AILET 2014 Question Paper With Solution




Section: ENGLISH

Question 1
Which one of the following best states the central idea of the passage ?
AThe felony – murder rule should be abolished.
BSome jurisdictions are about to abandon the felony – murder rule.
CThe felony – murder rule can be unfair.
DSupreme Court of the United States.
A The felony – murder rule should be abolished.
The author states the viewpoints of both who are in favor of the felony-murder rule and those who are against this rule. In the end the author states that the felony-murder rule is dying a slow but certain death. This makes choice “a” the correct answer.
Question 2
The felony – murder rule was developed in order to
Adeter felonies
Bdeter murders
Cdeter deadly force in felonies
Dextend the definition of murder to any malicious act resulting in death
C deter deadly force in felonies
In paragraph 1 lines 3 and 4 the author states that “The common law courts, in need of a deterrent of deadly force in the course of this….”.This makes choice “c” the best answer.
Question 3
Arguments in favour of the felony – murder rule may include all of the following EXCEPT
AWe can infer that anyone undertaking a dangerous felony demonstrates an indifference to human life.
BIf the punishment for the use of deadly force whether intended or not is the same, criminals will be less likely to use deadly force.
CBecause a life has been taken, the crime is murder by force of statutory definition.
DThe victim of murder may be an accomplice of the felony.
D The victim of murder may be an accomplice of the felony.
In paragraph 2 the author has stated all the points other than the points made in choice “d”.
Question 4
According to the passage, opponents of the felony – murder rule have raised all of the following objections to the statute EXCEPT
AThe felony – murder rule results in murder prosecutions of defendants who have not committed murder.
BThe felony – murder rule assigns a criminal liability vicariously.
CThe felony – murder rule is based upon a presumption of malice even if death is wholly accidental.
DThe felony – murder rule deters the use of deadly force in non-capital felonies.
D The felony – murder rule deters the use of deadly force in non-capital felonies.
In paragraph 3 the author has mentioned all the points other than the point mentioned in choice “d”.
Question 5
In which of the following situations would the defendant NOT be liable to the charge of murder under the felony – murder rule ?
AIn escaping from an unsuccessful attempt to rob a bank, the defendant crashes his car, killing an innocent pedestrian in another city.
BA bank security officer, pursuing the defendant after a robbery, falls down a flight of stairs and suffers serious permanent brain and spinal cord injuries.
CThe driver of the escape car, who has not entered the bank, crashes the car killing the armed gunman who committed the robbery.
DA bank teller, locked safely in the bank vault by the robber, has a stroke and dies.
B A bank security officer, pursuing the defendant after a robbery, falls down a flight of stairs and suffers serious permanent brain and spinal cord injuries.
In the opening paragraph the author explains that killing is an important criteria to apply felony-murder rule. “Any killing by one in the commission of a felony is guilty of murder”. The killing would be a murder whether intentional or unintentional. Only in choice “b” no killing takes place and hence in this choice the defendant will not be liable to the charge of murder under the felony – murder rule.
Question 6
According to the passage, the decline of support for the felony – murder rule is indicted by the abandoning of the rule in all of the following locations EXCEPT
AContinental Europe
BIndia
CEngland
DCanada
D Canada
All the names in the four choices are mentioned by the author in paragraph 3. However for Canada it is mentioned that this rule is severely restricted which means it is not completely abandoned in Canada. This makes choice “d” the correct answer.
Question 7
The author believes that the felony – murder rule is
Aunconstitutional
Bbizarre and unfair
Ca serviceable rule unfairly attacked by the "intelligentsia"
Dan unfair equating of intent to commit a felony and intent to commit murder
D an unfair equating of intent to commit a felony and intent to commit murder
This one is a tricky question as the author has not given his personal opinion about the rule. He has either quoted the proponents or the opponents of the rule. Eventually he gives an idea to the readers that this rule will eventually die a slow bur certain death. So we will use elimination technique to answer this question. Choices “a” and “c” could be easily eliminated as these are not mentioned in the passage. Choice “b” is mentioned in paragraph 3 but that is the opinion of many opponents. So choice choices “b” and “d” are close ones. We will go with choice “d” as that is the basic rationale behind opponents claiming this rule unfair and bizarre.
Question 8
In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

Ambiguity
Alucidity
Bbasal
Cdull
Dnecessity
A lucidity
The meaning of ‘ambiguity’ is ‘uncertainty’ hence its opposite must be ‘lucidity’.
Question 9
In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

Antidote
Amedicine
Bpoison
Canodyne
Damity
B poison
An ‘antidote’ is ‘something that cures a poison’, hence its opposite must be ‘poison’.
Question 10
In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

Which is NOT a synonym for 'accumulation'?
Acollection
Bassemblage
Cconglomeration
Dcollagen
D collagen
‘Collection’, ‘assemblage’ and ‘conglomeration’ are all synonyms of the word ‘accumulation’, while ‘collagen’ is ‘the main structural protein found in skin and other connective tissues’.
Question 11
In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

Which is NOT a synonym for 'incline'?
Aslope
Btrenchant
Cgradient
Dacclivity
B trenchant
The only word which is not a synonym for ‘incline’ is ‘trenchant’ which means ‘vigorous or incisive in expression or style’.
Question 12
In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

Aphorism
Aprune
Bwither
Caphis
Dproverb
D proverb
‘Aphorism’ is ‘a pithy observation which contains a general truth’, hence its synonym must be ‘proverb’.
Question 13
In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

Passé
Arude
Bold - fashioned
Cmodern
Dchic
B old - fashioned
‘Passe’ is an adjective used for something that is ‘no longer fashionable’, hence its synonym would be ‘old-fashioned’.
Question 14
In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

Vituperation
Amoisture
Bparallel
Cmalediction
Drecover
C malediction
‘Vituperation’ means ‘bitter and abusive language’ and hence its synonym must be ‘malediction’ which is ‘a curse’.
Question 15
In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

Qualm
Aconcavity
Bamplitude
Cmisgiving
Drepute
C misgiving
The meaning of ‘qualm’ is ‘an uneasy feeling of doubt, worry or fear’ i.e. its synonym must be ‘a misgiving’.
Question 16
Choose the exact meaning of the idioms/phrases.

She exhibited remarkable sang froid during the crisis.
Atemper
Birritation
Ccomposure
Danger
C composure
‘Sang froid’ is ‘composure or coolness shown in danger or under trying circumstances’.
Question 17
Choose the exact meaning of the idioms/phrases.

The co-operation and esprit de corps between the soldiers and the officers was directly responsible for their victory.
Abravery
Bloyalty
Csubordination
Dunity
B loyalty
‘Esprit de corps’ is ‘a feeling of pride and mutual loyalty shared by the members of a group’.
Question 18
Answer the questions based on the following information.

In each of the question below, four different ways of writing a sentence are indicated. Choose the best way of writing the sentence.
AThe main problem with the notion of price discrimination is that it is not always a bad thing, but that it is the monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.
BThe main problem with the notion of price discrimination is not that it is always a bad thing, it is the monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.
CThe main problem with the notion of price discrimination is not that it is always a bad thing, but that it is the monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.
DThe main problem with the notion of price discrimination is not it is always a bad thing, but that it is the monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.
C The main problem with the notion of price discrimination is not that it is always a bad thing, but that it is the monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.
The parallel structure here is ‘The main problem is not that A, but that B’. Here A and B are independent clauses.
Question 19
Answer the questions based on the following information.

In each of the question below, four different ways of writing a sentence are indicated. Choose the best way of writing the sentence.
AA symbiotic relationship develops among the contractors, bureaucracy and the politicians, and by a large number of devices, costs are artificially escalated and black money is generated by underhand deals.
BA symbiotic relationship develops among contractors, bureaucracy and politicians, and costs are artificially escalated with a large number of devices and black money is generated through underhand deals.
CA symbiotic relationship develops among contractors, bureaucracy and the politicians, and by a large number of devices costs are artificially escalated and black money is generated on underhand deals.
DA symbiotic relationship develops among the contractors, bureaucracy and politicians, and by large number of devices costs are artificially escalated and black money is generated by underhand deals.
C A symbiotic relationship develops among contractors, bureaucracy and the politicians, and by a large number of devices costs are artificially escalated and black money is generated on underhand deals.
There are two reasons for choosing this option. Firstly, in options a, the article ‘the’ has been mentioned only before ‘contractors’ and ’politicians’ but has not been mentioned with ‘bureaucracy’ which is clearly incorrect. Likewise in option d, the article comes only before ‘contractors’; hence we can also eliminate these choices.
In option b, the phrase ‘with a large number of devices’ is incorrect and has been correctly phrased in option c as ‘by a large number of devices’. Hence option c is the correct choice!
Question 20
In this section, each passage consists of five sentences. The first sentence is given in the beginning. The four sentences in each passage have been jumbled up. These are labeled P, O, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

L1 : It is significant that one of the most common objections to competition is that it is blind
P : This is important because in a system of free enterprise based on private property, chances are not equal and there is indeed a strong case for reducing that inequality of opportunity.
Q : Rather it is a choice between a system where it is the will of a few persons that decides which is to get what and one where it depends at least partly, on the ability and the enterprise of the people concerned.
R : Although competition and justice may have little else in common, it is as much a commendation of competition as of justice that it is no respector of persons.
S : The choice today is not between a system in which everybody will get what he deserves according to some universal standard and one where individual shares are determined by chance or goodwill.
L6 : The fact that opportunities open to the poor in a competitive society are much more restricted than those open to the rich, does not make it less true that in such a society the poor are more free than a person commanding much greater material comfort in a different type of society.

The proper sequence should be
ARSQP
BSRQP
CPQRS
DQPSR
A RSQP
S and Q forms a mandatory pair as they are talking about the “choice”. If you look at the option choices only choice “a” has SQ together. If you read RSQP L6 after L1 the sentences will make coherent meaning.
Question 21
In this section, each passage consists of five sentences. The first sentence is given in the beginning. The four sentences in each passage have been jumbled up. These are labeled P, O, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

L1 : The chain saw howled as I finished cutting through the branch.
P : The branch crashed to the ground, taking my spectacles with it.
Q : I almost dropped the saw as I shielded my face from the twigs that brushed by.
R : Howard retrieved my glasses and handed them up to me.
S : I pulled the saw away, and my husband tugged against the other end of the rope that I had tied just above the cut.
L6 : Are you okay? He asked.

