bedlam’, ‘anarrchy’ and ‘insurrection’ involve a state of ‘uproar and violence’, ‘anatomise’ means to ‘dissect or examine in detail’.
Question 13
In the following questions, choose the word which is odd one out.
Amiscreant
Bdefendant
Caccused
Dplaintiff
D plaintiff
‘defendant’ and ‘accused’ are both terms used for the person who stands trial in a case. Also, ‘miscreant’ is ‘a person who has done something wrong or unlawful’. On the other hand ‘plaintiff’ refers to ‘the person who brings a case against another in a court of law’.
Question 14
In the following questions, choose the word which is odd one out.
Aassault
Bextortion
Csub-poena
Dbattery
C sub-poena
‘assault’, ‘extortion’ and ‘battery’ are all criminal offenses that involve force, threats or violence. ‘sub-poena’ is ‘a document that requires  its recipient to appear in court as a witness’.
Question 15
In the following questions, choose the word which is odd one out.
Abarrister
Battorney
Cjuror
Dadvocate
C juror
‘barrister’, ‘attorney’ and ‘advocate’ all are words that mean a lawyer. On the other hand a ‘juror’ means ‘a member of jury’.
Question 16
Choose the exact meaning of the idioms/phrases.

Alpha and Omega
Arelated to science
Bthe beginning and the end
CA to Z
Dnone of these
B the beginning and the end
The meaning of ‘alpha and omega’ is ‘the beginning and the end’. Alpha and omega are the first and last letters of the alphabet in Greek.
Question 17
Choose the exact meaning of the idioms/phrases.

Ante-diluvium
Aold time
Bup-to-date
Ctime period
Dagainst dualism
A old time
‘Ante-diluvium’ is ‘ridiculously old-fashioned’, hence the closest choice is option a.
Question 18
Choose the exact meaning of the idioms/phrases.

To play truant
Ato make a narrow escape
Bto run away from work without permission
Cto be clever
Dnone of these
B to run away from work without permission
To play truant’ means ‘one who is absent from school without permission or someone who shirks duty’.
Question 19
Choose the exact meaning of the idioms/phrases.

To see red
Ato find fault with
Bto be very angry
Cto criticise others
Dto victimise someone
B to be very angry
‘To see red’ means to ‘become very angry suddenly’.
Question 20
Choose the exact meaning of the idioms/phrases.

To flog a dead horse
Ato do a thing in vain
Bto act in a foolish way
Cto criticize strongly
Dtry to revive interest in a subject that is out of date
A to do a thing in vain
‘To flog a dead horse’ means that ‘to continue a particular endeavour is a waste of time as the outcome is already decided’.
Question 21
In this section, each passage consists of four/five sentences. The sentences in each passage have been jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R, S and T. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

P : You couldn‘t have asked for a nicer, more respectable-looking fellow than Jack, the day he arrived in town for grandpa‘s funeral.
Q : He‘d just arrived that morning, got the word that the old Judge was gone, he said.
R : He rode into the yard on his motorbike - the one he‘d sold last summer, which wasn‘t a patch on the big red one he‘d bought later.
S : He was glad he was in time for the sen/ices. He sat with Paresh all through the funeral; he even cried - or if it wasn‘t crying, it was a darned good show.

The proper sequence should be
AQ R P S
BQ R S P
CS P Q R
DP R Q S
D P R Q S
This is an extremely simple question only because of the choices given. The pronoun “he” used in Q, R and S refers to “Jack” mentioned in P. Hence, P should come before any of the other sentences. There is only one choice, that is ,”d” where the option starts with P. Hence “d” is the correct answer.
Question 22
In this section, each passage consists of four/five sentences. The sentences in each passage have been jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R, S and T. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

P : Anything to do with his parents had always been vague to Manish.
Q : He had been too young to remember them; he only knew the story of the fatal weekend at the Airondack camel and the overturned canoe.
R : Then, as the years swept by and the tragedy faded into time, they began taking him there; and the lake again became a quite lake in the foothills, a camping place where the three of them had a good time.
S : Grandpa had still owned the camp a long while afterwards he and Grandma hadn‘t gone there.

The proper sequence should be
AP Q R S
BQ R S P
CP Q S R
DQ P S R
C P Q S R
PQ forms a mandatory pair as “them” in Q refers to parents in P. Similarly, SR forms a mandatory pair as “they” and “there” in R refers to “grandpa and grandma” and “camp” in R. This arrangement is present in choice “c” and is the correct answer.
Question 23
In this section, each passage consists of four/five sentences. The sentences in each passage have been jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R, S and T. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

P : The role of Western values in contemporary Indian society is a subject on which I have pondered for years.
Q : Moreover, various stakeholders of our company - employees, investors, customers and vendors - come from across the globe.
R : An organisation is representative of society, and some of the lessons that I have learnt from the West regarding values are, I think, applicable to us as a nation. Here are some of them:
S : I come from a company that is built on strong values.
T : In dealing with them over the years, I have come to appreciate several aspects of the West‘s value system.

The proper sequence should be
AP Q S T R
BP S Q T R
CS Q T R P
DS Q R P T
B P S Q T R
The paragraph should end with R as it states “Here are some of them” but no remaining sentences has an example of the lessons. So the correct choice will be either “a” or “b”. QT forms a mandatory pair as “them” in T refers to “various stakeholders” in Q. QT forms a pair in choice “b” and hence “b” is the correct answer.
Question 24
In this section, each passage consists of four/five sentences. The sentences in each passage have been jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R, S and T. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

P : "To play great music," he said, "you must keep your eyes on a distant star."
Q : Eleven years old, I was taking a violin lesson with Georges Enesco, my teacher, in his Paris studio.
R : At the time, I took this to mean, simply, "Give your very best to every piece."
S : A deep-chested, powerful man with a rugged, gentle face, Enesco looked at me across the violin he held under his chin, and shook his bow.

The proper sequence should be
AQ P R S
BQ S P R
CS P R Q
DS P Q R
B Q S P R
QS forms a mandatory pair. In Q the teacher George Enesco is introduced and then S further elaborates the features of the teacher. Only choice “b” has QS as a pair and is the correct answer.
Question 25
In this section, each passage consists of four/five sentences. The sentences in each passage have been jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R, S and T. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

P : On the one hand, I want very much for someone else to clean our house, as neither I nor my husband, Ed, has shown any aptitude for it.
Q : No one but me, for instance, should have to clean up the dental floss heaped up like spaghetti near the wastebasket where I toss it each night, never catching on that floss is not something that can be thrown with a high degree of accuracy.
R : On the other hand, I‘d feel guilt inflicting such distasteful drudgery on another human being..
S : Have always wanted and not wanted a cleaning person.

The proper sequence should be
AS P R Q
BR Q P S
CR P Q S
DP Q S R
A S P R Q
P should come before R – P states On the one hand” while R states “On the other hand”. This helps us to eliminate choices “b” and “c” as in these choices R comes before P. Between “S” and “P”, S is a better start to the paragraph as it sets a context for P and R. Hence choice “a” is the correct answer.
Question 26
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word:

When you are living with your ______ values and principles, you can be straight forward, honest and ______
Ainherited, distinct
Bcore, upfront
Cinnate, durable
Dcultural, perceptive
B core, upfront
In the first blank we need an adjective for ‘values and principles’. In this context, ‘inherited’ and ‘cultural’ see at odds. Hence options a and d can be eliminated. Also, the second blank must be a word that agrees with ‘straightforward and honest’. In this sense, we can also eliminate ‘durable’ as it completely unrelated to the other two qualities.
The best choice is option b, as it describes ‘values and principles’ as “core” and places “upfront” alongside ‘straightforward and honest’.
Question 27
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word:

The quality of ______ between individuals and the organisation for which they work can be ______ to the benefit of both parties.
Alife, conceptualised
Binteractions, improved
Cservice, evaluated
Dwork, better
B interactions, improved
In the first word we want a noun that describes the relationships between individuals and the organization for which they work. Clearly the only word that makes any sense is ‘interactions’. Also, the statement mentions that the quality of these interactions can be ‘improved’.
Question 28
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word:

Genetic engineering in humans should be used to ______ diseases, not to ______ genetic uniformity.
Atreat, foster
Beradicate, cater
Ccure, generate
Davoid, promote
A treat, foster
In the first blank we can see that ‘avoid’ is not applicable so we can eliminate option d. Now consider the second blank, where clearly ‘cater’ is grammatically not applicable and ‘generate’ is logically incorrect. So correct choice will be option a.
Question 29
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word:

Stating that the ATM operations are ______ losses, the nation‘s largest bank, the State Bank plans to ______ the management of some of its ATMs.
Agenerating, resource
Bgenerating, close
Cincurring, outsource
Dreporting, tighten
C incurring, outsource
In the first blank, the best choice is ‘incurring’ as it best applies to the noun ‘losses’, while ‘reporting’ can also be used (generating, while being grammatically correct is logically too extreme). Now consider the second blank for these choices – ‘to outsource the management’ is correct, while ‘to tighten the management’ has no meaning with respect to ATMs. Hence option c is the best choice.
Question 30
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word:

Most journalistic writing could do with ______ of paragraphs to make the prose more ______
Asuppression, legible
Bremoval, argumentative
Csimplification, abstruse
Ddeletion, succinct
D deletion, succinct
In options a, b and c there are logical inconsistencies/inadequacies are raises pertinent questions on whether they can be used.
How can ‘suppression of paragraphs’ make prose more ‘legible’?
Similarly, how can ‘removal of paragraphs’ make prose more ‘argumentative’?
Or how can ‘simplification of paragraphs’ make prose more ‘abstruse’ or “difficult to understand”?
The correct choice is option d, which states that ‘deletion of paragraphs’ makes prose more ‘succint’ or ‘brief and clearly expressed’.
Question 31
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word:

Angered by bureaucrat‘s ______ comments, the reporter insisted for a more ______ response.
Aredundant, repetitive
Btactless, immediate
Ccircumlocutions, direct
Dsarcastic, beneficial
C circumlocutions, direct
All options are incorrect here, but option c seems the best fit in logical terms. Note that the context of the sentence, the two blanks must have words that are opposite in meaning. So ‘redundant and ‘repetitive’ can be eliminated as they are almost synonyms’ ‘tactless and immediate’ are unrelated; ‘sarcastic and beneficial’ while being opposite in effect are not exactly antonyms.
Note that the best choice here is option c i.e. ‘circumlocutions and direct’ are exact opposite. The only problem is that ‘circumlocutions’ is a noun while we need an adjective for ‘comments’.
Question 32
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word:

One of the most productive researches ______ in contemporary neurosciences is devoted to ______ maps of human consciousness.
Atrajectories, reconnoitring
Bdesigns, enunciating
Cparadigms, elucidating
Ddeclensions, obfuscating
C paradigms, elucidating
Here too none of the options is grammatically correct, but option c can be the most logical choice here. Note that we need a noun that can be described as ‘most productive researches’, and none of the choices fulfil this condition. Instead the word preceding the blank must be ‘research’.
Now, only options b and c are appropriate as ‘research trajectories’ and ‘research declensions’ are incorrect. Also while ‘to elucidate’ which means ‘to explain’ is correct when talking about maps of human consciousness, ‘to enunciate’ which means ‘to say clearly’ makes no sense.
Question 33
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word:

But ______ are now regularly written not just for tools but well-established practices, organisations and institutions not all of which seem to be ______ away.
Areports, withering
Bstories, trading
Cbooks, dying
Dobituaries, fading
D obituaries, fading
The clearest meaning for this sentence arises when we apply option c. Thus, while ‘obituaries’ are written for many things, not all of these seem to be ‘fading’ away.
Question 34
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word:

In this context, the ______ of the British Labour Movement is particularly ______
Aaffair, weird
Bactivity, moving
Cexperience, significant
Datmosphere, gloomy
C experience, significant
Options b and d can be straightaway for lack of meaning. Also option c expresses a more coherent thought i.e. the ‘experience’ is particularly ‘significant’.
Question 35
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word:

Indian intellectuals may boast if they are so inclined of being ______ to the most elitist among the intellectual ______ of the world.
Asubordinate, traditions
Bheirs, cliques
Cancestors, societies
Dheir, traditions
B heirs, cliques
Option d can be eliminated as the first word is singular while it must be singular (to agree with ‘Indian intellectuals’. Option a can be eliminated as ‘intellectual traditions’ makes no sense. Similarly, ‘ancestors to the most elitist societies’ in option c makes very little sense either (‘ancestors’ is the exact opposite of what needs to be conveyed). The best choice is hence option b.

