Section: LEGAL APTITUDE
Question 1
What is minimum duration of stay essential before a person can apply for citizenship of India?
A Five years
Citizenship by birth: Every person born in India on or after January 26, 1950, shall be a citizen of India by birth. Citizenship by descent: A person born outside India on or after January 26, 1950, shall be a citizen of India by descent if either of his parents is a citizen of India at the time of the person’s birth. Citizenship by registration: A person can acquire Indian citizenship by registering themselves before the prescribed authority, e.g. persons of Indian origin who are ordinarily resident in India and have been so for five years immediately before making the application for registration; persons who are married to citizens of India.
Citizenship by naturalization: A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship, on application for naturalisation to the Government of India. Citizenship by Incorporation of territory: If any new territory becomes a part of India, the Government of India shall specify the persons of that territory as citizens of India.
Citizenship by naturalization: A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship, on application for naturalisation to the Government of India. Citizenship by Incorporation of territory: If any new territory becomes a part of India, the Government of India shall specify the persons of that territory as citizens of India.
Question 2
The Ordinances issued by the Governor are subject to the approval by
A State legislature
The Ordinances issued by the Governor are subject to the approval by State legislature.
Question 3
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
A have been specified by the Presidential Orders issued in consultation with the Governors of the respective States
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes have been specified by the Presidential Orders issued in consultation with the Governors of the respective States.
Question 4
Free legal aid for an accused is a
C Directive Principles of State Policy
Free legal aid for accused is provided to the accused does not have sufficient means to engage a lawyer, the court must provide one for the defense of the accused at the expense of the state.
Question 5
The concept of Secular State is that the State will not make any discrimination on the ground of religion, caste or community against any person professing any particular form of religious faith. The Secularism is embodied in
A Preamble of Constitution
The Secularism is embodied in which implies that State will not make any discrimination on the ground of religion, caste or community against any person professing any particular form of religious faith.
Question 6
The National Development Council consists of
D All of the above
The National Development Council is presided over by the Prime Minister of India and includes all Union Ministers, Chief Ministers of all the States and Administrators of Union Territories and Members of the Planning Commission.
Question 7
Who allocates portfolios among the Ministers?
C President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister allocates portfolios among the Ministers
Question 8
Which Indian language is given the status of ‘Classical language’ by the Central Government?
C Tamil
The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists 22 languages, which have been referred to as scheduled languages and given recognition, status and official encouragement. In addition, the Government of India has awarded the distinction of classical language to Kannada, Malayalam, Odia, Sanskrit, Tamil and Telugu.
Question 9
Each member of the Security Council has one vote. Decisions on procedural matters are to be taken by ________ permanent members. Here veto does not apply. On all other matters, there must be nine affirmative votes including those of five permanent members.
D 5
Each member of the Security Council has one vote. Decisions on procedural matters are to be taken by 5 permanent members
Question 10
The first venture of Mahatma Gandhi in all India Politics was
C Champaran Movement
The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was the first Satyagraha movement inspired by Gandhi and a major revolt in the Indian Independence Movement
Question 11
The “Right to Information” (RTI) is a
B Statutory Right
RTI is an Act to provide for setting out the practical regime of right to information for citizens to secure access to information under the control of public authorities, in order to promote transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority.
Question 12
Which of the following committees has recommended measures for banning and controlling ragging in educational establishments in India?
A The Raghavan Committee
Raghavan Committee has recommended measures for banning and controlling ragging in educational establishments in India
Question 13
The Constitution of India does not mention the post of
D The Deputy Prime Minister
The Constitution of India does not mention the post of The Deputy Prime Minister
Question 14
A Judge of the Supreme Court of India or High Court of any State can be removed by the President of India only
C when an address is made by both the Houses of Parliament in the same session asking for his/her removal on the grounds of proven misbehaviour and incapacity
A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed under the Constitution only on grounds of proven misconduct or incapacity and by an order of the President of India, after a notice signed by at least 100 members of the Lok Sabha (House of the People) or 50 members of the Rajya Sabha (Council of the States) is passed by a two-third majority in each House of the Parliament.
Question 15
The Constitution of India is the result of considerable imitation and adaptation rather than originality because
A Makers of Indian Constitution drew much from the American Constitution, Canadian Constitution and British made Government of India Act, 1935
The Constitution of India is the result of considerable imitation and adaptation rather than originality because makers of Indian Constitution drew much from the American Constitution, Canadian Constitution and British made Government of India Act, 1935. Therefore Constitution of India is also called “Bag of Borrowings”.