The proper sequence should be
AQRPS
BSQPR
CSRPQ
DQSPR
B SQPR
R must follow P (common thread being the glasses) and must definitely precede L6. So the correct choice will be either “b” or “d”. Both are close choices as the subject in both Q as well as S is the “saw”. The correct answer as per the official key is choice “b”.
Question 22
In this section, each passage consists of five sentences. The first sentence is given in the beginning. The four sentences in each passage have been jumbled up. These are labeled P, O, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

L1 : All human beings are aware of the existence of a power greater than that of the mortals — the name given to such a power by individuals is an outcome of birth, education and choice.
P : Logically, therefore such a power should be remembered in good times also.
Q : Their other philanthropic contributions include the construction and maintenance of religious places such as temples or gurdwaras.
R : Industrial organizations also contribute to the veneration of this power by participating in activities such as religious ceremonies and festivities organized by the employees.
S : This power provides an anchor in times of adversity, difficulty and trouble..
L6 : The top management/ managers should participate in all such events, irrespective of their personal choices.

The proper sequence should be
ARPSQ
BQRPS
CSPRQ
DSQRP
C SPRQ
RQ forms a mandatory pair as the pronoun “Their” in Q “Their other philanthropic” refers to “Industrial organizations” in R. There is only one choice “c” which has RQ together and is the correct choice.
Question 23
In this section, each passage consists of five sentences. The first sentence is given in the beginning. The four sentences in each passage have been jumbled up. These are labeled P, O, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

L1 : A thorough knowledge of path or course to be followed is essential for achieving success.
P : Seniors must show the path clearly by laying down the precise expectations of the management in terms of job description, key result areas, and personal targets.
Q : They should also 'light the path' by personal examples.
R : Advice tendered or help offered must be objectively evaluated for its effectiveness in achieving the desired goals.
S : A display of arrogance and a false sense of 'self-worth', in order to belittle those who come to help, prove dysfunctional.
L6 : The individuality of each employee must be respected.

The proper sequence should be
ARSPQ
BRPSQ
COPSR
DPQRS
D PQRS
RQ forms a mandatory pair as they talk about what seniors are expected to do. Also the “path” mentioned in L1 is elaborated in “P” and hence P should follow L1. Choice “d” has both these elements and is thus the correct choice.
Question 24
In the following questions, the word at the top is used in four different ways. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.

Passing
AShe did not have passing marks in mathematics.
BThe mad woman was cursing everybody passing her on the road.
CAt the birthday party, all the children enjoyed a game of passing the parcel.
DA passing taxi was stopped to rush the accident victim to the hospital.
C At the birthday party, all the children enjoyed a game of passing the parcel.
The incorrect usage of the word passing is in the first statement – the correct phrase is ‘pass marks’ and not ‘passing marks’.
Question 25
In the following questions, the word at the top is used in four different ways. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.

Bolt
AThe shopkeeper showed us a bolt of fine silk.
BAs he could not move, he made a bolt for the gate.
CCould you please bolt the door?
DThe thief was arrested before he could bolt from the scene of the crime.
B As he could not move, he made a bolt for the gate.
Here the second statement is incorrect as there is a logical inconsistency: If the person could not move, how could he have made a bolt for the gate?
Question 26
In the following questions, the word at the top is used in four different ways. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.

Fallout
ANagasaki suffered from the fallout of nuclear radiation.
BPeople believed that the political fallout of the scandal would be insignificant.
CWho can predict the environmental fallout of the WTO agreements?
DThe Headmaster could not understand the fallout of several of his good students at the public examination.
D The Headmaster could not understand the fallout of several of his good students at the public examination.
‘Fallout’ is incorrectly used in sentence four as it does not imply failure or poor performance. The correct sentence should be ‘The Headmaster could not understand the failure of several of his good students at the public examination.’
Question 27
Fill in the blanks with the best alternative among the four options:

Around the world, forests are being destroyed at a rate of about thirteen million hectares a year and deforestation accounts for an estimated 17% - 20% of all global emissions. In addition, forests and other terrestrial carbon sinks play a ___(27)___ role in preventing runaway climate change, soaking up a full 2.6 Gt of atmospheric carbon every year. The destruction of forests, therefore, not only emits carbon – a staggering 1.6 Gt a year, which severely ___(28)___ forests' capacity to absorb emissions from other sources – but also drastically ___(29)___ the amount of forested land available to act as a carbon sink in the future.
However, the effects of deforestation extend beyond carbon. Rainforests ___(30)___ a wide variety of ecosystems services, from regulating rainfall to purifying groundwater and keeping fertile soil from ___(31)___; deforestation in one area can seriously damage food production and ___(32)___ to clean water in an entire region. The value of global ecosystem services has been estimated at 33 trillion USD each year (almost half of global GDP), but these services have been taken for granted without a mechanism to make the market reflect their value. Rainforests are also a home and ___(33)___ of income for a huge number of people in Africa, Asia, and South America. ___(34)___ this, economic pressures frequently drive both these local communities and national governments in the developing world to ___(35)___ forests in ways that are unsustainable, clear-cutting vast areas for fuel, timber, mining, or agricultural land.
Atough
Bimportant
Cvital
Dbiggest
C vital
Clearly we need a positive adjective for the word ‘role’. The best option is ‘vital’.
Question 28
Fill in the blanks with the best alternative among the four options:

Around the world, forests are being destroyed at a rate of about thirteen million hectares a year and deforestation accounts for an estimated 17% - 20% of all global emissions. In addition, forests and other terrestrial carbon sinks play a ___(27)___ role in preventing runaway climate change, soaking up a full 2.6 Gt of atmospheric carbon every year. The destruction of forests, therefore, not only emits carbon – a staggering 1.6 Gt a year, which severely ___(28)___ forests' capacity to absorb emissions from other sources – but also drastically ___(29)___ the amount of forested land available to act as a carbon sink in the future.
However, the effects of deforestation extend beyond carbon. Rainforests ___(30)___ a wide variety of ecosystems services, from regulating rainfall to purifying groundwater and keeping fertile soil from ___(31)___; deforestation in one area can seriously damage food production and ___(32)___ to clean water in an entire region. The value of global ecosystem services has been estimated at 33 trillion USD each year (almost half of global GDP), but these services have been taken for granted without a mechanism to make the market reflect their value. Rainforests are also a home and ___(33)___ of income for a huge number of people in Africa, Asia, and South America. ___(34)___ this, economic pressures frequently drive both these local communities and national governments in the developing world to ___(35)___ forests in ways that are unsustainable, clear-cutting vast areas for fuel, timber, mining, or agricultural land.
Aaffect
Bdiminish
Cincreases
Dimpairs
D impairs
Here the verb we need should be singular and also should have the meaning ‘reduces or hampers’. Clearly the appropriate word is ‘impairs’.
Question 29
Fill in the blanks with the best alternative among the four options:

Around the world, forests are being destroyed at a rate of about thirteen million hectares a year and deforestation accounts for an estimated 17% - 20% of all global emissions. In addition, forests and other terrestrial carbon sinks play a ___(27)___ role in preventing runaway climate change, soaking up a full 2.6 Gt of atmospheric carbon every year. The destruction of forests, therefore, not only emits carbon – a staggering 1.6 Gt a year, which severely ___(28)___ forests' capacity to absorb emissions from other sources – but also drastically ___(29)___ the amount of forested land available to act as a carbon sink in the future.
However, the effects of deforestation extend beyond carbon. Rainforests ___(30)___ a wide variety of ecosystems services, from regulating rainfall to purifying groundwater and keeping fertile soil from ___(31)___; deforestation in one area can seriously damage food production and ___(32)___ to clean water in an entire region. The value of global ecosystem services has been estimated at 33 trillion USD each year (almost half of global GDP), but these services have been taken for granted without a mechanism to make the market reflect their value. Rainforests are also a home and ___(33)___ of income for a huge number of people in Africa, Asia, and South America. ___(34)___ this, economic pressures frequently drive both these local communities and national governments in the developing world to ___(35)___ forests in ways that are unsustainable, clear-cutting vast areas for fuel, timber, mining, or agricultural land.
Aplagues
Bdevelops
Creduces
Dshortens
C reduces
Clearly the verb we need here has a similar meaning as the previous blank and is singular as well. Hence the appropriate choice would be ‘reduces’.
Question 30
Fill in the blanks with the best alternative among the four options:

Around the world, forests are being destroyed at a rate of about thirteen million hectares a year and deforestation accounts for an estimated 17% - 20% of all global emissions. In addition, forests and other terrestrial carbon sinks play a ___(27)___ role in preventing runaway climate change, soaking up a full 2.6 Gt of atmospheric carbon every year. The destruction of forests, therefore, not only emits carbon – a staggering 1.6 Gt a year, which severely ___(28)___ forests' capacity to absorb emissions from other sources – but also drastically ___(29)___ the amount of forested land available to act as a carbon sink in the future.
However, the effects of deforestation extend beyond carbon. Rainforests ___(30)___ a wide variety of ecosystems services, from regulating rainfall to purifying groundwater and keeping fertile soil from ___(31)___; deforestation in one area can seriously damage food production and ___(32)___ to clean water in an entire region. The value of global ecosystem services has been estimated at 33 trillion USD each year (almost half of global GDP), but these services have been taken for granted without a mechanism to make the market reflect their value. Rainforests are also a home and ___(33)___ of income for a huge number of people in Africa, Asia, and South America. ___(34)___ this, economic pressures frequently drive both these local communities and national governments in the developing world to ___(35)___ forests in ways that are unsustainable, clear-cutting vast areas for fuel, timber, mining, or agricultural land.
Asell
Boffer
Cgive
Dprovide
B offer
The use of the word ‘services’ following the blank indicates that the verb we need is ‘offer’.
Question 31
Fill in the blanks with the best alternative among the four options:

Around the world, forests are being destroyed at a rate of about thirteen million hectares a year and deforestation accounts for an estimated 17% - 20% of all global emissions. In addition, forests and other terrestrial carbon sinks play a ___(27)___ role in preventing runaway climate change, soaking up a full 2.6 Gt of atmospheric carbon every year. The destruction of forests, therefore, not only emits carbon – a staggering 1.6 Gt a year, which severely ___(28)___ forests' capacity to absorb emissions from other sources – but also drastically ___(29)___ the amount of forested land available to act as a carbon sink in the future.
However, the effects of deforestation extend beyond carbon. Rainforests ___(30)___ a wide variety of ecosystems services, from regulating rainfall to purifying groundwater and keeping fertile soil from ___(31)___; deforestation in one area can seriously damage food production and ___(32)___ to clean water in an entire region. The value of global ecosystem services has been estimated at 33 trillion USD each year (almost half of global GDP), but these services have been taken for granted without a mechanism to make the market reflect their value. Rainforests are also a home and ___(33)___ of income for a huge number of people in Africa, Asia, and South America. ___(34)___ this, economic pressures frequently drive both these local communities and national governments in the developing world to ___(35)___ forests in ways that are unsustainable, clear-cutting vast areas for fuel, timber, mining, or agricultural land.
Atransforming
Bdecoding
Cerupting
Deroding
D eroding
The only appropriate word for soil is ‘eroding’.
Question 32
Fill in the blanks with the best alternative among the four options:

Around the world, forests are being destroyed at a rate of about thirteen million hectares a year and deforestation accounts for an estimated 17% - 20% of all global emissions. In addition, forests and other terrestrial carbon sinks play a ___(27)___ role in preventing runaway climate change, soaking up a full 2.6 Gt of atmospheric carbon every year. The destruction of forests, therefore, not only emits carbon – a staggering 1.6 Gt a year, which severely ___(28)___ forests' capacity to absorb emissions from other sources – but also drastically ___(29)___ the amount of forested land available to act as a carbon sink in the future.
However, the effects of deforestation extend beyond carbon. Rainforests ___(30)___ a wide variety of ecosystems services, from regulating rainfall to purifying groundwater and keeping fertile soil from ___(31)___; deforestation in one area can seriously damage food production and ___(32)___ to clean water in an entire region. The value of global ecosystem services has been estimated at 33 trillion USD each year (almost half of global GDP), but these services have been taken for granted without a mechanism to make the market reflect their value. Rainforests are also a home and ___(33)___ of income for a huge number of people in Africa, Asia, and South America. ___(34)___ this, economic pressures frequently drive both these local communities and national governments in the developing world to ___(35)___ forests in ways that are unsustainable, clear-cutting vast areas for fuel, timber, mining, or agricultural land.
Ahandiness
Bexcess
Cavailability
Daccess
D access
The phrase following the blank is ‘to clean water’. The only appropriate word that applies to clean water is ‘access’.
Question 33
Fill in the blanks with the best alternative among the four options:

Around the world, forests are being destroyed at a rate of about thirteen million hectares a year and deforestation accounts for an estimated 17% - 20% of all global emissions. In addition, forests and other terrestrial carbon sinks play a ___(27)___ role in preventing runaway climate change, soaking up a full 2.6 Gt of atmospheric carbon every year. The destruction of forests, therefore, not only emits carbon – a staggering 1.6 Gt a year, which severely ___(28)___ forests' capacity to absorb emissions from other sources – but also drastically ___(29)___ the amount of forested land available to act as a carbon sink in the future.
However, the effects of deforestation extend beyond carbon. Rainforests ___(30)___ a wide variety of ecosystems services, from regulating rainfall to purifying groundwater and keeping fertile soil from ___(31)___; deforestation in one area can seriously damage food production and ___(32)___ to clean water in an entire region. The value of global ecosystem services has been estimated at 33 trillion USD each year (almost half of global GDP), but these services have been taken for granted without a mechanism to make the market reflect their value. Rainforests are also a home and ___(33)___ of income for a huge number of people in Africa, Asia, and South America. ___(34)___ this, economic pressures frequently drive both these local communities and national governments in the developing world to ___(35)___ forests in ways that are unsustainable, clear-cutting vast areas for fuel, timber, mining, or agricultural land.
Abeginning
Bsource
Cways
Dreference
B source
Clearly the word that is appropriate with ‘of income’ is ‘source’.
Question 34
Fill in the blanks with the best alternative among the four options:

Around the world, forests are being destroyed at a rate of about thirteen million hectares a year and deforestation accounts for an estimated 17% - 20% of all global emissions. In addition, forests and other terrestrial carbon sinks play a ___(27)___ role in preventing runaway climate change, soaking up a full 2.6 Gt of atmospheric carbon every year. The destruction of forests, therefore, not only emits carbon – a staggering 1.6 Gt a year, which severely ___(28)___ forests' capacity to absorb emissions from other sources – but also drastically ___(29)___ the amount of forested land available to act as a carbon sink in the future.
However, the effects of deforestation extend beyond carbon. Rainforests ___(30)___ a wide variety of ecosystems services, from regulating rainfall to purifying groundwater and keeping fertile soil from ___(31)___; deforestation in one area can seriously damage food production and ___(32)___ to clean water in an entire region. The value of global ecosystem services has been estimated at 33 trillion USD each year (almost half of global GDP), but these services have been taken for granted without a mechanism to make the market reflect their value. Rainforests are also a home and ___(33)___ of income for a huge number of people in Africa, Asia, and South America. ___(34)___ this, economic pressures frequently drive both these local communities and national governments in the developing world to ___(35)___ forests in ways that are unsustainable, clear-cutting vast areas for fuel, timber, mining, or agricultural land.
Adespite
Balso
Cin spite
Dapart
A despite
The suitable conjunction in this blank is ‘despite’. The others cannot be used along with the word ‘this’.
Question 35
Fill in the blanks with the best alternative among the four options:

Around the world, forests are being destroyed at a rate of about thirteen million hectares a year and deforestation accounts for an estimated 17% - 20% of all global emissions. In addition, forests and other terrestrial carbon sinks play a ___(27)___ role in preventing runaway climate change, soaking up a full 2.6 Gt of atmospheric carbon every year. The destruction of forests, therefore, not only emits carbon – a staggering 1.6 Gt a year, which severely ___(28)___ forests' capacity to absorb emissions from other sources – but also drastically ___(29)___ the amount of forested land available to act as a carbon sink in the future.
However, the effects of deforestation extend beyond carbon. Rainforests ___(30)___ a wide variety of ecosystems services, from regulating rainfall to purifying groundwater and keeping fertile soil from ___(31)___; deforestation in one area can seriously damage food production and ___(32)___ to clean water in an entire region. The value of global ecosystem services has been estimated at 33 trillion USD each year (almost half of global GDP), but these services have been taken for granted without a mechanism to make the market reflect their value. Rainforests are also a home and ___(33)___ of income for a huge number of people in Africa, Asia, and South America. ___(34)___ this, economic pressures frequently drive both these local communities and national governments in the developing world to ___(35)___ forests in ways that are unsustainable, clear-cutting vast areas for fuel, timber, mining, or agricultural land.
Aexploit
Bencompass
Cnurture
Dwork
A exploit
The hint here is ‘in ways that are unsustainable ...’ Hence ‘exploit’ seems to be the obvious choice!