Section: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Question 1
Which State has become first to fix minimum educational qualification for panchayat polls ?
AKerala
BGujarat
CRajasthan
DKarnataka
C Rajasthan
Question 2
Which country was chosen to chair Partnership in Population and Development (PPD) for the year 2015?
AIndia
BChina
CSri Lanka
DGhana
B China
Question 3
Recently, the Prime Minister has launched the "Give it Up" campaign for voluntarily giving up
Ause of tobacco products
Buse of plastic
CLPG subsidy
Dblack money
C LPG subsidy
Question 4
Who bagged the best actress award at the 62nd National Film Awards?
APriyanka Chopra
BVidya Balan
CKangana Ranaut
DRani Mukherji
C Kangana Ranaut
Question 5
Simona Halep, who has won the Indian Wells Open Tennis Women
ABelgium
BRomania
CSwitzerland
DSweden
B Romania
Question 6
The winner of prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award 2014 is
AMohan Lai
BShashi Kapoor
CMani Ratnam
DGirish Karnad
B Shashi Kapoor
Question 7
The Bandung Conference was an important step towards the creation of
ANon-Alignment Movement
BUnited Nations
CEuropean Union
DSAARC
A Non-Alignment Movement
Question 8
Recently, the Union Government has appointed Amitabh Bachchan as the brand ambassador for its campaign against which disease?
ASwine Flu
BTuberculosis
CHepatitis B
DDiabetes
C Hepatitis B
Question 9
The World
AChina
BJapan
CU. S.
DRussia
A China
Question 10
Which is the only Central University in India which has Prime Minister as its Chancellor?
ABanaras Hindu University
BIndira Gandhi National Open University
CRajiv Gandhi University
DVisva Bharti University
D Visva Bharti University
Question 11
Which Country has launched the "Let Girls Learn" initiative aimed at educating 62 million girls around the World?
AUnited States
BNew Zealand
CIndia
DAustralia
A United States
Question 12
Which among the following parties declared victory in the 2015 Israel Legislative Election?
AZionist Union
BLikud
CYesh Atid
DJoint List
B Likud
Question 13
Which of the following measures the value of a currency against a basket of other currencies?
AReal Exchange Rate
BEffective Exchange Rate
CReal Effect Exchange Rate
DNominal Exchange Rate
C Real Effect Exchange Rate
Question 14
Which is the only regenerative organ in human body?
ABrain
BLiver
CPancreas
DLungs
B Liver
Question 15
What is the name of the innovative Council proposed in the Railway Budget - 2015 to promote innovation?
ANavachar
BRail Tech
CKayakalp
DSankalp
C Kayakalp
Question 16
Lysosomes, which are known as suicidal bags, are produced by which organelle?
AMitochondria
BGolgi body
CRibosome
DPeroxisome
B Golgi body
Question 17
India
A120
B135
C136
D140
C 136
Question 18
Who among the following has been named as new heir of Mysore Royal Family?
AYaduveer Gopal Raj Urs
BChaduranga Kantharajas Urs
CAditya Gurudev Urs
DChandra Shekar Urs
A Yaduveer Gopal Raj Urs
Question 19
Who among the following is often called the "Greenest Chief Minister of India" ?
APawan Kumar Chamling
BAnandiben Patel
CPrakash Singh Badal
DNabam Tuki
A Pawan Kumar Chamling
Question 20
Which part of the World is referred to as the Fertile Crescent?
ALatin Americas
BSouth East Asia
CMiddle East
DScandinavia
C Middle East
Question 21
Which of the following banks launched Pocket
AAxis Bank
BICICI Bank
CHDFC Bank
DSBI
B ICICI Bank
Question 22
India based Rickey Kej has won the Grammy Award for his album
AMorning Phase
BBeyonce
CThe Lonely Hours
DThe Winds of Samsar
D The Winds of Samsar
Question 23
Recently, UNICEF and which football legend has launched protection fund named "7' protect the World‘s most vulnerable youngsters?
ADavid Beckham
BLionel Messi
CChristiano Ronaldo
DZinedine Zidane
A David Beckham
Question 24
According to the latest data, which among the following States has attracted maximum Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the country?
AGujarat
BTamil Nadu
CMaharashtra
DKarnataka
C Maharashtra
Question 25
Which one of the following countries will hold the presidency of the BRICS New Development Bank for the first six years?
AIndia
BChina
CSouth Africa
DRussia
A India
Question 26
Which among the following States has won the 10th National Award for Excellence work in Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act?
AKarnataka
BWest Bengal
CHaryana
DMadhya Pradesh
D Madhya Pradesh
Question 27
Who is the newly appointed Chairman of the empowered Committee of State Finance Ministers on Goods & Services Tax (GST)?
AJ. K. George
BK. M. Mani
CAmit Mitra
DSaurabh Patel
B K. M. Mani
Question 28
What is the code name of the military operation in Yemen against Shia Houthi Group?
AOperation Destruction Storm
BOperation Decisive Storm
COperation Desert Storm
DOperation Black Star
B Operation Decisive Storm
Question 29
Who was sworn in as the President of Sri Lanka in January 2015?
AMahinda Deshapriya
BMahinda Rajapaksa
CGotabhaya Rajapaksa
DMithripala Sirisena
D Mithripala Sirisena
Question 30
Who is the new Chief Election Commissioner?
AH.S. Brahma
BVinod Zutshi
CNasim Zaidi
DR. Balakrishnan
C Nasim Zaidi
Question 31
A minor planet is named after which one of the following Indian Legends?
AViswanathan Anand
BSachin Tendulkar
CA. R. Rahman
DMilkha Singh
A Viswanathan Anand
Question 32
Who won the title Miss India 2015 ?
AAafreen Rachel
BVartika Singh
CKoyal Rana
DAditi Arya
D Aditi Arya
Question 33
AMr. Lee Kuan Yew
BMr. Lee Hsien Loong
CMr. Lim Hng Kiang
DMr. Lee Li Lian
A Mr. Lee Kuan Yew
Question 34
Election Commission (EC) on has announced to launch Electoral Roll Authentication Mission (ERAM) and Purification Drive. What is the aim of the mission?
ATo enlist all the eligible voters in voters list
BTo create awareness about the voting right
CTo weed out bogus voters from the voters list
D(a) and (c)
C To weed out bogus voters from the voters list
Question 35
What is the name of the party of the Australian Prime Minister Tony Abbott that saw a confidence vote on spilling the top leadership in February 2015?
ALiberal Party
BAustralian Greens
CLabour Party
DPalmer United Party
A Liberal Party