Question 16
For transfer of accused person from a foreign State to India for any offence within India or relating to India is done
A by previous repatriation agreement between India and concerned foreign country
Transfer of accused person from a foreign State to India for any offence within India or relating to India is done by previous repatriation agreement between India and concerned foreign country. It is also termed as Extradition Treaty.
Question 17
Whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not is certified by the ________ and his decision is conclusive
C Speaker of Lok Sabha
Speaker of Lok Sabha certifies as to whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not.
Question 18
__________ seats are reserved in all Panchayats at all levels for women
B One-third
As per provisions contained in Article 243 D of the Constitution, 1/3rd of the Seats of Panchayati Raj Institutions and 1/3rd offices of the Chairperson at all level of Panchayati Raj Institutions covered by Part IX of the Constitution are reserved for women.
Question 19
A seat of a M.P. can be declared vacant if he absents himself from the House for a continuous period of
B Two months
A seat of a M.P. can be declared vacant if he absents himself from the House for a continuous period of two months.
Question 20
What is true with Members of Parliament’s immunity from arrest?
B In civil cases, while Legislature is in Session and for 40 days before and after and in criminal cases arrest can be made at any time
Freedom from Arrest: The members of Parliament also enjoy freedom from arrest. From this freedom it is understood that no such member shall be arrested in a civil case 40 days before and after the adjournment of the House (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) and also when the House is in session.
Question 21
The maximum duration of the zero hour in Lok Sabha can be
B Unspecified
ZERO HOUR denotes the time immediately following the Question Hour in both Houses of Parliament. This is about 12 noon which is why it is called Zero Hour. However duration is not specified.
Question 22
Dealing with the chapter of citizenship under the Constitution, the Supreme Court has held that Sonia Gandhi, the President of Congress (I) is not an Italian citizen, but is an Indian citizen because she is governed by
C The Citizenship Act, 1955
The conferment of a person, as a citizen of India, is governed by Articles 5 to 11 (Part II) of the Constitution of India. The legislation related to this matter is the Citizenship Act 1955,
Question 23
What is true with appointment of Attorney General for India?
A He can be appointed by President of India and is qualified to be appointed a Judge of Supreme Court
The Attorney General for India is the Indian government's chief legal advisor, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
Question 24
The earliest Codified Laws (Civil and Criminal) that defined and demarcated for first time in India during 335-345 A.D. was followed in the
D Gupta reign
The earliest Codified Laws (Civil and Criminal) that defined and demarcated for first time in India during 335-345 A.D. was followed in Gupta reign
Question 25
Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the Objectives Resolution?
I. It was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly
II. It called for just right for minorities
III. It formed the basis for the chapter on Fundamental Rights
IV. It called for the establishment of a socialist and secular polity
I. It was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly
II. It called for just right for minorities
III. It formed the basis for the chapter on Fundamental Rights
IV. It called for the establishment of a socialist and secular polity
C III and IV
The historic Objectives Resolution was moved by Jawahar Lal Nehru on 13 December 1946 and was adopted on 22 January 1947.
Question 26
The right to constitutional remedies in India is available to
C any person for enforcing any rights conferred on them
When any of our rights are violated we can seek remedy through courts. If it is a Fundamental Right we can directly approach the Supreme Court or the High Court
of a state. That is why Dr. Ambedkar called the Right to Constitutional Remedies, 'the heart and soul' of our Constitution.
of a state. That is why Dr. Ambedkar called the Right to Constitutional Remedies, 'the heart and soul' of our Constitution.
Question 27
Money bills can be introduced in the State Legislature with the prior consent of the
B Governor
Money bills can be introduced in the State Legislature with the prior consent of the Governor of the state.
Question 28
While a proclamation of emergency is in operation, the State Government
C can legislate on the subjects in the State List
While a proclamation of emergency is in operation, the State Government can legislate on the subjects in the State List
Question 29
A political party is recognised by the Election Commission only if
I. it has been engaged in political activity for a continuous period of five years
II. has returned at least one member of the Lok Sabha for every 25 members of that House or any fraction of that number elected from that State
III. has polled not less than six per cent of the total number of valid votes polled by all contesting candidates at the general elections
IV. has contested elections in four or more states in three consecutive general elections
I. it has been engaged in political activity for a continuous period of five years
II. has returned at least one member of the Lok Sabha for every 25 members of that House or any fraction of that number elected from that State
III. has polled not less than six per cent of the total number of valid votes polled by all contesting candidates at the general elections
IV. has contested elections in four or more states in three consecutive general elections
C I, II and III
All the given options are correct.