Section: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Question 1
The Aircraft Carrier inducted in to the Indian Navy recently is
AINS Virat
BINS Vikrant
CINS Vikramaditya
DNone
C INS Vikramaditya
INS Vikramaditya
Question 2
Which of the following countries impeached its Chief Justice recently?
ABangladesh
BPakistan
CSri Lanka
DMaldives
C Sri Lanka
Question 3
With which of the following country India signed an Extradition treaty that came into force during October 2013?
AAfghanistan
BKenya
CChina
DBangladesh
D Bangladesh
Question 4
The present Chief Election Commissioner of India is
ADr Nasim Zaidi
BV.S. Sampath
CH.S. Brahma
DNone
B V.S. Sampath
Question 5
According to the recent World population data of 2013, the second most populous city in the world is
ANew Delhi
BTokyo
CMexico
DBeijing
A New Delhi
Question 6
The latest country to launch a satellite during January 2013 from its soil and join the club of space-faring nations is
ASouth Korea
BNorth Korea
CUkraine
DIran
A South Korea
Question 7
Who won the Women's Singles at the Malaysian Grand Prix Badminton Championship in 2013?
ASaina Nehwal
BJuan Gu
CP.V. Sindhu
DRatchanok Intanon
C P.V. Sindhu
Question 8
Who is the oldest woman tennis player to be ranked No. 1 in the world?
AVenus Williams
BChris Evert
CMartina Navratilova
DSerena Williams
D Serena Williams
Question 9
How many High Courts are there in India as on January 2014?
A18
B21
C28
D24
D 24
Question 10
Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for the year 2013 has been conferred on:
AMs. Angela Merkel
BMr. Nelson Mandela
CMr. Uhuru Kenyatta
DMr. Hamid Karzai
A Ms. Angela Merkel
Question 11
Who has won the Golden Shoe Award in Soccer three times?
ADiego Maradona
BChristiano Ronaldo
CLionel Messi
DPele
C Lionel Messi
Question 12
The phrase 'Bitcoins' refers to
ACryptocurrency introduced by the United States
BCryptocurrency introduced by France
CCryptocurrency introduced by the World Bank
DNone
D None
Question 13
Who was conferred the Col. C.K. Nayudu Life Achievement Award in Cricket during 2012?
ASunil Gavaskar
BSachin Tendulkar
CDhoni
DKapil Dev
A Sunil Gavaskar
Question 14
The Parliament of India voted to remove
AJustice V. Ramaswami
BJustice P. Dinakaran
CJustice Soumitra Sen
DNone
D None
Question 15
The maximum penalty that can be imposed by CIC/SIC under the Right to Information Act, 2005 is
ARs. 5,000
BRs. 25,000
CRs. 250
DRs. 10,000
B Rs. 25,000
Question 16
On January 1, 2013, internet has completed
A26 years
B30 years
C32 years
D28 years
B 30 years
Question 17
Which of the following was declared by the United Nations General Assembly as "International Year for Water Cooperation"?
A2011
B2012
C2013
D2014
C 2013
Question 18
How many States are there in the European Union?
A28
B24
C36
D22
A 28
Question 19
How many members can be nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President?
A10
B20
C12
D16
C 12
Question 20
The highest award for sporting excellence in India is
AArjuna Award
BDronacharya Award
CBharat Ratna
DKhel Ratna
D Khel Ratna
Question 21
Cloves, used as a spice, are derived from which of the following plant parts?
ASeeds
BFruits
CFlower buds
DYoung leaves
C Flower buds
Question 22
Which one of the following is included in the World List of Biosphere Reserves by UNESCO?
AKinnaur Region
BSpiti Valley
CNallamalai Hills
DSunderbans
D Sunderbans
Question 23
Who among the following was the first Law Minister of India?
AJawaharlal Nehru
BMaulana Abul Kalam Azad
CDr. B.R. Ambedkar
DT. Krishnamachari
C Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Question 24
Which one of the following countries is not a UN member country?
AGreece
BTaiwan
CPortugal
DAustralia
B Taiwan
Question 25
The main component of India's import items from China is
ARice
BIron ore
CPharmaceuticals
DTelecom equipments and Machinery
D Telecom equipments and Machinery
Question 26
Which of the following divides India into Northern and Southern parts?
AEquator
BTropic of Cancer
CTropic of Capricorn
DArctic Circle
B Tropic of Cancer
Question 27
With which one of the following countries, India shares maximum length of the border?
ABangladesh
BPakistan
CChina
DNepal
A Bangladesh
Question 28
What is known as Jasmine Revolution?
ACzech uprising
BSudan uprising
CArab Spring
DLibyan uprising
C Arab Spring
Question 29
Which one of the following statements about NATO is not correct?
ANATO has 28 independent member states
BThe US is an ex-officio member of NATO
CNATO is a collective defence organisation in Europe
DTurkey is a member of NATO
C NATO is a collective defence organisation in Europe
Question 30
V.R. Krishna Iyer was
Aa minister
Ban ambassador
Ca Governor
Da bureaucrat
A a minister
Question 31
What does airbag, used for safety of car driver, contain?
ASodium bicarbonate
BSodium azide
CSodium nitrite
DSodium peroxide
B Sodium azide
Question 32
Which colour of heat radiation represents the highest temperature?
ABlood red
BDark cherry
CSalmon
DWhite
D White
Question 33
Who is the founder of Facebook?
AJimmy Wales
BLarry Page
CMark Zuckerberg
DBrian Acton
C Mark Zuckerberg
Question 34
Shashi Kant Sharma was appointed in 2013 as the
AAttorney General of India
BComptroller and Auditor General of India
CCommissioner of Linguistic Minorities
DChairman of the National Commission for SCs & STs
B Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Question 35
Mist is a result of which one of the following?
ACondensation
BEvaporation
CSublimation
DSaturation
A Condensation