Section: LEGAL APTITUDE

Question 1
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A statement is defamatory in nature if it is injurious to a person's reputation and if the statement has been published.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Rudra had been dating a girl named Kiara for three weeks. But he had introduced himself to her as Ricky Thakur (who is one of Rudra‘s friends) and he continued to be Ricky for the rest of their relationship. But ultimately the relationship ended badly and Kiara being upset and angry at Rudra started a website named ricky-thakur-is-a-jerk.com‘. She created this website so as to warn other girls about Ricky Thakur‘. The real Ricky Thakur files a suit for defamation.
DECISION:
AKiara shall be held liable for defamation as she published a statement which was injurious to Ricky‘s reputation.
BRudra shall be held liable as he had led Kiara into thinking that he was Ricky Thakur and moreover, it was his fault in the first place that made Kiara create this website.
CKiara cannot be held liable as she had actually been referring to Rudra and not the real Ricky Thakur.
DKiara cannot be held liable as her act was done in good faith as she intended to warn other girls.
A Kiara shall be held liable for defamation as she published a statement which was injurious to Ricky‘s reputation.
Kiara shall be held liable for defamation as she published a statement which was injurious to Ricky‘s reputation. Principle does not require intention to defame rather there are only three essentials which are required to be fulfilled in order to hold Kiara liable for defamation i.e. statement- such statement injure the reputation and – publication of such injurious statement. Kiara has fulfilled all the essentials and hence she is liable.
Question 2
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Whoever stores a substance which could cause damage on escape shall be absolutely liable (i.e. liable even when he has exercised necessary care) for any damage caused by the escape of the substance.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL) manufactured methyl isocyanate, an extremely toxic gas. Due to a storm, the gas that was being stored in sealed containers got released. Before much could happen, the local municipal authorities managed to contain the disaster. The authorities filed a suit against UCIL for the costs that were incurred in decontamination. However, later it was realized that the clean-up by the authorities could have been done without spending as much resources and the damage was not that significant. UCIL argued that it would pay only part of the amount demanded by the authorities, which could have dealt with the contamination.
DECISION:
AUCIL is liable only to the extent of contamination caused. It does not need to pay the authorities the entire amount demanded by them.
BThe authorities are entitled to the whole sum, as UCIL shall be held liable for all the repercussions of their act even if they had exercised due care.
CUCIL can plead that the escape of the gas had been caused by a storm and not due to its own negligence. It was an inevitable accident.
D The municipal authorities should have analyzed the damage first before jumping into action. It was due to their own negligence because of which they had to shell out more than required.
C UCIL can plead that the escape of the gas had been caused by a storm and not due to its own negligence. It was an inevitable accident.
The liability is not dependent upon the amount or quantum of damage rather if any amount of damage is caused by a dangerous thing on escape, the person or organisation shall be liable. Hence, the authorities are entitled to the entire sum, as UCIL shall be held liable for all the repercussions of their act even if they had exercised due care and that forms the basis of Absolute liability that entity is liable even if it has exercised due care and caution.
Question 3
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A partner is liable for the debts incurred by the other partners in the course of partnership.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Satwik and Prateek enter into a partnership to produce a film wherein Satwik also directs the movie. The movie bombed at the box office. Consequently, they run into financial difficulties and the partnership ends. Prateek goes to Abbas to borrow some money, which Abbas debts from the partnership. Prateek takes the money and absconds to Malibu. Abbas sues Satwik for the amount. Decide.
DECISION:
ASatwik is liable to return the money as it was his partner, Prateek, who directed the movie.
BAbbas has been negligent in not properly enquiring the purpose! for which Prateek borrowed the money. Satwik is not liable to pay him back according to the principle of contributory negligence.
CSatwik is not liable as Prateek absconded with the money instead of using it to pay off the debts in the partnership.
DSatwik  is  not  liable  as  by  the  time  Prateek  borrowed  money  from  Abbas,  the partnership was no more in existence.
B Abbas has been negligent in not properly enquiring the purpose! for which Prateek borrowed the money. Satwik is not liable to pay him back according to the principle of contributory negligence.
It is the fundamental requirement of given principle that the debts must have been incurred by the other partners “in the course of partnership” but in the facts Pateek went to Abbas after the partnership ended and therefore Satwik will not be held liable for the act of Prateek as he was not a partner.
Question 4
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Everybody is under a legal obligation to take reasonable care to avoid act or omission which he can foresee would injure his neighbor, the neighbor for this purpose is any person whom he should have in his mind as likely to be affected by his act.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Krish, while driving a car at a high speed in a crowded road knocked down a cyclist. The cyclist died on the spot with a lot of blood spilling around Lekha,  a  pregnant  woman  passing  by,  suffered  from  a  nevous  shock,  leading  to abortion. Lekha filed a suit against Krishnan claiming damages.
DECISION:
AKrish will be liable, because he owed a duty of reasonable care to everybody on the road including Lekha.
BKrish will not be liable, because he could not have foreseen Lekha suffering from nervous shock as a result of his act.
CKrish will be liable to Lekha because he failed to drive carefully.
DNone of the above.
B Krish will not be liable, because he could not have foreseen Lekha suffering from nervous shock as a result of his act.
As per the given principle, the person will be liable only if it can be forseen that the act would injure the neighbour but in the given case neither the pregnant lady was Krish’s neighbour nor it could be foreseen that his act would cause nervous shock. Krish is not liable.
Question 5
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The occupier of a premise owes a duty of care to all his invitees and visitors.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Lalit was running a dairy from his house. People used a Dart of his farm as shortcut to get to a nearby railway station. Lalit who did not approve of this, put up a notice that "Trespassers will be prosecuted". However since a number of these people were also his customers he tolerated them. One day a person who was using this short cut was attacked by a bull belonging to the farm. The injured person filed a suit against him.
DECISION:
ALalit is not liable in view of the clear notice against trespassers.
BLalit is liable for having kept a bull on his farm.
CLalit, is not liable to the people other than his customers.
DLalit is liable because in fact he allowed the people to use his premises.
D Lalit is liable because in fact he allowed the people to use his premises.
Since Lalit allowed invitees and visitors he will be under a duty of care and where the bull attacked one of the visitor, Lalit will be liable.
Question 6
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE : A master shall be liable for the acts of his servants done in the course of employment.
FACTUAL SITUATION: PUL, a public sector undertaking, is operating a number of bus services for its employees in Pune. These buses are quite distinct in their appearance and carry the  board  "for  PUL   employees  only".  M, a villager from neighbouring state, was waiting for a regular bus in one of the bus stops in Pune. A bus belonging to PUL happened to stop nearby and number of people got into the bus. M, without realizing that it was PUL bus, got into the bus and soon thereafter, the bus met  with an accident due to  driver‘s negligence. M, along with several others, was injured in the accident. M seeks to file a suit against PUL claiming damages.
DECISION:
AM will succeed, because he got into the bus without realizing that it was PUL bus.
BM will not succeed, because it was for him to find out whether it was a public transport.
CM will succeed, because the driver was anyhow duty-bound to drive carefully.
DPUL is not liable as the bus met with an accident due to driver‘s negligence.
C M will succeed, because the driver was anyhow duty-bound to drive carefully.
Notwithstanding the fact that the bus was for PUL employees only, the driver owed duty of care to all people in and around the bus. M suffered an injury due to the bus driver’s negligence. The bus driver was in course of employment during that time, and hence, M will succeed.
Question 7
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Only Parliament or State Legislatures have the authority to enact laws on their own. No law made by the State can take away a person‘s fundamental right.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Parliament enacted a law, which according to a group of lawyers is violating the fundamental rights of traders. A group of lawyers files a writ petition challenging the Constitutional validity of the statute seeking relief to quash the statute and further direct Parliament to enact a new law.
DECISION:
AThe court can quash the existing law if it violates fundamental rights but cannot direct Parliament to make a new law.
BThe court can quash existing law if it violates fundamental rights and can direct Parliament to make a new law.
CNo  writ  would  lie  against  Parliament,  as  the  court  has  no  authority  to  direct Parliament to enact or re-enact a law.
DThe  court  cannot  quash  the  law  as  reasonable  restrictions  can  be  put  on  the fundamental rights.
C No  writ  would  lie  against  Parliament,  as  the  court  has  no  authority  to  direct Parliament to enact or re-enact a law.
Court can quash a law if it violates a person’s fundamental right. But it cannot direct the Parliament to make a new law making option (c) the most appropriate answer. Legislature and Judiciary works within their distinct spheres and one is not allowed to interfere in the functioning of other unless there occurs a gross injustice or violation.
Question 8
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that person to such an act or abstinence, he is said to have made a proposal.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Ram sends a telegram to Sohan, writing: "Will you sell me your Rolls Royce  car?  Telegram  the  lowest  cash  price. Sohan  also  replied  by telegram: "Lowest price for car is Rs. 20 lakh". Ram immediately sent his consent through telegram stating: "I agree to buy the car for Rs. 20 lakh asked by you'' Sohan refused to sell the car.
DECISION:
AHe cannot refuse to sell the car because the contract has already been made.
BHe can refuse to sell the car because it was only invitation to offer and not the real offer.
CIt was not a valid offer because willingness to enter into a contract was absent.
DIt was not a valid contract as offer and acceptance is conveyed through telegram.
C It was not a valid offer because willingness to enter into a contract was absent.
For a proposal, a person must signify his willingness to the other party to do or abstain from doing something. Here, Shyam has merely replied with the lowest price for the car Rs. 20 lakhs. This does not signify that he was willing to sell the car at this point and since there is no willingness to enter into contract, (c) will be the most appropriate answer.
Question 9
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interests.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Mr. X who is usually of sound state of mind, but occasionally of unusual state of mind, enters into a contact with Mr. Y when he was of unsound state of mind. Mr. Y having come to know about this fact afterwards, wants to file a suit against Mr. X.
DECISION:
AMr. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound state of mind when he entered into contract.
BMr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on the other party to prove that he was of unsound state of mind at the time of contract.
CMr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on the other party to prove that he sound state of mind at the time of contract.
DContract with a person of unsound mind is void.
A Mr. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound state of mind when he entered into contract.
Given principle clearly implies that the parties must be of sound mind at the time of entering into a contract hence where Mr. X entered into a contract when he was of unsound mind, it would be invalid and he cannot enter into the contract.
Question 10
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Ignorance of Fact is excused but ignorance of law is no excuse to criminal liability.
FACTUAL SITUATION: X was a passenger from Zurich to Manila in a Swiss Plane. When the plane landed at the Airport of Bombay on 22 November 2014 it was found on searching that X carried 34 kg of Gold Bars on his person and that he had not declared it in the Manifest  of Transit‘.  On 24 November 2014, the Government  of India had issued a notification modifying its earlier exemption, making it mandatory now that the gold must be declared in the "Manifest" of the aircraft.
DECISION:
AX cannot be prosecuted because he had actually no knowledge about the new notification issued two days ago.
BX cannot be prosecuted because ignorance of fact is excusable
CX can be prosecuted because ignorance of law is not excusable
DX's liability would depend on the discretion of the court
C X can be prosecuted because ignorance of law is not excusable
It’s a matter of law that Government of India had issued a notification modifying its earlier exemption, making it mandatory now that the gold must be declared in the ―Manifest of the aircraft and since the declaration was not made by Mr. X he will be found ignorant of law and hence will be liable.
Question 11
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE:  Any  direct  physical  interference  with  goods  in  somebody‘s possession without lawful justification is called trespass of goods.
FACTUAL SITUATION:  Z purchased a car from a person who has no title to it and sent it to garage for repair. X believed wrongly that the car was his, removed it from the garage. Has X committed any offence?
DECISION:
AX cannot be held response for trespass of goods as he was under a wrong belief.
BX can be held responsible for trespass of goods.
CZ has no right over the car as he purchased it from a person who had no title over it.
DNone of the above.
B X can be held responsible for trespass of goods.
X can be held responsible for trespass of goods as mistaken belief will not be considered as a lawful justification. Liability in torts is based on the outward act which results in injuria.
Question 12
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. Bigamy is not permitted under Hindu law.
2. A Hindu of sound mind can adopt a child of the gender they don‘t already have a child of.
3.  Only the  child‘s father, mother  or  guardian has the  capacity to  give the  child up in adoption, under Hindu law.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Ramesh comes from a family where from the past two generations; all male members have had two wives. He also wants to continue this tradition and thus he married Suman first and then Tania. Ramesh has a son, Gunjan with Suman. However, with Tania, he is childless. He thus wishes to adopt some children. Rajat is the child of Ramesh‘s brother.  However, Rajat‘s parents decide to go off to Dubai for 5 years and they leave their son under the care of Ramesh‘s sister. Ramesh and Tania ask for Rajat in adoption from his sister who agrees and Rajat is adopted. Later, Ramesh and Suman want to adopt a daughter as well and they do adopt a girl - Sara -from an orphanage. However, at the time of signing the adoption deed, Ramesh was dead drunk. Ramesh and his entire family member are Buddhists. Keeping in mind the given principles and facts, solve the questions Is Rajat‘s adoption a valid adoption?
DECISION:
ANo, because Ramesh already has a son.
BNo, because Ramesh‘s sister has no authority to give Rajat up in adoption.
CYes, it is a valid adoption because Ramesh has no child with Tania and Ramesh‘s sister is Rajat‘s guardian for 5 years at least.
DBoth (a) and (b)
D Both (a) and (b)
Ramesh’s marriage with Tania is void even though he had a family tradition of having two wives. As per principle-2, Ramesh cannot adopt another son because he already has a son named Gunjan with his first legal wife named Suman and Ramesh‘s sister has no authority to give Rajat up in adoption because Ramesh’s sister is not the guardian of the child and therefore she has no authority to give the child in adoption.
Question 13
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL  PRINCIPLES:  Whoever  dishonestly  takes  away  any  property  from  the possession of another, with an intention of such taking away, without his permission is liable for theft.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Raja, a famous gangster, moves into an apartment in Kankurgachi, Calcutta. There, he discovers that the previous owner of the apartment had left behind a pair of beautiful ivory handled combs. Mesmerized by their beauty and confused as to whom he should be returning them to, he decides to retain them and starts using them. The previous owner of the combs gets to know this and registers an FIR for theft against Raja. Is Raja liable?
DECISION:
ARaja is liable for theft as he failed to return the property even when he knew it was someone else‘s property.
BRaja is not liable as he is not taken it away from anyone else‘s possession and there was no dishonest intention.
CRaja is liable as you don‘t expect anything better from a gangster.
DRaja is not liable as he was confused as to whom he should be returning the property to.
B Raja is not liable as he is not taken it away from anyone else‘s possession and there was no dishonest intention.
In order to hold a person liable for theftm it is essential that that the property must have been ‘taken away with dishonest intention’ whereas the facts clearly reveal that Raja ‘retained’ the ivory comb as it was left behind by the previous owner. Hence the property was found and not taken away therefore Raja is not liable for theft.
Question 14
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLES: The state shall make special laws for the upliftment of citizens of the country, and these laws can be made for the benefit of any specific caste, class or sex of people living in the society.