Question 30
Electioneering has to stop in a constituency
D 48 hours before the closing hour of Polling
Representation of peoples act 1951 defines that all the political campaign should stop 48 hours before polling day.
Question 31
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: In case of a breach of contract, compensation can be awarded for the personal inconvenience suffered by a party by reason of the breach, which naturally arose in the usual course of things from such breach, or which the parties knew, when they made the contract to be likely to result from the breach of it.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Sunita and Sushmita bought bus tickets for a journey from Adyar to Mandaveli. The bus was to go to St. Thomas Mount via Mandaveli. However, the driver mistakenly took a wrong direction and the two girls were dropped at a distance of 2½ miles from Mandaveli on the highway. With no other transportation in sight nor a place to stay, the two had to walk 2½ miles at midnight. Later they filed a case against the bus company and claimed Rs. 5000 as damages for inconvenience caused in having to walk and Rs. 6500 for Sushmita having fallen ill by catching cold during the night.
DECISION:
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: In case of a breach of contract, compensation can be awarded for the personal inconvenience suffered by a party by reason of the breach, which naturally arose in the usual course of things from such breach, or which the parties knew, when they made the contract to be likely to result from the breach of it.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Sunita and Sushmita bought bus tickets for a journey from Adyar to Mandaveli. The bus was to go to St. Thomas Mount via Mandaveli. However, the driver mistakenly took a wrong direction and the two girls were dropped at a distance of 2½ miles from Mandaveli on the highway. With no other transportation in sight nor a place to stay, the two had to walk 2½ miles at midnight. Later they filed a case against the bus company and claimed Rs. 5000 as damages for inconvenience caused in having to walk and Rs. 6500 for Sushmita having fallen ill by catching cold during the night.
DECISION:
C The compensation for inconvenience suffered by being forced to walk at night is liable to be paid by the bus company. However, no compensation for Sushmita’s illness because this was not expected on account of breach of contract.
The correct choice is (c).
Reason: The cold Sushmita suffered from was not such a natural incident. It cannot be always the case that if you are dropped at a distance away from your destination then you would catch a cold; therefore, the correct answer is that they will get compensation for only the inconvenience caused and not for the cold Sushmita caught.
Reason: The cold Sushmita suffered from was not such a natural incident. It cannot be always the case that if you are dropped at a distance away from your destination then you would catch a cold; therefore, the correct answer is that they will get compensation for only the inconvenience caused and not for the cold Sushmita caught.
Question 32
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
FACTUAL SITUATION: In order to ensure that people live in an amicable atmosphere the Government of India decided to abolish courts and constituted Dispute Settlement Boards. Further to achieve this objective, the law stipulated that lawyers should not be allowed to espouse the claims of parties, and instead their claims be espoused by social workers.
LEGAL PRINCIPLES: (I) Any law made by the Parliament that infringes the fundamental rights of the citizens is invalid and unenforceable.
(II) Freedom to carry on trade or profession of one’s own choice is a fundamental right.
(III) The Parliament is competent to impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of this right.
(IV) If the restrictions, on fundamental rights imposed by the Parliament, totally removes or nullifies any fundamental right then it will be construed as an unreasonable restriction.
DECISION:
FACTUAL SITUATION: In order to ensure that people live in an amicable atmosphere the Government of India decided to abolish courts and constituted Dispute Settlement Boards. Further to achieve this objective, the law stipulated that lawyers should not be allowed to espouse the claims of parties, and instead their claims be espoused by social workers.
LEGAL PRINCIPLES: (I) Any law made by the Parliament that infringes the fundamental rights of the citizens is invalid and unenforceable.
(II) Freedom to carry on trade or profession of one’s own choice is a fundamental right.
(III) The Parliament is competent to impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of this right.
(IV) If the restrictions, on fundamental rights imposed by the Parliament, totally removes or nullifies any fundamental right then it will be construed as an unreasonable restriction.
DECISION:
C The law made by the Parliament is invalid as it constitutes an infringement of fundamental rights and the restriction imposed is not reasonable.
The correct option is (c).