Section: LEGAL APTITUDE

Question 1
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The occupier of a premise owes a duty of care to all his invitees and visitors.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Radhika's brother, Akash, had come to visit at her place. After seeing her wealth, Akash decided to commit theft that night. While he was trying to escape that night he got electrocuted by the wires which were fixed on the boundary walls. Akash plans to sue Radhika. Will his claim succeed?
DECISION:
AYes, because in Indian tradition, guests are like Gods.
BNo, because one has to be himself cautious about his safety.
CYes, because it is the occupiers' duty to take care of its visitors.
DNo, because he himself is guilty of theft. He is no longer an invitee or visitor
D No, because he himself is guilty of theft. He is no longer an invitee or visitor
In this case when Akash came to the house of Radhika at night he came not in the capacity of a visitor or invitee but as a thief. So Radhika does not owe any duty of care towards Akash and hence would not be liable.
Question 2
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. An unlawful intrusion which interferes with one's person or property constitutes trespass.
2. An easement is the right to use another person's land for a stated purpose and has been in use for quite some time. It can involve a general or specific portion of the property.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Vijay wanted to construct a shed on his window to stop the water from leaking to his house. The shed was constructed but it protruded in Namit's house. Vijay claims it is his easementary right. Will Vijay's claim succeed?
DECISION:
AYes, because he has a reason to do the same
BYes, because right of easement exists.
CNo, because there exists no right of easement.
DNo, because this is encroachment on Namit's property.
C No, because there exists no right of easement.
In the given facts the shed over the window was not present before; therefore, when Vijay got the shed built which eventually interfered with Namit's house, Vijay cannot claim easementary right. This is because the shed was put to use from the present and was not in use before.
Question 3
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A person is responsible for that which he could have reasonably foreseen or prevented.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A chemist sold a hair conditioner to Jyoti. The conditioner was locally manufactured and the contents, harmful chemicals, were listed on the bottle. The chemist, however, represented to Jyoti that the chemicals used were harmless and beneficial for the hair. On using it, Jyoti's hair was badly damaged and she had to get hair treatment done for the same. Jyoti filed a complaint against the chemist. Will the chemist be liable?
DECISION:
AYes, as he should have informed Jyoti that the ingredients are not known.
BLiable because he was aware of the side effects of the ingredients.
CNot liable because it was the buyer's duty to be aware about the product she is buying.
DNot liable as it is a natural tendency of shopkeepers to extol the virtues of the product they are selling
B Liable because he was aware of the side effects of the ingredients.
Since the shopkeeper knew that the chemicals in the shampoo were harmful but still presented the shampoo as harmless to Jyoti. The shopkeeper could have reasonably foreseen that if Jyoti used that shampoo her hair would be damaged.
Question 4
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Defamation means publication of a statement injuring the reputation of a person without lawful justification. Such statement must reflect on a person's reputation and tends to lower him in the estimation of right thinking members of the society generally or tends to make them shun or avoid him.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Madam Tussauds Ltd. decided to keep a waxwork exhibition, and placed an effigy of Babloo Prasad with a gun, in a room adjoining the "Chamber of Horrors". Mr. Babloo Prasad had been tried for murder in India and released on a verdict of "not proven guilt)'" and a representation of the scene of the alleged murder was displayed in the Chamber of Horrors. Is it amount to defamation?
DECISION:
ANo Defamation as Babloo was an accused.
BDefamation as his guilt was not proved and he was released by the court.
CNo defamation as there was no proper publication.
DNone of the above.
B Defamation as his guilt was not proved and he was released by the court.
Babloo had got the verdict of "not proven guilty" and what Madam Tussauds did depicted him as a criminal and they had no lawful justification for the same and hence would be guilty for defamation.
Question 5
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Every partner is liable, jointly with all the other partners and also severally, for all acts of the firm done while he is a partner.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A and B started a partnership firm for providing vehicle repairing services. C approached the firm for getting his car repaired and noticed that only B was present in the office. C informed the problem, and B started repairing the car. While B was repairing, he filled petrol instead of oil in the engine. As a consequence, a small blast occurred and damaged the car. Now, C sued both A and B for the damage so caused. Decide.
DECISION:
ABoth liable since B was authorised to carry out the work of the firm.
BA is not liable since A has not authorised B to do something which was not for the benefit of the firm.
C<em>A </em>is not liable since it was <em>B‘s </em>fault and for that only <em>B </em>can be held liable.
DA is liable since it was negligence on his part that he was not present in the office when C came.
A Both liable since B was authorised to carry out the work of the firm.
B who is a partner in the firm acts on behalf of the firm when C approaches him to repair his vehicle. Hence A who is the other partner will also be liable for the acts done by B as a partner of the firm.
Question 6
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: No fault liability means liability of a person even without any negligent act on his part and even if he has taken due care and caution. If a person brings and keeps any dangerous thing on his land, then he is liable for any damage caused if the thing escapes. No one can be penalized for an Act of God which is unforeseeable and unpredictable.
FACTUAL SITUATION: B owned and managed a company supplying electricity to the nearby locality. On a particular windy and stormy day, one of the wires snapped and was hanging down. A, a cyclist who was driving in the night, saw the wire from a distance. There was a nearby street light with low visibility. He came in contact with the wire and was electrocuted immediately. His heirs sued A on ground of strict liability. Decide.
DECISION:
AA is not liable because B must have stayed indoor on a windy day
B<em>A </em>is not liable because <em>B’s </em>negligence caused him injury.
CA is liable because supplying electricity is an inherently dangerous use of land and he should have been careful.
DA is not liable because sudden storm and winds without A’s negligence was an Act of<br /> God
C A is liable because supplying electricity is an inherently dangerous use of land and he should have been careful.
B manages an electricity supply unit which is a dangerous thing and in such a business it could be reasonably foreseen that wires may snap off and on. B cannot take the defence of act of god. Hence B would be liable.
Question 7
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The master/ principal is liable for all acts done by his duly appointed servant/agent for all acts done by him lawfully in the course of his employment.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A had an agency which used to lend carpenters to people on need basis. A deputed B to do some repair work in C's shed. While so doing, B lit up a cigarette and threw it as soon as he saw someone coming there. The cigarette remaining lit caused a fire and the shed was reduced to ashes. C sued A and B. Decide.
DECISION:
AA is liable as B was his servant.
BA is liable as he should have chosen responsible people.
CA is not liable as B s act was not an authorised act.
DA is not liable but B is liable.
A A is liable as B was his servant.
The cigarette causes fire and the shed is burnt down. Hence fire had been caused due to B who was at that time within the course of employment of A and, therefore, A would be liable.
Question 8
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Where the parents of a minor child due to their negligenceallow the child an opportunity to commit a tort, the parents are liable.
FACTUAL SITUATION: The father supplied an airgun to his son who was about to turn 18 next month. After some complaints of mischief, the father took the gun away and placed it in a corner of their storeroom which was used by the family to store surplus and other unnecessary stuff. The son took it out of the store and shot A. A sued his father. Is the father liable?
DECISION:
ANo. he took all necessary steps to prevent the son from using the gun.
BYes, he was the one who gave the gun and allowed him to use it by giving an opportunity.
CNo, the son was almost 17 years and 11 months of age; hence, he could think about his well being and interest.
DYes, the father was negligent in disposing off the gun.
B Yes, he was the one who gave the gun and allowed him to use it by giving an opportunity.
Since the father was the one who gave his son an air gun. Although he took it away from him but the son still had access to it, thereby giving his son an opportunity to use the gun which ultimately injured A. Hence the father would be liable.
Question 9
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. Medical professionals are not immune from liability in tort on ground of negligence.
2. Services rendered to a patient by a doctor (except when given free of charge) by way of consultation, diagnosis and treatment fall in the definition of "service" under the Consumer Protection Act. In case of negligence, the doctors are liable in tort as well as under the Consumer Protection Act.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A was the only child of his parents. Once he had high fever and his parents called a doctor at home. This doctor used to work at a respectable hospital in Delhi. The doctor administered certain medicines and asked the nurse to stay with him for the night and administer to him a chloroquine injection. This injection was generally not suitable for young children. The nurse, without prior test, followed instructions of the doctor and gave the injection. As a result of an allergic reaction, the child died. The parents sued the nurse and the doctor.
DECISION:
ADoctor was rendering a "service"; hence liable to pay compensation.
BDoctor was not liable as he came to their home to give personal treatment and was not in the Hospital.
CThis is not a service; hence not liable.
DOnly the nurse is liable
A Doctor was rendering a "service"; hence liable to pay compensation.
The doctor was negligent while treating A as he prescribed the injection which was not suitable for young children as a result of which A died. Hence the doctor would be liable.
Question 10
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. An act done by the consent of a person above 18 years is not an offence; provide the offender did not intend to cause death or grievous hurt.
2. Mere pecuniary benefit is not a 'thing done for a person's benefit'.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A, a poor man, is in dire need of money to pav off his money lenders. A approaches Z, a doctor, to operate on him to remove one of his kidneys so that he can donate it to needy people and earn money. The doctor explains to him the risks and thereafter proceeds to remove his kidney. In the process, some complications develop and A develops an abdominal tumour. Is Z guilty?
DECISION:
AYes, donating kidney for money is illegal and amounts to trafficking of organs.
BYes, removing kidney for money is not an act protected by this exception.
CNo, Z performed the operation with A's consent and fully explained him the risks involved.
DNo, Z's act was done for A's benefit so that he can pay off the money lenders.
C No, Z performed the operation with A's consent and fully explained him the risks involved.
In this case Z explains to A the risks involved in the surgery for removing kidney and also operates A only after obtaining his full consent'. Hence Z would not be liable.
Question 11
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. An act done, even if without the consent of a person is not an offence, provided the offender did not intend to cause death, and the act was done for the person's benefit, in good faith.
2. Mere pecuniary benefit is not a 'thing done for a person's benefit'.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A is in a house which is on fire, with Z, a child. People below hold out a blanket. A drops the child from the house top, knowing it to be likely that the fall may kill the child but intending to save him from the fire. Unfortunately, the child is killed. Is A guilty?
DECISION:
AYes, A had knowledge of his dangerous act. His act was not justified.
BYes, A should have tried a less dangerous alternative.
CNo, his act was done in good faith to save the child.
DNo, he had the best of intentions and this was the only alternative
C No, his act was done in good faith to save the child.
A knows that the only chance of saving Z from fire was to drop him from the top of the house as people were standing below with blanket. He did this in good faith in order to save Z and hence would not be liable.
Question 12
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence which is done by any person who is, or who by reason of mistake of fact, in good faith, believes himself to be bound by law to do it.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A, a soldier, fires on a mob by the order of his superior officer, in conformity with the commands of the law. B is killed due to such firing. Is A guilty of murder?
DECISION:
AYes, he should have taken care to avoid any innocent person from being killed.
BNo, he is bound by law to do it.
CYes, as he has killed a person.
DThe superior officer is guilty
A Yes, he should have taken care to avoid any innocent person from being killed.
A is bound by law to carry out orders of his superiors and so he fires at the mob following an order from a superior which resulted in the death of B. Hence A would not be guilty of murder.
Question 13
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LELEGAL PRINCIPLE: A person shall not be guilty of contempt of court on the ground that he has published any matter which interferes with or obstructs or tends to obstruct the course of justice in connection with any civil or criminal proceeding pending at the time of the publication, if at that time he had no reasonable grounds for believing that the proceeding was pending.
FACTUAL SITUATION: X delivered a lecture at the local Rotary Club in favour of an accused who is prosecuted for assaulting a police officer. He said that the accused is a victim of prevailing corruption in the judiciary and he knows that the accused is going to be punished by the court for being honest. Is X guilty of contempt of court? DECISION:
ANo, not guilty of contempt of court.
BYes, guilty of contempt of court.
CYes, X has dishonoured judiciary.
DNo, X is an honest man.
B Yes, guilty of contempt of court.
Since X knew that the proceeding is pending and still made comments about the trial of the accused which were likely to interfere with the course of justice and, hence, X would be guilty.
Question 14
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Whoever intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person's consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A, in good faith, believing property belonging to B to be A's own property, sells the property to C. Has A committed theft?
DECISION:
ANo, because he did not have a dishonest intention.
BNo, he did not move the property.
CNo, he did not move the property that was in <em>B’s </em>possession.
DYes, the constituent elements of theft are satisfied in this case.
A No, because he did not have a dishonest intention.
In this case A had no dishonest intention and sold B's property to C in good faith thinking it to be his. Hence A would not guilty of theft.
Question 15
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. Preparation to commit an offence is not an offence.
2. After one has finished preparation to commit an offence, any act done towards committing the offence with the intention to commit it, is an attempt to commit the offence which is by itself an offence.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Manish wanted to kill Nandini and had therefore gone to the market to buy explosives to plant in her house. Manish kept those explosives in his godown as he planned to plant them early next morning. But as the explosives were stolen in the night he could not plant them in Nandini's house. However, Nandini came to know about Manish's plan and therefore wants to file a complaint against him. Will she succeed?
DECISION:
AYes, because he has done something more than mere preparation.
BNo, because Nandini did not die.
CYes, because there existed a mala fide intention.
DNo, because mere preparation is no offence
D No, because mere preparation is no offence