FACTUAL SITUATION: The state of Hindu Pradesh comes out with a law, which provided  for  reservation  to  Muslims  in  all  government  and  government  aided institutions. This law is challenged in the High Court of Hindu Pradesh, as being arbitrary and contrary to the established laws. Can the challenge be successful?
DECISION:
AYes, since people from other religions would also start making such demands, which would jeopardize the unity and integrity of the country.
BNo, since the state has the right to make special laws for the upliftment of the citizens of the country.
CYes, since the state has not been mandated to make reservation, based on a person‘s religion.
DNo, since the Government cannot neglect the minorities.
C Yes, since the state has not been mandated to make reservation, based on a person‘s religion.
Reservation can be allowed only on the basis of caste, class or sex of people. While the state has benefitted Muslims, which is a religious group, hence, the challenge will be successful on the grounds of it being violative.
Question 15
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL  PRINCIPLE: The  master/principal  is  liable  for  all  acts  done  by  his  duly appointed servant/agent for all acts done by him lawfully in the course of his employment.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A, B, C and D carried on a business in partnership. While making a deal with another company, B bribed the clerk there. Is the partnership firm vicariously liable?
DECISION:
ANo, as bribing is not in course of employment of the partners.
BYes, as partners are agent of the firm.
CYes, as B can be said to have implied authority for the same.
DNo, as this act was not authorised by the others.
D No, as this act was not authorised by the others.
As per the principle, master is liable only for the lawful act done in the course of employment but in the facts even though the act is done in course of employment but the act itself is illegal and unlawful and therefore partner are not liable for the unlawful act.
Question 16
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A contract which is impossible to perform becomes void.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Surender agreed to deliver a specific quality of rice to Sonakshi identified by both of them. Before delivery, the rice was burnt by short circuit. Is Surender discharged from the performance of the contract?
DECISION:
ASurender is discharged from performance as the subject matter of the contract is destroyed.
BSurender is discharged from performance as the subject matter has been specifically identified.
CSurender is not discharged from performance as he can procure rice from other sources
DNone of the above.
A Surender is discharged from performance as the subject matter of the contract is destroyed.
Surender stands discharged from performance as the subject matter of the contract is destroyed and it is now impossible for the parties to perform the contract.
Question 17
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Whoever dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use any movable property is guilty of criminal misappropriation of property.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A finds a government promissory note belonging to Z, bearing a blank endorsement. A knowing that the note belongs to Z, pledges it with a banker as a security for a loan, intending to restore it to Z at a future time Has A committed criminal misappropriation?
DECISION:
AYes since he deprived Z from using his property and used it for his own use.
BNo, since he intended to return the property to Z in the future.
CNo, it is theft and not criminal misappropriation.
DYes since he deprived Z from using his property.
A Yes since he deprived Z from using his property and used it for his own use.
‘A’ will be liable the moment he pledges the promissory note of ‘Z’ with banker as a security for a loan because it amounts to misappropriation. Dishonestly depriving a person of his valuables even for a temporary period of time amounts to misappropriation.
Question 18
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL  PRINCIPLE:  Nobody  shall  unlawfully interfere   with  a  person‘s  use  or enjoyment  of  land,  or  some  right  over,  or  in  connection  with  it.  The use  or enjoyment, envisaged herein, should be normal and reasonable taking into account surrounding situation.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Joy and Prakash were neighbours in a residential locality Prakash started a typing class in a part of his house and his typing sound disturbed Jogi who could not put up with any kind of continuous noise- He filed a suit against Prakash.
DECISION:
APrakash is liable, because he should not have started typing class in his house.
BPrakash is liable, because as a neighbour, he should have realised Jogi’s delicate nature.
CPrakash is not liable, because typing sound did not disturb anyone else other than Jogi.
DNone of the above.
D None of the above.
The question would fall in tough category because the options do not perfectly match the given situation. Option (a) will not be correct because it is suggestive in nature. Option (b) will again not be correct because facts nowhere mentions the delicate nature and choosing this option would amount to applying personal knowledge. Option (c) will again be ruled out because causing disturbance to anyone else or not is neither a criteria mentioned in principle nor it is mentioned in facts. Hence (d) will be most appropriate option.
Question 19
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death or with the intention  of  causing  such  bodily  injury  as  is  likely  to  cause  death  or  with  the knowledge that he is likely by such act to cause death commits the offence of culpable homicide.
2. Mens rea and actus reus must concur to result in a crime which is punishable by the law.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A and B went for shooting. A knows Z to be behind a bush. B does not know it. A induces B to fire at the bush. B fires and kills Z Has an offence been committed?
DECISION:
AA had mens rea but no actus reus. B had actus reus but no mens rea. No one is guilty.
BA induced B to fire at the bush with the knowledge that Z is there. A is guilty of culpable homicide but B is not guilty of any offence.
CBoth A and B are guilty.
DNone of the above.
B A induced B to fire at the bush with the knowledge that Z is there. A is guilty of culpable homicide but B is not guilty of any offence.
In the present case, although B does the act of firing at the bush, it was A who induced him to fire at Z as he knew Z to be behind the bush. It was his act of inducing B that resulted in Z’s death. Hence option (b) is the most appropriate answer.
Question 20
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. The crime of kidnapping involves taking someone away from the custody of their lawful guardian.
2. The crime of abduction involves inducing or forcing somebody to go away from some place against their will.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A steals B‘s slave. Is it a crime?
DECISION:
I. Kidnapping
II. Abduction
III. Neither
REASON:
(a) Slavery is illegal.
(b) A has taken him away from B‘s lawful custody.
(c) A has forced somebody to go with him against his will.
DECISION:
Al (b)
Bll (c)
CIII (a)
Dl (a)
B ll (c)
Stealing someone’s slave is not kidnapping because master of the slave is not his lawful guardian but it will be abduction because A by stealing has forced B’s slave to go from one place to another.
Question 21
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Whoever delivers to another person as genuine any counterfeit currency which he knows to be counterfeit, but which that other person is not aware of at the time when he received it, is guilty of counterfeiting currency.
FACTUAL SITUATION: While returning home one day, Roshni realizes that the local shopkeeper has given her a fake note of Rs. 1,000. Disappointed, she goes to the same shop and buys cosmetics worth Rs. 600. She then passes the same fake note to the shopkeeper. The shopkeeper while inspecting the note finds out that it is fake. Is Roshni guilty?
DECISION:
ANo, as she was merely attempting to return the note to the same shopkeeper who gave her the note.
BNo, she is not guilty of any offence as neither did she manufacture the note nor did she circulate it with a view to deceive the public.
CYes, as she attempted to pass on a note which she knew was counterfeit.
DNo, the shopkeeper is guilty as he was the one who circulated the counterfeit note to Roshni.
C Yes, as she attempted to pass on a note which she knew was counterfeit.
The principle clearly states that anyone who knowingly delivers a counterfeit currency is liable and in the facts Roshni delivered the fake note to the shopkeeper knowing that it is fake, hence, is liable.
Question 22
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. To constitute a punishable criminal offence, guilty intention must accompany an illegal act.
2. Criminal mischief means causing damage to public property intentionally or with the knowledge that harm may occur.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Neel being a Shahrukh Khan fan went for the premier of the movie, Happy New Year. As usual, he carried his pen-knife, a gift from his dead mother. At the security check, impatient of waiting in the queue, Neel slunk past the guards and the metal detector when no one was watching. Later, he was apprehended in the hall and charged for mischief and possession of a weapon when it was expressly forbidden.
DECISION:
ANeel is not criminally liable since he had no intention to commit mischief.
BLiable for possession of the weapon since it was expressly forbidden and mere possession was enough; although he might not be liable for mischief as he did not do anything.
CNeel is not liable since the pen knife had an emotional value and rather the guards should be punished for the security breach.
DLiable for both possession of weapon and criminal mischief since he slunk past the guards which shows his intention to commit the crime.
A Neel is not criminally liable since he had no intention to commit mischief.
Even though Neel slunk past the guards but he did not took the pen knife inside the hall with an intention to commit a crime. He is also not liable for mischief because there is no intention or knowledge manifested by Neel to cause damage to public property.
Question 23
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. Everyone has a right to defend their life and property against criminal harm provided it is not possible to approach public authorities and more harm than is necessary has been caused to avert the danger.
2. Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence.
FACTUAL  SITUATION: The  accused  found  the  deceased  engaged  in  sexual intercourse with his 15 year old daughter. The accused assaulted the deceased on the head with a spade which resulted in his death. Accused claimed private defense and the prosecution claimed that the sexual intercourse was with the consent of the daughter. Here,
DECISION:
AAccused is entitled to the right of private defence since the girl was only 15 years old.
BAccused exceeded the right of private defence.
CAccused is not entitled to private defence as the intercourse was consensual
DAccused is not entitled to private defence as the right of private defence is available for defending one‘s life and property only.
D Accused is not entitled to private defence as the right of private defence is available for defending one‘s life and property only.
The given principle clearly states that everyone has a right to defend their life and property against criminal harm but in the given case the act in question has been done to defend daughter and not oneself and secondly daughter does not also falls in the category of property hence the act is a crime of aggression and is not protected under the right of private defence.
Question 24
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Necessity knows no law, and any person facing danger may do all that is necessary to avert the same till he can take recourse to public authorities.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Akshay, a law abiding citizen decided to remove the weed of corruption from Indian society. One day, confronted with a bribing official, Akshay decided to teach him a lesson and punched him in his face. Akshay pleads the defence of necessity.
DECISION:
ACan plead defence of necessity as he was being bribed which is a crime.
BCannot plead defence of necessity as there was no necessity to act in the manner he acted.
CCan plead defence of necessity as aware and vigilant citizenry forms the basis of a good democracy.
DCan plead defense of necessity as there was no time to take recourse to public authorities.
B Cannot plead defence of necessity as there was no necessity to act in the manner he acted.
There is no necessity in the manner in which Akshay has reacted to weed out corruption. It is an act of aggression as there is no danger which is being averted in the given facts.
Question 25
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. Preparation to commit an offence is not an offence.
2. After one has finished preparation to commit an offence, any act done towards committing the offence with the intention to commit it, is an attempt to commit the offence which is by itself an offence.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A wanted to kill B and had therefore gone to the market to buy explosives to plant in his house. After A has planted the bomb, he felt guilty and he went back to remove the bomb but while he was doing so, B saw him and called the police. Can A be held liable?
DECISION:
AYes, because he has done something more than mere preparation
BNo, because B did not die.
CYes, because there existed a mala fide intention.
DNo, because he had removed before anything could happen.
A Yes, because he has done something more than mere preparation
In light of given principle and facts, the act of A going to the market where he buys explosives will amount to preparation but the moment he plants the bomb, the preparation will culminate into attempt and it is immaterial that he changes his mind subsequently. A will be liable for attempt.
Question 26
The Supreme Court of India constituted ______ Bench in December 2014.
AConstitution
BArbitration
CSocial Justice
DFast-Track
C Social Justice
The Supreme Court on Wednesday set up a social justice bench to deliver speedy access to constitutional rights, particularly those relating to women and children. The bench will deal exclusively with social matters, including the right to food and medical assistance.The move is designed to ensure that these cases can move quickly through the apex court and, notably, to encourage deeper deliberation on the rights and responsibilities of the state.
Question 27
Who is the author of the book "Indian Parliamentary Diplomacy Speaker‘s Perspective"?
ASumitra Mahajan
BSomnath Chaterjee
CMeira Kumar
DManohar Joshi
A Sumitra Mahajan
Former Lok Sabha speaker Meira Kumar is the author of “Indian Parliamentary Diplomacy – Speaker’s Perspective”. The book features an account of the parliamentary diplomacy and its role in furthering foreign policy and strengthening international relations. It is also a collection of select speeches and reports by Kumar during her stint as Lok Sabha speaker and as leader of Indian parliamentary delegations at several international fora.
Question 28
Which of the following recently became 123- State party to the International Criminal Court?
AIsrael
BPalestine
CJordan
DBangladesh
B Palestine
The Palestine officially became a member of the International Criminal Court. Palestine is the 123rd state party to the International Criminal Court.
Question 29
Which body has launched the "Group of Friends Against Terrorism"?
AUnited Nations
BEuropean Union
CASEAN
DSAARC
A United Nations
Group of Friends Against Terrorism is an United Nations initiative launched to combat terrorism. Created at the initiative of Morocco, the group consists of thirty countries, including the five permanent members of the UN Security Council. Group of Friends Against Terrorism will aim, among others, to create synergies between all initiative implemented within the UN, promoting international cooperation in combating terrorism, share and exchange good practices in the fight against this scourge that threatens international peace and security. India is one of the members of the group.
Question 30
Which one of the following Committee was constituted to review environmental law in the country ?
ASubramanian Committee
BKasturi Rangan Committee
CMadhav Nair Committee
DUllas Karanth Committee
A Subramanian Committee
T S R Subramanian Committee was constituted to review environmental laws in India. The committee has submitted its recommendations to the government recently.
Question 31
Which South-East Asian country has recently banned surrogacy services to end its flourishing rent-a-womb industry?
ASingapore
BIndia
CThailand
DVietnam
C Thailand
Thailand parliament has passed a law that aims to ban foreigners from seeking surrogacy services in the country. The law will end a rent-a-womb industry that made the Thailand a top destination for fertility tourism.
Question 32
The Third National Lok Adalat which disposed of 56000 cases in a single day was held under the chairmanship of
AJustice H.L. Dattu
BJustice T.S. Thakur
CJustice Jagdish Singh Khehar
DJustice Anil R Dave
A Justice H.L. Dattu
The third National Lok Adalat was organised on 14 February 2015 throughout India involving the Supreme Court, high courts, districts courts and taluka level courts, except in Assam and Uttar Pradesh. It was organised under the patronage of Chief Justice of India (CJI) H L Dattu.
Question 33
In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court, recently, held that demand for dowry can be made at any time and not necessarily before marriage?
AState of Uttarkhand v. Bhim Singh & Anr
BState of Bihar v. Arnesh Kumar & Anr
CState of Rajasthan v. Prem Kumar
DState of Punjab v. Kans Raj & Ors
A State of Uttarkhand v. Bhim Singh & Anr
In State of Uttarkhand v. Bhim Singh & Anr the Supreme Court, recently, held that demand for dowry can be made at any time and not necessarily before marriage.
Question 34
National Green Tribunal  ruled ............... old diesel vehicles cannot  ply on Delhi roads.
A15 years
B10 years
C20 years
D5 years
B 10 years
National Green Tribunal held that all diesel vehicles which are more than 10 years old will not be permitted to ply in Delhi, heavy or light, which are ten years old will not be permitted on the roads of Delhi.
Question 35
Supreme Court struck down which Section of the Information Technology Act 2000, in Shreya Singhal v. U. O. I, as unconstitutional?
A66 B
B66 A
C66 C
D66
B 66 A
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India is a judgement by a two-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India in 2015, on the issue of online speech and intermediary liability in India. The Supreme Court struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, relating to restrictions on online speech, unconstitutional on grounds of violating the freedom of speech guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India. The Court further held that the Section was not saved by virtue of being 'reasonable restrictions' on the freedom of speech under Article 19(2). The case was a watershed moment for online free speech in India