Reason: Here the law passed by Parliament completely obliterates the legal profession. If all the courts are shut down, and lawyers are not allowed to practice in the alternate institutions to courts then the entire profession is wiped out of existence. This is in no way a reasonable restriction but a mass extinction of a profession. Since it curbs the practice of all lawyers in the country therefore it violates the Fundamental Rights.
Reason: Here the law passed by Parliament completely obliterates the legal profession. If all the courts are shut down, and lawyers are not allowed to practice in the alternate institutions to courts then the entire profession is wiped out of existence. This is in no way a reasonable restriction but a mass extinction of a profession. Since it curbs the practice of all lawyers in the country therefore it violates the Fundamental Rights.
Question 33
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
LEGAL PRINCIPLES: A right to action cannot arise out of an illegal activity.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A and B were thieves engaged in stealing cars and other vehicles. Once they stole a car; and while driving off, they had to cross a city. They
engaged a driver to drive them through the city, since they did not know the route inside. The indicator lamp of the car was not working and the thieves had not realised this, and therefore, had not told about it to the driver. While driving, through the city, the car was hit by another vehicle because of the faulty indicator. In the accident, the driver was injured and he filed a suit against A and B.
DECISION:
LEGAL PRINCIPLES: A right to action cannot arise out of an illegal activity.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A and B were thieves engaged in stealing cars and other vehicles. Once they stole a car; and while driving off, they had to cross a city. They
engaged a driver to drive them through the city, since they did not know the route inside. The indicator lamp of the car was not working and the thieves had not realised this, and therefore, had not told about it to the driver. While driving, through the city, the car was hit by another vehicle because of the faulty indicator. In the accident, the driver was injured and he filed a suit against A and B.
DECISION:
B The driver would win, because he was not a party to the stealing of car.
The correct answer is (b).
Reason: The driver was not involved in the illegal activity of stealing. He was just involved in driving the car for the two thieves. Even if he knew about the act of stealing then it is not enough to hold him as an individual involved in the act. His only job was to drive the car in the capacity of a driver and not in the capacity of an accomplice, therefore his right of action would still continue to subsist.
Reason: The driver was not involved in the illegal activity of stealing. He was just involved in driving the car for the two thieves. Even if he knew about the act of stealing then it is not enough to hold him as an individual involved in the act. His only job was to drive the car in the capacity of a driver and not in the capacity of an accomplice, therefore his right of action would still continue to subsist.
Question 34
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
LEGAL PRINCIPLES: A man would be responsible for all direct consequences of his act, in so far as he could reasonably foresee them as arising from his act.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A ship carrying petroleum was moving on the high sea. On a short halt in a port, the master of the ship engaged some stevedores to load some metallic planks onto the ship. While loading the planks, a plank slipped from the hands of stevedore and the spark, emitted thereby, ignited petroleum vapour and caused considerable damage to the goods. The owner of the goods filed a suit against the master of the ship.
DECISION:
LEGAL PRINCIPLES: A man would be responsible for all direct consequences of his act, in so far as he could reasonably foresee them as arising from his act.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A ship carrying petroleum was moving on the high sea. On a short halt in a port, the master of the ship engaged some stevedores to load some metallic planks onto the ship. While loading the planks, a plank slipped from the hands of stevedore and the spark, emitted thereby, ignited petroleum vapour and caused considerable damage to the goods. The owner of the goods filed a suit against the master of the ship.
DECISION:
C The master is liable, because he should have foreseen the consequences of the stevedore’s act.
The correct answer is (c).
Reason: The fact that the sparking resulted in the petroleum vapours catching fire is not something that could have been reasonably foreseen by the captain. Therefore looking at it from the standard of a reasonable and prudent man one cannot come to the conclusion that the fire was something that the captain could reasonably foresee.
Reason: The fact that the sparking resulted in the petroleum vapours catching fire is not something that could have been reasonably foreseen by the captain. Therefore looking at it from the standard of a reasonable and prudent man one cannot come to the conclusion that the fire was something that the captain could reasonably foresee.