Manish had only made preparation to plant the explosives at Nandini's house. But as the explosives were stolen he could not plant them nor could he attempt. Hence Manish would not be guilty.
Question 16
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Whoever intentionally uses force to any person, without that person's consent, in order to committing of any offence, or intending by the use of such force to cause, or knowing it likely to cause injury, fear, or annoyance to the person to whom the force is used, is said to use criminal force to that other.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Akash was burning some crackers in his house when his dog got scared and got unruly which scared his brother Mohsin. Can this be called criminal force?
DECISION:
AYes, because he did it intentionally.
BNo, because law doesn't account for trivial things.
CYes, because it led to annoyance of Mohsin.
DNo, because there was no mala fide intention
B No, because law doesn't account for trivial things.
Akash was burning crackers which scared his dog and made him unruly which ultimately scared Mohsin. There is no use of criminal force as Akash was only playing with the crackers and had no intention of scaring either the dog or his brother Mohsin.
Question 17
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of commission of the act charged as an offence, nor subjected to a penalty greater than which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of commission of the offence.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A boy of 16 years was convicted of house trespass and theft. He was sentenced to imprisonment for 6 months and fine was also imposed. After the judgement, the Probation of Offenders Act came into force. It provided that a person below 21 years may not ordinarily be sentenced to imprisonment. Now the bov claims the benefit of this Act. Should he get it?
DECISION:
ANo
BThe rule of beneficial interpretation required that the benefit of ex post facto law can be applied to reduce his sentence.
CA boy below 18 years is a minor and so should not be punished.
DNone of the above.
B The rule of beneficial interpretation required that the benefit of ex post facto law can be applied to reduce his sentence.
In this case the new Act is not providing for an offence or punishment but is providing for a law which would exempt the boy from punishment. Hence the boy would be able to get the benefit of the Act.
Question 18
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: No one can be punished for the same offence twice.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Aditya is accused of harassing his colleague Nimisha. She complains to her superior and a departmental inquiry is initiated against Aditya. Aditya tries to intimidate Nimisha and continues harassing her following which she complains to the police. The departmental inquiry finds him guilty and terminates his services. Later, he is found guilty by a court and is jailed for 2 years. He claims that he has been punished twice.
DECISION:
AHe has been punished twice for the same offence.
BHe has not been punished twice for the same offence.
CHe has been punished for different offences.
DNone of the above
C He has been punished for different offences.
When Aditya initially harasses Nimisha she files a complaint with the departmental authority which later terminates Aditya from service. When Aditya again harasses Nimisha she files a complaint with the police and the court sentences him to two years' imprisonment. Hence in this case Aditya has committed offence on two different occasions and therefore he is being punished for different offences.
Question 19
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: To be held guilty of an offence, one should have done the act that causes the intended result.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A, with the intention to murder B stabs him repeatedly with a knife, B is taken to the hospital and is found to be out of danger. Thereafter, due to the doctor's negligence, B's wounds are infected and he requires surgical interventions. During the time of operation to remove his infected leg, B died on account of administration of general anesthesia.
DECISION:
AA is guilty of murder.
BA is not guilty of murder though he may be guilty of attempt to murder.
CA is not guilty of murder but he may be guilty of causing hurt.
DThe doctor is liable as he was negligent.
A A is guilty of murder.
The intended result anticipated by A was murder of B for which he does the act of stabbing B with a knife in order to kill him. But B survives (although later dies due to medical complications) so the intended result of A could not be achieved and, hence, he would be guilty for attempt to murder.
Question 20
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Every agreement, by which any party is restricted absolutely from enforcing his rights in respect of any contract, by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary tribunals, is void to that extent.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Feroz and Pinto entered into an agreement for rendering certain services. As per the prevailing law, the agreement may be enforced either at Jaipur or Udaipur. The agreement itself, however, specifies that upon breach, the parties can only approach courts at Jaipur. Feroz breaches the contract and Pinto, being a resident of Udaipur, would like to sue him in Udaipur. He challenged the validity of the clause.
DECISION:
APinto will succeed as Feroz had made him suffer and the law must take his convenience into account and allow him to sue in Udaipur.
BPinto will succeed as the contract does not allow him to institute any legal proceedings in any court or tribunal in Udaipur.
CPinto will fail as the contract does not restrain him from instituting legal proceedings in Jaipur.
DPinto will fail as he was of sound mind while entering into contract and having accepted it, he cannot now deny his obligation.
C Pinto will fail as the contract does not restrain him from instituting legal proceedings in Jaipur.
In the given facts, the agreement does not bar Pinto from enforcing his right but only specifies the place where the right can be enforced, i.e. Jaipur. Hence the agreement is not void and Pinto will fail in his action.
Question 21
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A contract is an agreement enforceable by law.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Amita invited Bina to her house for dinner. Bina accepted the invitation but later did not go. On Bina's failure to attend, Amita filed a suit against Bina for the price of non-consumed food. Will the law enforce this agreement?
DECISION:
ANo, it is a social agreement.
BYes, Amita can recover amount for non-consumed food.
CNo, as Bina did not accept the invitation in writing.
DNo, because the law does not take account of trivial things
D No, because the law does not take account of trivial things
The agreement between Amita and Bina qualifies as a contract as there is offer and acceptance but is too small an issue for the court to interfere.
Question 22
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. Once a person accepts another's offer, and signifies such acceptance to the former, a contract comes into existence between them.
2. Uncertain agreements are void agreements.
3. Rejected offers can be accepted only if renewed.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Bakshi wanted to purchase a particular land. He sent a letter to his cousin, Dutt, offering him? 4 lakhs for it. Dutt replied that he would not sell it below 5 lakhs. Bakshi communicated his willingness to pay this amount. Dutt did not sell the land to Bakshi. Bakshi sued him for breach of contract.
DECISION:
ADutt is liable because once he communicates an offer to Bakshi and Bakshi accepts it, a contract comes into existence.
BDutt is liable as he has misled Bakshi by his actions.
CDutt is not liable because he has rejected the offer by giving a counter offer which is also not specific.
DDutt is not liable as there is no legally enforceable contract
C Dutt is not liable because he has rejected the offer by giving a counter offer which is also not specific.
Bakshi offers Dutt to buy his house at `4 lakhs to which Dutt makes an unspecific counter offer that he would not sell his house below `5 lakhs. Since the counter offer is unspecific there could be no acceptance of the same and hence no binding contract.
Question 23
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: An agreement is void if the court regards it as opposed to the public policy.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Sunita, while her husband Shankar was alive, promised to marry Neel in the event of Shankar's death. Subsequently, Shankar died, but Sunita refused to marry Neel. Neel sues Sunita for damages for breach of promise.
DECISION:
ASunita is liable as she is bound to marry Neel.
BShe is liable to compensate Neel for breach of promise.
CNeel can marry someone else.
DShe is not liable as the contract is opposed to public policy and so void.
D She is not liable as the contract is opposed to public policy and so void.
In this case Sunita contracted to marry Neel in the event of her husband's death while her husband was still alive. Since it is an agreement to remarry when the first husband is alive, therefore, it is against the policy and void.
Question 24
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: An agreement is void if its object is unlawful.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Sunil had a rich uncle who owned prime property in Chennai and had lot of money in the bank. Being the only heir, Sunil was sure that he would inherit the property. One day, the uncle called him to his room and announced that he planned to marry again. This angered Sunil and he plans to murder his uncle so he hired Anuj, a murderer and entered into a contract with him to kill his uncle. Sunil agreed to pay Rs. 10 lakhs to Anuj and even paid 5 lakhs as advance. The following night Anuj entered the uncle's house intending to kill him. On reaching there, he realised that Sunil's uncle was already dead so he left without doing anything. Next day, after post mortem report, it transpired that Sunil's uncle had died due to heart attack. Now, Sunil wants to recover the advance from Anuj. Will he succeed?
DECISION:
AYes
BNo
CAnuj is liable to return the amount as the act was not done by him.
DNone of the above
B No
The agreement between Sunil and Anuj is void since the object of the agreement was murder of Sunil's uncle which is unlawful. Hence Sunil would not be able to recover the money as he had advanced money under a void agreement the object of which was unlawful.
Question 25
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. Consideration must be of value in the eyes of law.
2. Consideration is not real if it is illusory.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Arjun received summons to appear at a trial as a witness on behalf of Bitu, the accused. Bitu promised to pay him a sum of Rs. 1, 000 for his trouble. On default by Bitu, Arjun filed a suit to recover the said sum. Will he succeed?
DECISION:
ANo, as the consideration is of no value in the eyes of law.
BYes, as the contract is supported by consideration.
CNo, as there is no consideration for the promise.
DYes, as he appeared before court only after Bitu agreed to pay him the amount of Rs. 1,000.
D Yes, as he appeared before court only after Bitu agreed to pay him the amount of Rs. 1,000.
Where in lieu of Arjun appearing before the court Bitu promised to pay Arjun `1000 for the trouble caused to him. Hence the promise of Bitu to pay money was well supported by a consideration to appear as a witness from Arjun.
Question 26
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A minor is not competent to contract.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Deep, a 9th standard student realizes that he being a minor, he is not permitted by law to execute a contract, appoints Mandeep as his agent to conclude purchase of a land to gift it to his mother on her birthday- Mandeep accordingly prepares the papers for the transaction but at the last minute the seller who had agreed to sell it now refuses to sell it contending that he does not wish to sell the land to a minor. Deep seeks to enforce the contract against the seller.
DECISION:
ADeep can enforce the contract - since Mandeep is his agent, Deep is deemed to have personally entered into a contract.
BDeep cannot enforce the contract - only Mandeep can, since seller has entered into the contract with Mandeep.
CDeep cannot enforce the contract since he is a minor.
DDeep can neither appoint an agent nor enforce the contract since he is a minor
D Deep can neither appoint an agent nor enforce the contract since he is a minor
Deep appoints an agent to execute a transfer of property but since the agent acts on behalf of the principal and the principal here is a minor who himself is not competent, therefore Deep cannot enforce the contract of sale between his agent and the seller because even his agent would be considered incompetent. Hence he could neither execute the transaction himself nor appoint an agent for the same.
Question 27
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. Acceptance must be given only by the person to whom the offer is made.
2. Communication of acceptance to a person who did not make the offer does not bind the offerer.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Pal sold his business to Sam without disclosing it to his customers. Mani, an old customer sent an order for goods to Pal by name. Sam, the new owner, executed the order. Mani refuses to accept the goods from Sam as he intended to deal only with Pal. In a suit by Sam against Mani:
DECISION:
ASam cannot recover as Mani never intended to deal with him.
BCan recover the price as he had supplied goods only against the order made by Mani
CSam cannot recover as it was only an invitation to offer by Mani on which no acceptance can be given by Sam.
DSam can recover as the price of the goods as an offer once accepted results in a contract.
A Sam cannot recover as Mani never intended to deal with him.
Since the business of Pal had been purchased by Sam he accepted the offer and sent the goods. There is no contract as offer was made to Pal and he alone can accept it and therefore Mani is under no obligation to accept the goods.
Question 28
The main objectives of the Judicial Standards Accountability Bill 2010
1. It is a legislation which aims to increase accountability of the higher judiciary in India
2. It seeks to devise a new "complaint procedure" under which any person may be able to file a complaint in writing against any judge of a superior court
3. The issue of Judicial Standards must be seen in the context of Article 124(4) of the Constitution
4. The Bill seeks to provide a straight jacketed definition of misbehaviour in clause 2(k) Select the correct code:
A1 and 2
B1, 2 and 3
COnly 4
D3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3
All of the above points on Judicial Standards Accountability Bill 2010 are correct.
Question 29
In April 2013, the Supreme Court held that the modification of a well-known cancer fighting drug is not a patentable new invention against which pharmaceutical firm?
AGlaxoSmithKline
BNovartis
CRanbaxy
DCipla
B Novartis
Novartis
Question 30
Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 does not provide that:
AA rape convict can be sentenced to a term not less than 20 years Death sentence to not less than 20 years
BDeath sentence to repeat offenders
CStalking and voyeurism are bailable offences
DAcid attack convicts can get a 10 year jail term
C Stalking and voyeurism are bailable offences
As per Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, Stalking and voyeurism are NON BAILABLE offences
Question 31
India, Uniform Civil Code is applicable in the State of:
AGoa
BNagaland
CJammu & Kashmir
DMaharashtra
A Goa
Uniform Civil Code is only applicable in the State of Goa.
Question 32
NOTA is introduced in the voting machine as one among the options based on
ARepresentation of Peoples Act, 1950
BRepresentation of Peoples Act, 1951
CDecision of the Supreme Court of India
DDirection of the Election Commission
B Representation of Peoples Act, 1951
NOTA is introduced in the voting machine as one among the options based on Representation of Peoples Act, 1951.
Question 33
How many duties are provided under Part IV A of the Constitution?
A10
B11
C12
D8
B 11
There are 11 Fundamental Duties in Constitution of India. 11th was added by 86th Constitutional Amendment, 2002.
Question 34
The Inter State Council has been constituted based on the recommendation of
ASecond Administrative Reforms Commission
BNational Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution
CSarkaria Commission
DPunchhi Commission
C Sarkaria Commission
The Inter-State Council is a non-permanent constitutional body set up by a presidential order on the basis of provisions in Article 263 of the Constitution of India. The body was formed by a Presidential Order dated 28 May 1990 on recommendation of Sarkaria Commission.
Question 35
Which of the following is not a constitutional body?
AFinance Commission
BState Public Service Commissions
CElection Commission
DPlanning commission
D Planning commission
Planning Commission (Presently NITI Ayog) is an extra constitutional body. An extra constitutional body is an institution of government which is not defined in Constitution of India but are established by a resolution (decision) of union cabinet. For Example Planning Commission, National Development Council etc.