Section: REASONING

Question 1
At birth we have no self-image. We cannot distinguish anything from the confusion of light and sound around us. From this beginning of no-dimension, we gradually begin to differentiate our body from our environment and develop a sense of identity, with the realization that we are separate and independent human being. We then begin to develop a conscience, the sense of right and wrong. Further, we develop social consciousness, where we become aware that we live with other people. Finally, we develop a sense of values, which is our overall estimation of our worth in the world.

Which one of the following would be the best completion of this passage?
AThe sum total of all these developments we call the self-imaqe or the self-concept.
BThis estimation of worth is only relative to our value system.
CTherefore, our social consciousness is dependent on our sense of values
DThe sum total of living with other people and developing a sense of values makes us a total person.
A The sum total of all these developments we call the self-imaqe or the self-concept.
The opening line introduces the main idea of the passage – At birth we have no self – image. So the main idea is self-image. The passage moves on to explain how we evolve – given the main subject of the passage all these changes will lead us to better understanding of the concept of self – image. This is mentioned only in choice “a” and so it is the correct answer.
Question 2
Violence against racial and religious minority groups increased sharply throuqhout the country last year, despite the decline in state wide figures. Compilinq incidents from police departments and private watchdog groups, the County Human Relations Committee reported almost 500 hate crimes in the year, up from only 200 last year It was the first increase since the committee began to report a yearly figure six years ago. The lower state wide figures are probably in error due to underreporting in other counties; underreporting is the major problem that state surveyors face each

All of the following, if true, would support the conclusion or the explanation of the discrepancy in the state and county figures EXCEPT-
AThe number of hate crimes and those resulting in fatalities has increased in neighbouring states.
BAnti- immigration sentiment was fanned this year by an anti- immigration ballot referendum.
CMany law- abiding member of minority groups are fearful or distrustful of the police.
DAll of the countries in the state have active private watchdogs groups that carefully monitor hat crimes.
D All of the countries in the state have active private watchdogs groups that carefully monitor hat crimes.
There seems to be some typo error in this question. We have solved this question by treating country as county. There is a discrepancy in state wide figures (lower in number) and figures quoted by County Human Relations Committee (higher in number). The conclusion is that the fault is with state wise figures. Choice “d” by ensuring credibility of county wise numbers strengthen the given conclusion. It states that the counties carefully monitor their numbers and thus the chance of their being at fault our minimal. This implies that the numbers of State are under quoted.
Question 3
In the last three years, the numbers of arrests for burglary and robbery in Sandy Beach has declined by more than 30 percent. At the same time, the city has reduced the size of its police force by 25 percent.

Which one of the following helps to resolve an apparent discrepancy in the information above?
ANeighbouring Watch programs have always been active in Sand Beach.
BThe number of reported burglaries and robberies in Sandy Beach has increased in the last three years.
CCompared to other cities in the state, Sandy Beach has one of the lowest crime rates.
DMany of the residents of Sandy Beach have installed expensive security systems in their homes.
B The number of reported burglaries and robberies in Sandy Beach has increased in the last three years.
Choices “b” and “d” are close choices. Choices “b” implies the result of reduced police size. Low police size resulted in more burglaries and robberies. At the same time since the size of police was reduced the number of arrests also declined. Choice “d” on the other hand gives a reason as to why a reduction in the size of police resulted in lower number of arrests. So because many residents had installed expensive security system in their homes chances are there would have been a significant drop in the number of robberies which ultimately resulted in the lower number of arrests. Though the official answer key states “b” as the correct answer even choice “d” helps to resolve the discrepancy.
Question 4
To be admitted to Bigshot University, you must have a 3.5 grade-point average (GPA) and a score of 800 on the admission test, a 3.0 GPA and a score of 1.000 on the admission test, or a 2.5 GPA and a score of 1,200 on the admission test. A sliding scale exists for the other scores and GPAs.

Which one of the following is inconsistent with the above?
AJagan was admitted with a 2.7 GPA and a score of 1,100 on the admission test.
BNo student with a score less than 800 on the admission test and a 3.4 GPA will be admitted.
CMore applicants had a GPA of 3.5 than had a GPA of 2.5.
DSome of the students with a score of less than 1,200 on the admissions test and a GPA of less than 2.5 were admitted.
D Some of the students with a score of less than 1,200 on the admissions test and a GPA of less than 2.5 were admitted.
We have been given three data points and the pattern that emerge from these is that the lower the grade point the higher the score is required on the admission test. So with a score of 2.5 GPA a candidate requires a score of 1200 on the admission test. So for a GPA of less than 2.5 a score of more than 1200 on the admission test will be required. Choice “d” provides information which contradicts this and so is inconsistent and is, therefore, the correct answer.
Question 5
Only 75 years ago, the best fishing in the world was the Grand Banks of the North Atlantic. But now overfishing and man‘s pollution have decimated the area. There will be no fishing industry in the Americas in a few years. The waters on Newfoundland now yield less than the catch of five years ago, and less than one quarter of the total of ten years ago. The cod has almost disappeared. The numbers I of fishermen in Newfoundland and New England have declined, and their yearly earnings are now at an all-time low. Yet radar has made fishing methods more efficient than ever.