Question 35
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
LEGAL PRINCIPLES: All minorities, whether based on religion or language shall have the rights to establish and administer educational institution of their choice.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Md. Yusuf wants to establish an educational institution to help the poor person of his community and to educate the children of the community. Yusuf being a very rich man has no problem regarding finance for institution. Therefore he applies to state government to grant him permission to establish and administer the institution. State government rejects his plea on ground that said institution will create communal tension in the proposed area. Yusuf has following remedies:
DECISION:
LEGAL PRINCIPLES: All minorities, whether based on religion or language shall have the rights to establish and administer educational institution of their choice.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Md. Yusuf wants to establish an educational institution to help the poor person of his community and to educate the children of the community. Yusuf being a very rich man has no problem regarding finance for institution. Therefore he applies to state government to grant him permission to establish and administer the institution. State government rejects his plea on ground that said institution will create communal tension in the proposed area. Yusuf has following remedies:
DECISION:
C He has no remedy under the law.
The correct answer is (c).
Reason: Yusuf would have a right to establish and administer an institution if he did the same on the basis of religion or language. Here his institution is on the notion of economy and poverty. Therefore he has no right in this situation to establish any institution and therefore cannot move the court to claim any sort of remedy.
Reason: Yusuf would have a right to establish and administer an institution if he did the same on the basis of religion or language. Here his institution is on the notion of economy and poverty. Therefore he has no right in this situation to establish any institution and therefore cannot move the court to claim any sort of remedy.
Section: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Question 1
What is the sequence in which the Indian economy has undergone the process of convertibility?
I. Rupee floated on trade account
II. Part convertibility under a dual exchange rate system
III. Introduction of exim scrips
IV. Rupee made convertible on current account
I. Rupee floated on trade account
II. Part convertibility under a dual exchange rate system
III. Introduction of exim scrips
IV. Rupee made convertible on current account
C III, II, I, IV
Question 2
Which of the following currency exchange rate mechanisms has been adopted by India?
B Managed Float
Question 3
The national income estimates of India are prepared by
C Central Statistical Organisation
Question 4
The ‘Year of Great Divide’ refers to
A rapid growth rate in population after 1921
Question 5
Aurorae are a result of the interaction of earth’s magnetosphere with
A the solar wind
Question 6
You are standing in a lift. The force on the floor of the lift due to your weight will
B become zero when the lift moves down with an acceleration of 9.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>
Question 7
What happens to the level of mercury in a barometer tube when it is taken down a coal mine? It
C rises
Question 8
A popping sound is heard in the ear when yawning or swallowing. This is caused by
B the opening of the Eustachian tubes
Question 9
The body’s thermostat is in the
C thyroid
Question 10
India is divided into how many PIN code zones?
C Eight
Question 11
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the Indus Valley civilisation?
I. The people of this civilisation were the earliest to make use of cotton.
II. They did not cremate their dead.
III. A grid system was followed in city planning.
IV. Stone was the chief building material.
I. The people of this civilisation were the earliest to make use of cotton.
II. They did not cremate their dead.
III. A grid system was followed in city planning.
IV. Stone was the chief building material.
C III and IV
Question 12
The famous queen Chand Bibi who fought gallantly against Akbar belonged to
B Ahmadnagar
Question 13
Who among the following Indian rulers established embassies in foreign countries on modern lines?
D Tipu Sultan
Question 14
Which one of the following may be called a ‘political’ cause of the 1857 Revolt?
D Dalhousie
Question 15
The first time that Mahatma Gandhi tried out his method of satyagraha was
A in South Africa against racist policies
Question 16
The Royal Indian Navy ratings revolted in February 1946 to protest against
A the treatment meted out to them
Question 17
The Preamble enshrines certain ideals that were first spelt out in
D the Objectives Resolution adopted by the Constituent Assembly
Question 18
A very rapid growth in prices in which money loses its value to the point where even barter may be preferable is known as
B hyper-inflation
Question 19
Unlike the fluid core of the earth, the core of the moon is
D solid
Question 20
Which of the following theories has no connection with the origin of the earth?
D Convection current theory of Holmes
Question 21
On what does the escape velocity of a body depend?
I. Mass of celestial body
II. The distance from the centre of mass to the escaping object
I. Mass of celestial body
II. The distance from the centre of mass to the escaping object
C Both I and II
Question 22
The blood enters the aorta from
A left ventricle
Question 23
Desert plants would be characterised by
D sunken stomata
Question 24
Why is sprouted gram considered more nutritious?
B Germinating seeds produce enzymes which are a rich source of protein
Question 25
The edible portion of which of the following vegetables is not a stem?
B Sweet potato
Question 26
What is the venue for the 20th Commonwealth Games in 2014?