Section: REASONING

Question 1
Rahul: One would have to be blind to the reality of moral obligation to deny that people who believe a course of action to be morally obligatory for them have both the right and the duty to pursue that action, and that no one else has any right to stop them from doing so.
Richa: But imagine an artist who feels morally obliged to do whatever she can to prevent works of art from being destroyed confronting a morally committed anti-pornography demonstrator engaged in destroying artworks he deems pornographic. According to your principle that artist has, simultaneously, both the right and duty to stop the destruction and no right whatsoever to stop it.

Which of the following, if substituted for the scenario invoked by Richa, would preserve the force of her argument?
A A medical researcher who feels a moral obligation not to claim sole credit for work that was performed in part by someone else confronting another researcher who feels no such moral obligation.
B A manufacturer who feels a moral obligation to recall potentially dangerous products confronting a consumer advocate who feels morally obliged to expose product defects.
C An architect who feels a moral obligation to design only energy- efficient buildings confronting, as a potential client, a corporation that believes its primary moral obligation is to maximise shareholder profits.
D A health inspector who feels morally obliged to enforce restrictions on the number of cats a householder may keep confronting a householder who, feeling morally obliged to keep every' stray that comes along, has over twice that number of cats.
A A medical researcher who feels a moral obligation not to claim sole credit for work that was performed in part by someone else confronting another researcher who feels no such moral obligation.
Question 2
Between 1951 and 1963, it was illegal in the country of Geronia to manufacture, sell, or transport any alcoholic beverages. Despite this prohibition, however, the death rate from diseases related to excessive alcohol consumption was higher during the first five years of the period than it was during the five years prior to 1951. Therefore, the attempt to prevent alcohol use merely made people want and use alcohol more than they would have if it had not been forbidden.

Each of the following, if true, weakens the argument EXCEPT:
A Many who died of alcohol-related diseases between 1951 and 1963 consumed illegally imported alcoholic beverages produced by the same methods as those used within Geronia.
B Death from an alcohol-related disease generally does not occur until five to ten years after the onset of excessive alcohol consumption.
C The death rate resulting from alcohol- related diseases increased just as sharply during the ten years before and ten years after the prohibition of alcohol as it did during the years of prohibition.
D Between 1951 and 1963, among the people with pre-existing alcohol- related diseases, the percentage who obtained life-saving medical attention declined because of a social stigma attached to excessive alcohol consumption.
A Many who died of alcohol-related diseases between 1951 and 1963 consumed illegally imported alcoholic beverages produced by the same methods as those used within Geronia.
Question 3
Unless they are used as strictly temporary measures, rent-control ordinances (municipal regulations placing limits on rent increase) have several negative effects for renters. One of these is that the controls will bring about a shortage of rental units. This disadvantage for renters occurs over the long run, but the advantage-smaller rent increases - occurs immediately. In many municipalities, especially in all those where tenants of rent-control units have a secure hold on political power and can get rent-control ordinances enacted or repealed, it is invariably the desire for short-term gain that guides those tenants in the exercise of that power.

If the statements above are true, which one of the following can be properly inferred from them?
A It is impossible for landlords to raise rents when rent controls are in effect.
B In many municipalities, rent-control ordinances are repealed as soon as shortages of rental units arise.
C In many municipalities there is now, or eventually will be, a shortage of rental units.
D In the long term, a shortage of rental units will raise rents substantially.
C In many municipalities there is now, or eventually will be, a shortage of rental units.
Question 4
A government's proposed 8 percent cut in all subsidies to art groups will be difficult for those groups to absorb. As can be seen, however, from their response to last year's cut, it will not put them out of existence. Last year there was also an 8 percent cut, and though private fundraising was very difficult for the art groups in the current recessionary economy, they did survive.

The reasoning in the argument is flawed because the argument
A Relies without warrant on the probability that the economy will improve.
B Overlooks the possibility that the cumulative effect of the cuts will be more than the arts group can withstand.
C Equates the mere survival of the arts groups with their flourishing.
D Does not raise the issue of whether there should be any government subsidies to arts groups at all.
B Overlooks the possibility that the cumulative effect of the cuts will be more than the arts group can withstand.
Question 5
Health insurance insulates patients from the expense of medical care, giving doctors almost complete discretion in deciding the course of most medical treatments. Moreover, with doctors being paid for each procedure performed, they have an incentive to over-treat patients. It is thus clear that medical procedures administered by doctors are frequently prescribed only because these procedures lead to financial rewards.

The argument uses which one of the following questionable techniques?
A Assigning responsibility for a certain result to someone whose involvement in the events leading to that result was purely coincidental.
B Inferring the performance of certain actions on no basis other than the existence of both incentive and opportunity for performing those actions.
C Presenting as capricious and idiosyncratic decisions that are based on the rigorous application of well- defined principles.
D Depicting choices as having been made arbitrarily by dismissing without argument reasons that have been given for these choices.
B Inferring the performance of certain actions on no basis other than the existence of both incentive and opportunity for performing those actions.
Question 6
Each question contains six statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the combinations are logically related.

1. Some buildings are not skyscrapers
2. Some skyscrapers are not buildings
3. No structure is a skyscraper
4. All skyscrapers are structures
5. Some skyscrapers are buildings
6. Some structures are not buildings
A 1, 3, 5
B 2, 4, 6
C 6, 4, 1
D 1, 3, 6
B 2, 4, 6
Question 7
Each question contains six statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the combinations are logically related.

1. All bins are buckets
2. No buckets is a basket
3. No bin is a basket
4. Some baskets are buckets
5. Some bins are baskets
6. No basket is a bin
A 2, 4, 5
B 1, 3, 2
C 2, 4, 6
D 1, 2, 6
D 1, 2, 6
Question 8
1. If democracy is to survive, the people must develop a sense of consumerism.
2. Consumerism has helped improve the quality of goods in certain countries,
3. The protected environment in our country is helping the local manufacturers.
4. The quality of goods suffers if the manufacturers take undue advantage of this,
AIJFJ
BJFJI
CIJJF
DIFJJ
B JFJI
Question 9
1. Everyday social life is impossible without interpersonal relationships.
2. The roots of many misunderstandings have been cited in poor relations among individuals.
3. Assuming the above to be true, social life will be much better if people understand the importance of good interpersonal relations.
4. A study reveals that interpersonal relations and hence life in general can be improved with a little effort on the part of individuals.
AFJIJ
BJFIF
CFIFJ
DIFFJ
B JFIF
Question 10
If the 2nd and 5th pennants are blue, the 2nd and 5th flags are red, and the 3rd flag is white, then which one of the following must be true?
ATwo of the flags are white.
BTwo of the pennants are white.
CThe 4th pennant is green.
DIf the 1st flag is white, then the 1st pennant is green.
D If the 1st flag is white, then the 1st pennant is green.
Question 11
If the 1st flag is red and the 2nd pennant is blue, then which one of the following is NOT necessarily true?
AThe second flag is white.
BIf the 5th flag is red, then the 3rd flag is blue.
CIf the 4th pennant is green, then the 1st pennant is white.
DIf the 1st and 5th flags are of the same colour, then the 3rd flag is blue.
C If the 4th pennant is green, then the 1st pennant is white.
Question 12
If the 1st and 3rd flags are white and the 2nd and 4th pennants are blue, then which one of the following is false?
AThe 4th flag is red.
BThe 1st pennant is green.
CThe 3rd pennant is not red.
DThe 5th pennant is green.
D The 5th pennant is green.
Question 13
If the 1st and 4th flags are blue, and the 3rd pennant is white, then which one of the following must be true?
AIf the 1st pennant is green, then the 5th pennant is white.
BIf the 5th pennant is white, then the 1st pennant is green.
CThe 2nd flag is red.
DThe 5th flag is red.
B If the 5th pennant is white, then the 1st pennant is green.
Question 14
If the 2nd flag is red and the 3rd flag is white, and the 4th pennant is blue, then which one of the following must be true?
AIf the 5th flag is white, then the two of the pennants are blue.
BIf the 1st flag is white, then the 2nd flag is white.
CIf the 1st pennant is blue, then the 5th pennant is green.
DIf the 1st pennant is green, then the 5th flag is not blue.
A If the 5th flag is white, then the two of the pennants are blue.
Question 15
If the 1st flag and the 2nd pennant are of the same colour, the 2nd flag and the 3rd pennant are the same colour, the 3rd flag and the 4th pennant are the same colour, and the 4th flag and the 5th pennant are the same colour, then which one of the following must be true?
AThe 1st pennant is white.
BThe 2nd flag is not white.
CThe 5th flag is red.
DThe 3rd pennant is blue.
C The 5th flag is red.
Question 16
Nicky, who is Ronald's daughter, says to Irene, "Your mother Rita is the youngest sister of my father, who is the third child of Sylvester". How is Sylvester related to Irene?
AMaternal uncle
BFather
CGrandfather
DFather-in-law
C Grandfather
Question 17
Pointing to a lady, a person says to his friend, "She is the grandmother of the elder brother of my father". How is the girl in the photograph related to the man?
ANiece
BSister
CAunt
DSister-in-law
A Niece
Question 18
Pointing towards a boy, Aruna said to Pushpa, "The mother of his father is the wife of your grandfather (mother's father)". How is Pushpa related to that boy?
ASister
BNiece
CCousin
DWife
C Cousin
Question 19
The front door of Kiran house is towards the south. From the backside of her house she walks 50 metres straight then turns towards the left and walks 100 metres and after that turns right and stops after walking 100 metres. Now Kiran is facing which direction?
AEast
BSouth
CWest
DNorth
D North
Question 20
If Northwest becomes south and southwest becomes east and all the other directions change in the similar manner, then what will be the direction for north?
ASoutheast
BNortheast
CNorth
DSouthwest
D Southwest
Question 21
A policeman goes 20 km east and then turning to the south he goes 30 km and then again turns to his left and goes 10 km. How far is he from his starting point?
A30 km
B20 km
C10 km
D40 km
C 10 km
Question 22
In the following number series, find out the missing number:

31, 32, 36, 45, ?
A55
B56
C63
D61
D 61
Question 23
In the following number series, find out the missing number:

1, 3, 2, 5, 3, 7, 4, 9, 5, 11, 6, ?
A10
B11
C13
D9
C 13
Question 24
In the following number series, find out the missing number:

300, 296, 287, 271, ?, 210
A246
B250
C244
D261
A 246
Question 25
In the following number series, find out the missing number:

12, 15, 19, ?, 30, 37
A25
B21
C23
D24
D 24
Question 26
In a cricket match the 'man of the match' award is given to the player scoring the highest number of runs. In case of tie, the player (out of those locked in the tie) who has taken the higher number of catches is chosen. Even thereafter, if there is a tie, the player (out of those locked in the tie) who has dropped fewer catches is selected. Aakash, Biplab and Chirag who were contenders for the award dropped at least one catch each. Biplab dropped 2 catches more than Aakash did, scored 50, and took 2 catches. Chirag got two chances to catch and dropped both.