Which one of the following identifies most clearly a faulty assumption in the reasoning of this passage?
AThe argument fails to consider that the decline in the catch may be due to factors other than pollution.
BThe argument assumes that the waters off Newfoundland are representative of all the American oceans.
CThe pollution of the sea may have been caused by natural as well as by human forces.
DThe argument does not allow for the possibility that the catch may increase in size in the next five years.
B The argument assumes that the waters off Newfoundland are representative of all the American oceans.
The passage provides information about Newfoundland and draws conclusion about all the American oceans. It may or may not be true depending on the contribution or share that Newfoundland has of all the American oceans. It is like saying that because a student underperformed in one section he will not be able to clear an aptitude test. This may or may not be true. If the weightage of this section in the aptitude test is huge then this may be true. On the other hand if the weightage of this section in the exam is minimal than the student may still clear the exam despite having underperformed in one section. So choice “b” is the correct answer.
Question 6
A number of lawsuits have been brought against popular singing groups charging that suicidal themes in their songs have led to teenage suicides. So far, the courts have found that the lyrics are protected under the Constitution. But what if this should change and a court decides that suicidal themes in popular songs are dangerous? In fact the songs that have been charged so far are anti-suicide, they present sardonically the self-destructive behaviour of drinking, drugs, and escape by death. They describe a pitiful state of mind, but they do not endorse it. Blaming suicide on the arts is nothing new. In the late eighteenth century Goethe‘s popular novel The Sorrows of Young Werther was said to be the cause of a rash of suicides imitation of the novel‘s hero. If we begin to hold suicide in books or music responsible for suicides in real life the operas of Verdi and Puccini will have to go, and Romeo and Juliet and Julius Caesar will disappear from the high school reading lists.

Which one of the following is an assumption necessary to the author‘s argument.
AA lyric presenting suicide in a favourable light should not have Constitutional protection.
BLiterature or music cannot directly influence human behaviour.
CFreedom of speech is most threatened by our personal freedom.
DThe audience, not the performer, is responsible for the audience s actions.
B Literature or music cannot directly influence human behaviour.
The author’s argument/conclusion is that music or literature is not to be blamed for people committing suicides. The primary assumption made by the author is that neither music nor literature can influence human behavior and hence should not be blamed for the results (suicides) attributed to them.
Question 7
Archaeologists have come to the support of Arctic anthropologists. A small minority of anthropologists assert that Stone Age tribes of the Arctic domesticated wolves and trained them to haul sleds. Excavations have recently found evidence to support this claim. Archaeologists have found wolf bones near the site of a Stone Age village. They have also found walrus bones that might have been used on primitive sleds. The small minority of anthropologists believe that their theories have been proved.

Which one of the following is true of the evidence cited in the paragraph above?
AIt conclusively contradicts the anthropologists‘ conclusions.
BIt neither supports nor refutes the anthropologist‘ conclusions positively.
CIt conclusively supports only a part of the anthropologists‘ conclusions.
DIt supports the anthropologists‘ conclusions authoritatively.
B It neither supports nor refutes the anthropologist‘ conclusions positively.
The evidence neither supports nor refutes the conclusion. It merely states the existence of two components – wolf bones and walrus bones that might have been used on primitive sleds. It fails to establish whether these existed at the same time and also whether the second one was in fact used by the wolves. They could have co-existed at the same time without having any interaction with each other.
Question 8
If the student performs exactly one experiment, which one of the following could be the colours of the chemicals in resulting three non-empty flasks ?
Ablue, blue, green
Bblue, orange, orange
Cblue, orange , red
Dgreen, green, red
D green, green, red
If we mix 1 and 2 we will get red color and will be left with 3 and 4. So total flasks filled post this experiment will be one flask with red color and flask 3 and 4.
The total possible cases after experiment 1 will be:-

As could be seen in case 5, choice “d” is the correct answer.
Question 9
If the student performs exactly two experiments, which one of the following could be the colours of the chemicals in the resulting two non-empty flasks ?
Ablue, blue
Bblue, orange
Cblue, red
Dgreen, red
C blue, red
If we mix 1 and 2 we will get red color and will be left with 3 and 4. So total flasks filled post this experiment will be one flask with red color and flask 3 and 4.
The total possible cases after experiment 1 will be:-

The cases for two experiments are 3:-

As could be seen in the table above blue and red could be the colors of the chemicals in the resulting two non – empty flasks. This when flask 1 and flask 2 are mixed and flask 3 and 4 are mixed. The order is not important. So the correct choice is “c”.
Question 10
If the student performs exactly one experiment and none of the resulting three nonempty flasks contains a red chemical, which one of the following could be the colours of the chemicals in the three flasks ?
Ablue, blue, green
Bblue, green, green
Cblue, green , orange
Dblue, orange, orange
B blue, green, green

After one experiment if none of the flasks contain a red chemical we might be referring to cases 2 and 3. As could be seen in case 3, choice “b” is the correct answer.
Question 11
If the student performs exactly one experiment and exactly one of the resulting three non-empty flasks contains a blue chemical, which one of the following must be the colours of the chemicals in other two flasks ?
Aboth green
Bboth orange
Cboth red
Done green and one red
A both green

If after exactly one experiment exactly one of the resulting three non-empty flasks contain a blue chemical we are referring to case 3. As could be seen in case 3, option “a” is the correct choice.
Question 12
If the student will perform exactly two experiments and after the first experiment exactly one of the resulting three non-empty flasks contains an orange chemical, then in the second experiment the student could mix together the contents of flasks
A1 and 2
B1 and 3
C2 and 3
D3 and 4
D 3 and 4
If we mix 1 and 2 we will get red color and will be left with 3 and 4. So total flasks filled post this experiment will be one flask with red color and flask 3 and 4.
The total possible cases after experiment 1 will be:-

If after the first experiment exactly one of the resulting three non – empty flasks contain an orange chemical – this could happen in only case 1 and case 2. The second experiment in these cases will be as shown below:

Flask 3 and 4 are given in choice “d” and so it is the correct choice.
Question 13
If the student performs exactly one experiment and none of the resulting three non-empty flasks contains an orange chemical, then the student must have mixed the contents of
Aflask 1 with flask 2
Bflask 2 with flask 4
Cflask 2 with one of the other flasks
Dflask 4 with one of the other flasks
D flask 4 with one of the other flasks

If the student performs exactly one experiment and none of the resulting three non-empty flasks contain an orange chemical, we are referring to cases 3, 4 and 5. As could be seen in all the cases flask 4 is the common flask. So the correct answer is choice “d”.
Question 14
How is P related to M ?
ASon
BBrother
CDaughter
DUncle
B Brother

P is the sibling of M. We don’t know the gender of P so the correct answer should have been cannot be determined. Since that is not in the choice the correct answer is “b”.
Question 15
How is Q related to O ?
AGrandfather
BUncle
CGrandson
DBrother
C Grandson

Q is the grandson of O.
Question 16
Who is M's father ?
AO
BR
CN
DP
A O

O is M’s father.
Question 17
A car starting from K at 9 a.m. and running at a constant speed towards Y reaches H at 9.24 a.m. and then reaches G at
A9.18 a.m.
B10.16 a.m.
C10.36 a.m.
D10.42 a.m.
B 10.16 a.m.
After plotting the information in the form of a diagram we get the figure as is shown below:-

Distance between points:
YG = 12km, YZ = 20km, YL = 24km, YH = 38km, YK = 50km
From K to H the distance is 12 kms. The car takes 244 minutes to cover the distance which means the speed of the car is Distance/Time = (12/24) = 1/2 = 0.5 kms per minute.
From K to G the total distance is 38 kms. So time taken to cover 38 kms will be 38/0.5 = 76 minutes. The car started at 9 a.m, so it will reach G at 9 a.m plus 76 minutes = 10:16 a.m.
Question 18
If M is 1 km to the southeast of L, then it is exactly midway between
AH and L
BY and K
CH and Z
DNone of these
B Y and K
After plotting the information in the form of a diagram we get the figure as is shown below:-

Distance between points:
YG = 12km, YZ = 20km, YL = 24km, YH = 38km, YK = 50km
If M is 1 km to the southeast of L, then the distance between YM will be YL + 1 km = 25 kms. This means point M is exactly between Y and K.
Question 19
The distance from G to H is
A26 km
B24 km
C12 km
D16 km
B 24 km
After plotting the information in the form of a diagram we get the figure as is shown below:-

Distance between points:
YG = 12km, YZ = 20km, YL = 24km, YH = 38km, YK = 50km
YG = 12 kms and YH = 38 kms, hence the distance between GH = 26 kms.
Question 20
Each question contains four arguments of three sentences each Choose the set in which the third statement is a logical conclusion of the first two.

(1) Some bikes are mopeds. All mopeds are scooters. Some bikes are scooters.
(2) All children are hairs. No hairs are red. No children are red.
(3) No pencil is pen. Some pens are markers. Some pencils are markers.
(4) Every man has a wife. All wives are devoted. No devoted has a husband.
A(1), (2), and (3)
B(1) and (2)
C(3) and (2)
D(1), (2), (3) and (4)
B (1) and (2)
We do not need to check for 2 as it features in all the option choices. Let us check 3 because if this is incorrect option a, c and d will be eliminated and choice “b”” will become the correct choice.
The conclusion in 3 is some pencils are markers. The counter to this will be No pencil is a marker. For theory on syllogism visit us at www.eptitude.co.in.

As could be seen from the figure above the conclusion cannot be drawn (though it is a possibility – but not a conclusion). Hence, choice “b” is the correct answer.
Question 21
Each question contains four arguments of three sentences each Choose the set in which the third statement is a logical conclusion of the first two.

(1) No moon is not red. All stars are moon. All stars are red.
(2) All doors are open. No open is outdoors. All doors are not outdoors.
(3) No Japanese can fire. All Chinese are books. Japanese and Chinese can fiqht
(4) No A is B. No B is C. No A is C.
A(1) only
B(2) only
C(1) and (2) only
D(4) only
C (1) and (2) only
We do not have to check for 3 as it does not feature in any of the option choices. We will start with 4 as if it is correct then choice “d” will be the correct answer and we will not be required to check 1 and 2.
The counter to the conclusion No A is C is Some A are C. For theory on syllogism visit us at www.eptitude.co.in.

As could be seen from the figure above the conclusion cannot be drawn (though it is a possibility – but not a conclusion). Hence, 4 is incorrect.
We will now check 1. The counter of the conclusion All stars are red is some stars are not red.
No moon is not red could also be interpreted as All moons are red. The counter of the conclusion All stars are red is some stars are not red.

Since we cannot prove the counter this conclusion can be drawn.
Now we check 2. The conclusion All doors are not outdoors could also be interpreted as No door is outdoors. The counter to this will be some doors are outdoors.

Since we cannot prove the counter this conclusion can also be drawn. Hence, choice “c” will be the correct answer.
Question 22
Each question contains four arguments of three sentences each Choose the set in which the third statement is a logical conclusion of the first two.