A Glasgow
Question 27
Who among the following leaders topped 2011 Forbes List of “World’s Most Powerful Person”?
A Mr. Barak Obama
Question 28
According to the Srikrishna Committee, which is the most workable option out of the six option suggested by the Committee to resolve the Telangana issue?
C Sixth
Question 29
Who is convicted to death in the Beant Singh assassination case on March 31, 2012?
B Balwant Singh Rajoana
Question 30
Which news corporation was recently alleged to have been using illicit hacking into voicemail messages of prominent people to find stories?
A News of the World (NoW)
Question 31
Ms. Aung San Suu Kyi, Myanmar’s democracy icon, has been released from ______ of home arrest.
B 15 years
Question 32
Which country became the 193rd member of UN, recently?
A South Sudan
Question 33
More than 50 Sikh shrines in India are named after?
B Trees
Question 34
The country that set the record as the one with the longest time without government, in April 2011?
B Belgium
Question 35
It has been the practice to have ________ as the Managing Director of the IMF.
B a European
Section: REASONING
Question 1
For one academic year, all the students at a high school were observed. The aim was to test the hypothesis that studying more increased a student’s chances of earning a higher grade. It turned out that the students who spent the most time studying did not earn grades as high as did many students who studied less. Nonetheless, the researchers concluded that the results of the observation supported the initial hypothesis.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to explain why the researchers drew the conclusion described above?
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to explain why the researchers drew the conclusion described above?
C In each course, the more a student studied, the better his or her grade was in that course.
Question 2
Educator: It has been argued that our professional organization should take decision about important issues - such as raising dues and taking political stands - by a direct vote of all members rather than by having members vote for officers who in turn make the decisions. This would not; however, be the right way to decide these matters, for the vote of any given individual is much more likely to determine organizational policy by influencing the election of an officer than by influencing the result of a direct vote on a single issue.
Which one of the following principles would, if valid, most help to justify the educator’s reasoning?
Which one of the following principles would, if valid, most help to justify the educator’s reasoning?
D An organization
Question 3
Mayor: Local anti-tobacco activists are calling for expanded antismoking education programs paid for by revenue from heavily increased taxes on cigarettes sold in the city. Although the effectiveness of such education programs is debatable, there is strong evidence that the taxes themselves would produce the sought-after reduction in smoking. Surveys show that cigarette sales drop substantially in cities that impose stiff tax increases on cigarettes.
Which one of the following, if true, most undermines the reasoning in the argument above?
Which one of the following, if true, most undermines the reasoning in the argument above?
B Consumers are more likely to continue buying a product if its price increases due to higher taxes than if its price increases for some other reason.
Question 4
Gotera: Infants lack the motor ability required to voluntarily produce particular sounds, but produce various babbling sounds randomly. Most children are several years old before they can voluntarily produce most of the vowel and consonant sounds of their language. We can conclude that speech acquisition is entirely a motor control process rather than a process that is abstract or mental.
Which one of the following is an assumption required by Gotera’s argument?
Which one of the following is an assumption required by Gotera’s argument?
A Speech acquisition is a function only of one
Question 5
Reducing stress lessen a person’s sensitivity to pain. This is the conclusion reached by researchers who played extended audiotapes to patients before they underwent surgery and afterward while they were recovering. One tape consisted of conversation; the other consisted of music. Those who listened only to the latter tape required less anaesthesia during surgery and fewer painkillers afterward than those who listened only to the former tape.
Which one of the following is an assumption on which the researchers’ reasoning depends?
Which one of the following is an assumption on which the researchers’ reasoning depends?
C Listening to music reduces stress.
Question 6
Statement :
The Supreme Court gave a judgement that the maintenance of old age parents is the responsibility of the married girls, if they do not have brothers.
Conclusions
I : Constitution is always interpreted to help oppressed people out.
II : Before the Supreme Court gave the verdict, a married girl must have denied to pay for the maintenance to her parents.
The Supreme Court gave a judgement that the maintenance of old age parents is the responsibility of the married girls, if they do not have brothers.
Conclusions
I : Constitution is always interpreted to help oppressed people out.
II : Before the Supreme Court gave the verdict, a married girl must have denied to pay for the maintenance to her parents.
B if only II follows
Question 7
Statement : Ideas given by our ancestors that were once discarded as uneconomical and unviable, turn out to be as functional and inevitable in present circumstances.
Conclusions
I : In ancient period, ideas were considered either completely functional or totally infeasible.