Who was the man of the match?
I. Chirag made 15 runs less than both Aakash and Biplab.
II. The catches dropped by Biplab are 1 more than the catches taken by Aakash.
AIf the question can be answered by using statement I alone but not by using II alone.
BIf the question can be answered by using Statement II alone but not by using I alone.
CIf the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
DIf the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either statement.
D If the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either statement.
Question 27
Four friends, A, B, C and D got the top four ranks in a competitive examination, but A did not get the first, B did not get the second, C did not get the third, and D did not get the fourth rank.

Who secured which rank?
I. Neither A nor D were among the first 2.
II. E Neither B nor C was third or fourth.
AIf the question can be answered by using statement I alone but not by using II alone.
BIf the question can be answered by using Statement II alone but not by using I alone.
CIf the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
DIf the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either statement.
C If the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Question 28
Assertion (A) : The phenomenon of nuclear fission generates great energy.
Reason (R) : The process in which a nucleus is broken into two parts is called nuclear fission.
ABoth A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
BBoth A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
CA is true but R is false.
DA is false but R is true.
B Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Question 29
Assertion (A) : The price of a stock is determined on the basis of demand and supply of the stock.
Reason (R) : The value of the Sensex increases whenever there is a heavy demand for the stocks which form the Sensex.
ABoth A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
BBoth A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
CA is true but R is false.
DA is false but R is true.
B Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Question 30
Statement:
A degree in law is one of the most wanted degrees by youth in India.
Conclusions:
I. A degree in law guarantees a good profession.
II. A degree in law is the first choice for youth in India.
AIf conclusion I follows
BIf conclusion II follows
CIf both conclusions I and II follows
DIf neither conclusion I follows nor II follows
C If both conclusions I and II follows
Question 31
Statement:
Any student who is caught red-handed using unfair means discredits his parents and teachers.
Conclusions:
I. Such students try to show that their teachers don't teach properly in the class.
II. Stringent actions must be taken against such students.
AIf conclusion I follows
BIf conclusion II follows
CIf both conclusions I and II follows
DIf neither conclusion I follows nor II follows
D If neither conclusion I follows nor II follows
Question 32
In the following set of analogies, one word is missing. Find it out from the given options.

Errata : ? :: Flaws : Jewels
AManuscripts
BBooks
CLiterature
DPrints
B Books
Question 33
In the following set of analogies, one word is missing. Find it out from the given options.

Inoculation : ? :: Exposure : Toughening
AImmunity
BPunctuality
CVulnerability
DContagious
C Vulnerability
Question 34
In the following set of analogies, one word is missing. Find it out from the given options.

Steel : Rails :: Alnico : ?
AAircraft
BMachinery
CSilverware
DMagnets
C Silverware
Question 35
In the following set of analogies, one word is missing. Find it out from the given options.

Conscience : Wrong :: Police : ?
AThief
BLaw
CDiscipline
DCrime
C Discipline

Section: MATHEMATICS

Question 1
Mohan credits 15% of his salary into his bank and spends 30% of the remaining amount on household articles. If cash on hand is Rs. 2,380/-, what is his salary ?
ARs. 5,000
BRs. 4,500
CRs. 4,000
DRs. 3,500
D Rs. 3,500
Let Mohan’s salary be Rs. S
Then, credit to bank = 15/100 x S = 0.15 x S
Remaining amount = S – 0.15 x S = 0.85 x S
So spend on household articles = 30% of Remaining = 30/100 x 0.85 x S = 0.255 x S
Hence total expenses = 0.15 x S + 0.255 x S = 0.405 x S
i.e. balance cash on hand = S – 0.405 x S = 0.595 x S = 2380
Hence S = 2380 x 1000/595 = Rs. 4000
Question 2
The average marks of a student in ten papers are 80. If the highest and the lowest score are not considered the average is 81. If his highest score is 92, what is the lowest score ?
A55
B60
C62
D61
B 60
Average in ten papers = 80
So total score in ten papers = 80 x 10 = 800
Average (excluding highest & lowest scores) = 81
Then, Sum of remaining scores = 81 x 8 = 648
Hence, Sum of highest and lowest scores = 800 – 648 = 152
i.e. Lowest score = 152 – 92 = 60
Question 3
Ten years ago, Sunil was half of Sudip's age. If the age of both at present is in the ratio of 3:4, what will be the total of their present age ?
A20 years
B30 years
C35 years
D45 years
C 35 years
Let the present ages of Sunil and Sudip be 3n and 4n respectively.
Then, their ages ten years ago were (3n – 10) and (4n – 10).
So, (3n – 10) = ½ x (4n – 10)
i.e. 6n – 20 = 4n – 10
i.e. 2n = 20 – 10 or n = 5
So total of present ages = 7n = 35
Question 4
A and B started a business with a total capital of Rs. 30,000. At the end of the year, they shared the profit in the ratio of their investments. If their capitals were interchanged, then A would have received 175% more than what he actually received. Find out the capital of B.
ARs. 20,000
BRs. 22,000
CRs. 21,000
DRs. 23,000
B Rs. 22,000
Clearly if capitals were interchanged A would get as much as B actually gets.
Hence B’s share = A’s share + 175% of A’s share
i.e. B’s share = A’s share + 1.75 x A’s share = 2.75 x A’s share
So, A’s share / B’s share = 100/275 = 4/11
So the ratio of capitals = 4 : 11
Hence capital of B = 11/15 x 30000 = Rs. 22000
Question 5
The ratio in which Aman and Bimal have contributed to the capital of a company is 3 : 4. Bimal has invested his capital for only 3 months and has received half as much profit as Aman, at the end of the year. Find out for how much time has Aman invested his capital in the company.
A8 months
B14 months
C15 months
D1 year
A 8 months
Let Aman and Bimal contribute 3n and 4n respectively.
Bimal invests for 3 months; let Aman invest for M months.
Hence, ratio of profits = 3n x M : 4n x 3
Since Bimal receives half as much profit as Aman, ratio of profits = 2 : 1
So (3n x M)/(12n) = 2/1
i.e. M = 8 months
Question 6
Two whole numbers whose sum is 64 can be in the ratio of ?
A7 : 2
B7 : 6
C3 : 1
D8 : 7
A 7 : 2
Check one by one:
Option a: Let numbers be 7n and 2n; so 9n = 64 i.e. n = 64/9 which is not a whole number!
Hence this is not possible.
Option b: Let numbers be 7n and 6n; so 13n = 64 i.e. n = 64/13 not possible
Option c: Let numbers be 3n and n; so 4n = 64 or n = 64/4 = 16 which is possible.
Option d: Let numbers be 8n and 7n; so 15n = 64 or n = 64/15 which is not possible.
Clearly option c is the only one which is possible.
Question 7
In a call centre, 6 employees working for 10 hours complete a certain task. They started working at 11 am. This continued till 5:00 pm and after that, for each hour one more employee is added till the work gets completed. At what time will they complete the work ?
A7:10 pm
B8:00 pm
C7:35 pm
D6:35 pm
B 8:00 pm
Let one employee do 1 unit in 1 hour.
Then Work = work done by 6 employees in 10 hours = 6 x 10 = 60 units
Now, work done from 11 am to 5 pm (i.e. 6 hours) = 6 x 6 = 36 units
Now there will be 7 employees for the next hour.
So, work done from 5 pm to 6 pm = 7 x 1 = 7 units; total work done = 36 + 7 = 43 units
Similarly, work done from 6 pm to 7 pm = 8 units; total work done = 43 + 8 = 51 units
And work done from 7 pm to 8 pm = 9 units; total work done = 51 + 9 = 60 units
So the work will be completed at exactly 8 pm!
Question 8
72% of students in a class took Physics and 44% took Mathematics. If each student took Physics or Mathematics and 40 took both, the total number of students in the class would be
A200
B240
C250
D320
C 250
Physics = 72%, Mathematics = 44%
Also each student took either Physics or Mathematics or both.
So, Physics + Mathematics – Both = 100%
i.e. 72% + 44% - Both = 100%
i.e. Both = 116% – 100% = 16%
Hence 16% of total students = 40
i.e. Total Students = 40 x 100/16 = 250
Question 9
Amar is twice as fast as Rohit and Rohit is thrice as fast as Chanda is. The journey covered by Chanda in 42 minutes will be covered by Amar in
A14 min 25 sec
B7 min
C28 min 37 sec
D54 min 35 sec
B 7 min
Let their speeds be A, R and C.
Then A = 2 x R and R = 3 x C
i.e. R = 3C and A = 6C
Since Amar is 6 times as fast as Chanda, he will take 1/6th the time taken by Chanda.
i.e. 1/6 x 42 = 7 minutes
Question 10
P, Q and R are three consecutive odd numbers in ascending order. If the value of three times P is 3 less than two times R, find the value of R.
A5
B7
C9
D11
C 9
Let the three consecutive numbers be N, N + 2 and N + 4
Also we are given, 3P = 2R – 3
i.e. 3N = 2(N + 4) – 3
i.e. 3n = 2N + 8 – 3
i.e. N = 5
So the value of R = N + 4
i.e. 3N = 2(N + 4) – 3
i.e. 3n = 2N + 8 – 3
i.e. N = 5
So the value of R = N + 4 = 9
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