(1) All envelopes are rectangular. All rectangles are rectangular. All envelopes are rectangular.
(2) Some thin are smart. Some smart things are tiny. Some thin are tiny
(3) Learneds are well read. Well read know. Learneds know.
(4) Dieting is good for health. Health foods are rare. Dieting is rare
A(4) only
B(3) only
CBoth (1) and (3)
DAll of these
C Both (1) and (3)
We will start with 4 because if this is incorrect choices “a” and “d” will be eliminated and we will be required to check only 1 then.
The counter for the conclusion Dieting is rare is some dieting is not rare. For theory on syllogism visit us at www.eptitude.co.in.

As could be seen from the figure above the conclusion cannot be drawn (though it is a possibility – but not a conclusion). Hence, choices “a” and “d” could be eliminated. We now check 1.
1 could be easily concluded as that is our statement 1. 1 only features in choice “c” so “c” is the correct answer.
Question 23
Each question contains four arguments of three sentences each Choose the set in which the third statement is a logical conclusion of the first two.

(1) Shahrukh is an actor. Some actors are pretty. Shahrukh is pretty
(2) Some executives are soldiers. All soldiers are patriotic. Some executives are patriotic.
(3) All cricketers are patriotic. Some executives are soldiers. Some executives are patriotic.
(4) All actors are pretty. Shahrukh is not an actor. Shahrukh is not pretty.
A(4) only
B(2) only
C(1) only
D(2) and (3)
B (2) only
We will start with 2. The counter of the conclusion Some executives are patriotic is No executive is patriotic. The counter for the conclusion Dieting is rare is some dieting is not rare. For theory on syllogism visit us at www.eptitude.co.in.

Since we cannot prove the counter this conclusion can also be drawn. Next we will check 3. The counter of the conclusion some executives are patriotic is no executive is patriotic.

As could be seen from the figure above the conclusion cannot be drawn (though it is a possibility – but not a conclusion). So only 2 is correct and hence choice “b” will be the correct answer.
Question 24
Each question has a main statement, followed by four statements labelled I, II, III and IV. Choose the ordered pair of statements, where the first statement implies the second, and the two statements are logically consistent with the main statement.

Whenever Vijay reads late into the night, his grand-father reprimands him.
I. His grandfather does not reprimand Vijay.
II. Vijay reads late into the night.
III. Vijay reads early in the morning.
IV. Vijay‘s grandfather reprimands him in the morning.
AIII, IV
BII, IV
CI, II
DNone of the above
D None of the above
This is If A the B kind of deductive logic. In such cases only two definite conclusions can be drawn.
1. If A happened B will happen.
2. If B did not happen A would also not have happened.
For detail theory on this visit our site at www.eptitude.co.in.
In the given question A is Vijay reads late into the night and B is His grand-father reprimands him.
The two definite conclusions that can be drawn are –
1. Vijay reads late into the night so his grandfather will reprimand him.
2. His grandfather did not reprimand him which means he did not read into the night.
As none of the conclusions are given in the option choices the correct answer is “d”.
Question 25
Each question has a main statement, followed by four statements labelled I, II, III and IV. Choose the ordered pair of statements, where the first statement implies the second, and the two statements are logically consistent with the main statement.

Either Amir is angry, or he shows mock anger.
I. Amir shows mock anger.
II. Amir is angry.
III. Amir does not show mock anger.
IV. Amir is not angry.
AIII, II only
BIV, I only
CII, I only
DIII, II and IV, I
D III, II and IV, I
Choice “a” – If Amir does not show mock anger he must be angry – which is what is given Hence “a” is correct.
Choice “b” – IV – Amir is not angry – So now he must show mock anger. This is what is given to us, so even this is correct.
Since both “a” and “b” are correct therefore choice “d” is the correct answer.
Question 26
Each question has a main statement, followed by four statements labelled I, II, III and IV. Choose the ordered pair of statements, where the first statement implies the second, and the two statements are logically consistent with the main statement.

Every player will become a champ.
I. Rajesh is a player.
II. Rajesh will become champ.
III. Rajesh is not a player.
IV. Rajesh will not become a champ.
AI, IV
BIV, I
CIII, IV
DIV, III
D IV, III
Every player will become a champ could be interpreted as shown below –

Choice “a” – I – Rajesh is a player. So he must be a champ. But this is not what is given in IV hence this is incorrect.
Choice “b” – IV – Rajesh will not become a champ. So he must not be a player. But this is not what is given in I hence this is incorrect.
Choice “c” – III – Rajesh is not a player. From this we cannot make a definite conclusion as he may or may not be a champ as could be seen in the figure. But this is not what is given in IV hence this is incorrect.
Choice “d” – Rajesh will not become a champ which means he falls outside of the circle champ. So this means he cannot be a player. This is what is given in III and hence choice “d” is correct.
Question 27
Statement:
The number of people who die on the roads every year is so alarming that the numbers every year are close to the numbers which can be attribute to the major diseases of the world.
Course of Action:
I. There should be an active campaign for sensitizing people towards road safety norms.
II. There should be an increased emphasis on enforcing speed limits, safety rules and traffic management on roads across the world.
AIf only I follows
BIf only II follows
CIf both I and II follows
DIf neither I follows nor II follows
C If both I and II follows
Spreading awareness about the relevance of road safety norms and also laying and enforcing certain effective road safety norms are both suitable courses of action to help reduce the number of deaths on road.
Question 28
Statement:
An unacceptable number of children die during the first year of the lives. The high incidence of infant death is a major cause for concern for the health ministry.
Course of Action:
I. All government hospitals should be privatized to improve health care facilities.
II. Government should commit higher levels of their budget to health services.
AIf only I follows
BIf only II follows
CIf both I and II follows
DIf neither I follows nor II follows
B If only II follows
Privatization need not result in solving the problem. However, committing higher levels of budget to health services and ensuring that it is utilized properly is definitely a suitable course of action.
Question 29
Statement:
The cream of India‘s Cricket team is likely to retire in the next three years leaving a vacuum which the Indian Cricket team is going to struggle to overcome.
Course of Action:
I. The BCCI should start to induct youngsters into the team and start to give them exposure to pressure situations.
II. There should be a rotation policy adopted for senior players in order to prolong their careers and keep them injury free.
AIf only I follows
BIf only II follows
CIf both I and II follows
DIf neither I follows nor II follows
B If only II follows
The problem is immediate and the rotation problem may extend the time period from 3 to let us say 5 years and hence this may not be an effective (long term perspective) course of action to solve the current situation. However, I caters to the immediate problem and is a suitable course of action.
Question 30
Statement:
The lack of employment and income during economic depression leads to an increase in the crime rates.
Course of Action:
I. The government should provide an unemployment compensation as done in advanced countries.
II. The government should encourage greater economic activity and increase the number of industries in order to reduce crime rates.
AIf only I follows
BIf only II follows
CIf both I and II follows
DIf neither I follows nor II follows
B If only II follows
II is definitely a suggested course of action as it may help the economy to move out of depression. I however may not be an effective course of action as it may put an additional burden on the economy especially if the government has not planned for such a situation.
Question 31
Who among the three is suicidal ?
AAkshay
BHimanshu
CHimanshu and Akshay
DNone of these
A Akshay
The tricky part in the question was how to interpret the given information – All people who are suicidal feel that life is futile.
1. If you are Suicidal you feel life is futile.
2. If you think life is futile then you are suicidal.
The approach in both the cases will change.
Starting with Anuj – let us assume his first statement to be correct, so his second statement will be incorrect. So the conclusions on the basis of this assumption will be – Himanshu is suicidal and also that Anuj is suicidal.
Now that we know that Himanshu is suicidal, his first statement – “I do not want to die” will be incorrect which will make his second statement “Akshay does not want to die” correct.  So conclusion drawn from this will be that Akshay is not suicidal.
Since we know that Akshay is not suicidal we can infer that his second statement “I am suicidal” is incorrect. Now that we know that Akshay is not suicidal his first statement “life is futile” is to be correct. Here, the subjectivity mentioned earlier comes into play. If we take the first interpretation “If you are Suicidal you feel life is futile” we will not be able to conclude as if you are not suicidal you may still think that life is futile. For detailed theory on If – then logic visit us at www.eptitude.co.in. So this question was solved using the second interpretation – “If you think life is futile then you are suicidal.” In this if you are not suicidal it would mean that you do not consider life to be futile. But first statement had to be correct – Akshay cannot have both the statements that are incorrect. Why did this happen? This happened because our first assumption – Anuj’s first statement is correct was wrong. So now we know that Anuj’s first statement was incorrect and his second statement was correct.
Starting with Anuj –

On the basis of this we can conclude that Himanshu’s first statement is correct and his second statement is incorrect.
Himanshu’s statement:

On the basis of this we can conclude that Akshay’s second statement is incorrect and his first statement is correct.
Akshay’s statements:

Among the three Akshay is suicidal.
Question 32
Which one of them is lying about another person‘s tendencies?
AAkshay
BHimanshu
CAnuj and Himanshu
DAnuj
A Akshay
The tricky part in the question was how to interpret the given information – All people who are suicidal feel that life is futile.
1. If you are Suicidal you feel life is futile.
2. If you think life is futile then you are suicidal.
The approach in both the cases will change.
Starting with Anuj – let us assume his first statement to be correct, so his second statement will be incorrect. So the conclusions on the basis of this assumption will be – Himanshu is suicidal and also that Anuj is suicidal.
Now that we know that Himanshu is suicidal, his first statement – “I do not want to die” will be incorrect which will make his second statement “Akshay does not want to die” correct.  So conclusion drawn from this will be that Akshay is not suicidal.
Since we know that Akshay is not suicidal we can infer that his second statement “I am suicidal” is incorrect. Now that we know that Akshay is not suicidal his first statement “life is futile” is to be correct. Here, the subjectivity mentioned earlier comes into play. If we take the first interpretation “If you are Suicidal you feel life is futile” we will not be able to conclude as if you are not suicidal you may still think that life is futile. For detailed theory on If – then logic visit us at www.eptitude.co.in. So this question was solved using the second interpretation – “If you think life is futile then you are suicidal.” In this if you are not suicidal it would mean that you do not consider life to be futile. But first statement had to be correct – Akshay cannot have both the statements that are incorrect. Why did this happen? This happened because our first assumption – Anuj’s first statement is correct was wrong. So now we know that Anuj’s first statement was incorrect and his second statement was correct.
Starting with Anuj –

On the basis of this we can conclude that Himanshu’s first statement is correct and his second statement is incorrect.
Himanshu’s statement:

On the basis of this we can conclude that Akshay’s second statement is incorrect and his first statement is correct.
Akshay’s statements:

Anuj lied about Himanshu and Himanshu lied about Akshay.
Question 33
Which of the following is true?
AShina is the professor
BPeter is the dentist
CMatt is the barrister
DNone of the above
A Shina is the professor
Assuming Peter’s first statement to be true – his second statement will be false.
Conclusions – Peter is not a professor and Shina is a professor.