II : Ideas cannot change from time to time.
Conclusions
I : In ancient period, ideas were considered either completely functional or totally infeasible.
II : Ideas cannot change from time to time.
C if neither I, nor II follows
Question 8
Statement:
“Use ‘M’ Brand shoes. They are available in all sizes and last longer” - an advertisement in the newspaper ‘A’.
Assumption I:
Some people do not know about ‘M’ brand shoes.
Assumption II:
People generally prefer shoes which last longer.
“Use ‘M’ Brand shoes. They are available in all sizes and last longer” - an advertisement in the newspaper ‘A’.
Assumption I:
Some people do not know about ‘M’ brand shoes.
Assumption II:
People generally prefer shoes which last longer.
D If both I and II are implicit
Question 9
Statement:
Lack of stimulation in the first four or five years of life can have adverse consequences.
Assumption I:
A great part of the development of observed intelligence occurs in the earliest years of life.
Assumption II:
50 per cent of the measurable intelligence at age 16 is predictable by the age of four.
Lack of stimulation in the first four or five years of life can have adverse consequences.
Assumption I:
A great part of the development of observed intelligence occurs in the earliest years of life.
Assumption II:
50 per cent of the measurable intelligence at age 16 is predictable by the age of four.
C If neither I nor II is implicit
Question 10
How many of them do earn more than Q?
C Three
Question 11
Who among them earns least?
D S
Question 12
If they are arranged in the descending order according to their salaries, who will occupy the third position?
A P
Question 13
W likes the colour
B Green
Question 14
S likes which colour?
C Blue
Question 15
A child crawls 20 feet towards North, turns right and crawls 30 feet, turns right again and crawls 35 feet. He turns left now and crawls 15 feet. He turns left again and crawls 15 feet. Finally he turns to his left to crawl another 15 feet. How far is he from his starting point and in which direction?
B 30 feet East
Question 16
Who is the son-in-law of H?
D B
Question 17
Who is the grand-daughter of A?
D E
Question 18
A is older by 4 years to B at one stage. After 16 years of this stage, A will be thrice his present age and B will be five times his present age. How old would A and B be two years before the initially indicated stage?
C 6 and 2
Question 19
If day before yesterday was Tuesday, the day after tomorrow will be
D Saturday
Question 20
My brother is 562 days older to me, while my sister is 75 weeks older to him. If my sister was born on Tuesday, on what day was I born?
A Sunday
Question 21
Ram is facing North-West. He turns in clockwise direction by 900, then 180o in the anti-clockwise direction and then another 900 in the same direction. Which direction is he facing now?
D South-East
Question 22
One morning after sunrise, Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their backs towards each other. Vikram
D South
Question 23
In the following number series only one number is wrong.
Find out that number:
1, 2, 6, 15, 20, 30, 42
Find out that number:
1, 2, 6, 15, 20, 30, 42
B 15
Question 24
In the following number series only one number is wrong.
Find out that number:
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64
Find out that number:
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64
D 64
Question 25
D, H, L, R, ?
B X
Question 26
3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ?
C 127
Question 27
PLANING is coded in a certain language as UFFHSCSA. How will AUTHORITY be coded in the same language?
A FOYBTLNND
Question 28
In certain code ELECTION is written as GLGCVIQN, then VOTER will be coded as:
A XOVET
Question 29
CHILD : FIRE
B Student : Examination
Question 30
GRAIN : SALT
C Chip: Glass
Question 31
Which of the following could be an accurate ranking of all the crews, in order from first to sixth, for a given week of the study?
D R, F, G, S, H, T
Question 32
If F is ranked third for a given week of the study, then which one of the following could also be true of that week?
B H ranks fourth
Question 33
Which one of the following CANNOT be the crew ranked fifth for any given week of the study?
B H
Question 34
For any given week of the study, the ranking of all the crews is completely determined if which one of the following is true?
C H ranks third that week
Question 35
If the night-shift crews rank fifth and sixth for a given week of the study, then which one of the following could also be true of that week?
C R ranks third
Section: MATHEMATICS
Question 1
A purse contains some coins consisting of rupees, fifty paise coins and twenty five paise coins. If coins be in the ratio of 2:3:10 and their total value is Rs. 72, the number of twenty-five paise coins will be:
C 120
Let the number of 1 Re, 50p and 25p coins be 2n, 3n and 10n respectively.