Now we will look at Matt’s statements. On the basis of the table above we know that his second statement – Shina is a professor will be correct which makes the first statement – “Peter is not a barrister” incorrect.
Conclusions – Peter is a barrister.

This will automatically make Matt the dentist.
Now, finally we look at Shina’s statements.
On the basis of the table as shown above, her first statement “Peter is not a dentist” is correct. This will make her second statement incorrect. Her second statement is “I am not a professor”. We know this is what the case is. Since, there is no contradiction our assumption that Peter’s first statement is correct is right.
For practice we suggest you try assuming Peter’s first statement to be untrue, you will see some contradiction eventually.
Shina is the professor and so choice “a” is correct.
Question 34
Who is the singer ?
AMadhuri
BMinaxi
CJaya
DCannot be determined
C Jaya
We know that one among them is a singer. This makes Minaxi’s second statement correct and first statement incorrect. (Please note that more than one person could be wearing flower in their hair).
Conclusion: Minaxi is not a singer.
On the basis of the conclusion drawn above we know that Jaya’s second statement is correct which makes her first statement “Madhuri is the singer” incorrect.
Conclusion: Madhuri is not a singer.
Since neither Madhuri nor Minaxi is a singer, we can conclude that Jaya is the singer.
Question 35
Which one of the following is true ?
AThe road to the right leads to "Where is Who"
BThe road to the left leads to "Where is Who"
CNafish is married to Ayesha
DNone of the above
A The road to the right leads to "Where is Who"
Since Maroof has made two statements it means that he does speak to stranger. This makes his first statement as incorrect and his second statement as correct.
Conclusion: Maroof is new to these parts.
From here we will move to Ayesha’s statements. From the conclusion drawn above we can infer that her second statement “Maroof is not new to these parts” is incorrect and this makes her first statement correct.
Conclusion: Ayesha is not Nafish’s wife.
Finally we move to Nafish’s statements. From the conclusion drawn above we can infer that his second statement “I am married to Ayesha” is incorrect which makes his first statement correct.
Conclusion: Take road to the right to go to “Where is Who”.
The conclusion drawn above makes “a” the correct choice.

Section: MATHEMATICS

Question 1
A piece of string is 40 centimetres long. It is cut into three pieces. The longest piece is 3 times as long as the middle-sized and the shortest piece is 23 centimetres shorter than the longest piece. Find length of the shortest piece (in cm).
A27 cm
B5 cm
C4 cm
D9 cm
C 4 cm
Let the shortest piece be L cms long.
Then the longest piece will be (L + 23) cms long.
And the middle sized piece will be (L + 23)/3 cms long.
Now, sum of lengths will be 40:
i.e. L + (L + 23) + (L + 23)/3 = 40
i.e. (3L + 3L + 69 + L + 23) = 40 x 3
i.e. 7L + 92 = 120
i.e. L = 28/7 = 4 cms
Question 2
Fresh grapes contain 90% water by weight while dried grapes contain 20% water by weight. What is the weight of dry grapes available from 20 kg of fresh grapes?
A2 kg
B2.4 kg
C2.5 kg
D2.6 kg
C 2.5 kg
Water in 20 kg of fresh grapes = 90% of 20 = 18 kg
Clearly the remaining weight would be fruit.
i.e. fruit in 20 kg of fresh grapes = 2 kg
Now, after drying the amount of water reduces to 20%.
So the remaining weight (80%) in dry grapes would be fruit.
i.e. amount of fruit in dry grapes = 2 kg
i.e. 80% of weight of dry fruit = 2 kg
i.e. weight of dry fruit = 2 x 100/80 = 2.5 kg
Question 3
A group of men decided to do a job in 8 days. But since 10 men dropped out every day the job got completed at the end of the 12th day. How many men were there at the beginning ?
A165
B175
C80
Dnone of these
A 165
Let work done by 1 man in 1 day = 1 unit.
Now say there were N men in the beginning.
Then Work = Work done by N men in 8 days = N x 8 = 8N units
Now, work done on day 1 = N x 1 = N units
Work done on day 2 = (N – 10) x 1 = (N – 10) units
Work done on day 3 = (N – 20) x 1 = (N – 20) units
...
Work done on day 12 = (N – 110) x 1 = (N – 110) units
Hence total work done = N + (N – 10) + (N – 20) + ... + (N – 110) units
i.e. 8N = N + (N – 10) + (N – 20) + ... + (N – 110)
Now the RHS is clearly an Arithmetic Progression with 12 terms.
So 8N = 12/2 x (2 x N – 11 x 10)
i.e. 8N = 6(2N – 110)
i.e. 8N = 12N – 660
So N = 660/4 = 165 men
Question 4
In a race of 200 m run, A beats S by 20 m and N by 40 m. If S and N are running a race of 100 m with exactly same speed as before, then by how many metres will S beat N?
A11.11m
B10 m
C12 m
D25 m
A 11.11m
A beats S by 20 m in a 200 m race (in the same time)
i.e. in the time that A runs 200 m, S will run only 180 m
Let the speeds of A, S and N be A, S and N respectively.
Using Distance = Speed x Time for both persons we get:
200/180 = (A x T)/(S x T)
i.e. A/S = 10/9 or A = 10S/9          ... (1)
Similarly, A beats N by 40 m in 200 m
So 200/160 = (A x T)/(N x T)
i.e. A/N = 5/4 or S = 5N/4              ... (2)
Equating A from (1) and (2):
10S/9 = 5N/4
i.e. S/N = 9/8      ... (3)
From (3) we can see that S is clearly faster so he will win the 100 m race between S and N.
So, in the time that S runs 100 metres, let N run A metres
Then, 100/A = (S x T’)/(N x T’)
i.e. 100/A = S/N
Using (3): 100/A = 9/8
i.e. A = 800/9 = 88.89 metres
So S beats N by 100 – 88.89 = 11.11 m
Question 5
Total expenses of a boarding house are partly fixed and partly varying linearly with the number of boarders. The average expense per boarder is Rs. 700 when there are 25 boarders and Rs. 600 when there are 50 boarders. What is the average expense per boarder when there are 100 boarders?
ARs. 550
BRs. 580
CRs. 540
DRs. 570
A Rs. 550
Let the fixed expenses be Rs. F and the variable expenses be Rs. V per boarder.
Then total expenses for 25 boarders = F + 25V
So average expense per boarder = (F + 25V)/25 = F/25 + V = 700                               ... (1)
Similarly, total expenses for 50 boarders = F + 50V
So average expense per boarder = (F + 50V)/50 = F/50 + V = 600                               ... (2)
On subtracting (2) from (1) we get:
F/25 – F/50 = 100
i.e. F/50 = 100 or F = Rs. 5000
Using this in (1): 5000/25 + V = 700
i.e. V = Rs. 500 per boarder
Hence total expenses for 100 boarders = F + 100V = 5000 + 50000 = Rs. 55000
Hence average expense per boarder = 55000/100 = Rs. 550
Question 6
Three maths classes: X, Y and Z take an algebra test. The average score of class X is 83. The average score of class Y is 76. The average score of class Z is 85. The average score of class X and Y is 79 and average score of class Y and Z is 81. What is the average score of classes X, Y and Z?
A81.5
B80.5
C83
D78
A 81.5
Let there be A, B and C students in the classes X, Y and Z.
Now, average of class X = Sum of scores/A = 83
So Sum of scores of class X = 83A
Also Sum of scores of class Y = 76B
And Sum of scores of class Z = 85C
Similarly Sum of scores of class X and Y together = 79(A + B)
i.e. 83A + 76B = 79A + 79B
i.e. 4A = 3B or A = 3B/4
And, sum of scores of class Y and Z together = 81(B + C)
i.e. 76B + 85C = 81B + 81C
i.e. 4C = 5B or C = 5B/4
Now Sum of scores of classes X, Y and Z = 83A + 76B + 85C = 83(3B/4) + 76B + 85(5B/4)
= (249B + 304B + 425B)/4 = 978B/4 = 489B/2
Hence average score of classes X, Y and Z = Sum of scores/(A + B + C)
= (489B/2)/(3B/4 + B + 5B/4) = (489B/2)/(3B) = 489/6 = 81.5
Question 7
You can collect rubies and emeralds as many as you can. Each ruby is worth Rs. 4 crore and each emerald is worth of Rs. 5 crore. Each ruby weighs 0.3 kg and each emerald weighs 0.4 kg. Your bag can carry at the most 12 kg. What you should collect to get the maximum wealth?
A20 rubies and 15 emeralds
B40 rubies
C28 rubies and 9 emeralds
Dnone of these
B 40 rubies
Note that Weight of 4 rubies = Weight of 3 emeralds = 1.2 kg
But worth of 4 rubies = 16 crores
And worth of 3 emeralds = 15 crores
Clearly for the same weight it is better to buy only rubies (instead of replacing some with emeralds).
Hence to get maximum wealth it is better to collect 12/0.3 = 40 rubies
Question 8
A man has 9 friends: 4 boys and 5 girls. In how many ways can he invite them, if there have to be exactly 3 girls in the invitee‘s list ?
A320
B160
C80
D200
B 160
Method-1:
Possible cases are:
  Girls invited Boys invited
Case-1 3 0
Case-2 3 1
Case-3 3 2
Case-4 3 3
Case-5 3 4
Hence possible ways = 5C3 x 4C0 + 5C3 x 4C1 + 5C3 x 4C2 + 5C3 x 4C3 + 5C3 x 4C4
= 10 x 1 + 10 x 4 + 10 x 6 + 10 x 4 + 10 x 1 = 10 x (1 + 4 + 6 + 4 + 1) = 160

Method-2:
For each of the boys there will exactly 2 possibilities – either select him or don’t select him.
Hence possible ways to select any number of boys = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 = 16
And possible ways to select exactly 3 girls = 5C3 = 10
Hence total ways = 16 x 10 = 160
Question 9
Ten points are marked on a straight line and 11 points are marked on another straight line. How many triangles can be constructed with vertices from among the above points?
A495
B550
C1045
D2475
C 1045
To make a triangle we need to select any three non-collinear points. Possibilities are:
  1. Select 2 points from the first line and 1 point from the second line
  2. Select 1 point from the first line and 2 points from the second line
Hence total triangles possible = 10C2 x 11C1 + 10C1 x 11C2 = 45 x 11 + 10 x 55 = 495 + 550 = 1045
Question 10
Number of students who have opted for the subjects A, B and C are 60, 84 and 108 respectively. The examination is to be conducted for these students such that only the students of the same subject are allowed in one room. Also the number of students in each room must be same. What is the minimum number of rooms that should be arranged to meet all these conditions ?
A28
B60
C12
D21
D 21
Let there be N students in each room.
Now, students of each subject must sit together.
Then 60, 84 and 108 must all be multiples of N
Or N will be a common factor of 60, 84 and 108.
To minimize number of rooms N must be the HCF.
So, N = HCF(60, 84, 108) = 12
Hence minimum rooms needed = 60/12 + 84/12 + 108/12 = 5 + 7 + 9 = 21
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