Then total value of all coins (in paise) = 2n x 100 + 3n x 50 + 10n x 25 = 600n
So, 600n = 7200
i.e. n = 7200/600 = 12
Hence number of 25p coins = 10n = 120
Then total value of all coins (in paise) = 2n x 100 + 3n x 50 + 10n x 25 = 600n
So, 600n = 7200
i.e. n = 7200/600 = 12
Hence number of 25p coins = 10n = 120
Question 2
In an examination, a student who secured 25% of the maximum marks fails by 60 marks but another candidate who secures 45% of the maximum marks gets 10 marks more than required passing marks. The maximum number of marks is:
B 350
Let M be the maximum marks in the exam and P be the passing marks.
Then score of 1st student = 25/100 x M = M/4
So, M/4 = P – 60 ... (1)
Also, score of 2nd student = 45/100 x M = 9M/20
So, 9M/20 = P + 10 ... (2)
On subtracting (1) from (2) we get:
9M/20 – M/4 = 10 + 60
i.e. (9M – 5M)/20 = 70
i.e. M = 70 x 20/4 = 350
Then score of 1st student = 25/100 x M = M/4
So, M/4 = P – 60 ... (1)
Also, score of 2nd student = 45/100 x M = 9M/20
So, 9M/20 = P + 10 ... (2)
On subtracting (1) from (2) we get:
9M/20 – M/4 = 10 + 60
i.e. (9M – 5M)/20 = 70
i.e. M = 70 x 20/4 = 350
Question 3
In a tour, I spent every day as many ten rupee (notes) as the number of days I had been away from the home. My total expenditure was Rs. 18,300. How long did I stay away from the home?
B 2 months
Expense on day-1 = Rs. 10
Expense on day-2 = Rs. 20
...
Expense on day-N = Rs. 10N
So total expenditure = 10 + 20 + ... + 10N = 10(1 + 2 + ... + N) = 18300
i.e. N(N + 1)/2 = 1830
Now check the options in the above equation:
Option a: 1 month = 30 days
Check: 30 x 31/2 = 465; this is not correct.
Option b: 2 months = 60 days
Check: 60 x 61/2 = 1830; so this is the correct choice!
Expense on day-2 = Rs. 20
...
Expense on day-N = Rs. 10N
So total expenditure = 10 + 20 + ... + 10N = 10(1 + 2 + ... + N) = 18300
i.e. N(N + 1)/2 = 1830
Now check the options in the above equation:
Option a: 1 month = 30 days
Check: 30 x 31/2 = 465; this is not correct.
Option b: 2 months = 60 days
Check: 60 x 61/2 = 1830; so this is the correct choice!
Question 4
Before 3 years, the average age of a five-member family was 17 years. A baby having been born and the average of family is now 17 years. The present age of the baby is:
B 2 years
Average age of five-member family, 3 years ago = 17 years
So average age of five-member family at present = 17 + 3 = 20 years
Hence, Total age of five members at present = 20 x 5 = 100 years
Let the baby’s present age be N years.
Then, Total present age of all six members = (100 + N) years
But since average of all six members = 17 years
So, Total present age of all six members will also be 17 x 6 = 102
Hence, 100 + N = 102
i.e. N = 102 – 100 = 2 years
So average age of five-member family at present = 17 + 3 = 20 years
Hence, Total age of five members at present = 20 x 5 = 100 years
Let the baby’s present age be N years.
Then, Total present age of all six members = (100 + N) years
But since average of all six members = 17 years
So, Total present age of all six members will also be 17 x 6 = 102
Hence, 100 + N = 102
i.e. N = 102 – 100 = 2 years
Question 5
A publisher sells books to retailer at marked price which is 20% above his outlay. If on cash payment, he allows a discount of 10% on the marked price. The publisher thus gains:
C 8%
Let the cost price (his outlay) be Rs. 100
Then marked price = 100 + 20/100 x 100 = Rs. 120
Cash discount = 10/100 x 120 = Rs. 12
So final Selling price = 120 – 12 = Rs. 108
Hence, profit = SP – CP = 108 – 100 = Rs. 8
Hence % profit = 8/100 x 100 = 8%
Then marked price = 100 + 20/100 x 100 = Rs. 120
Cash discount = 10/100 x 120 = Rs. 12
So final Selling price = 120 – 12 = Rs. 108
Hence, profit = SP – CP = 108 – 100 = Rs. 8
Hence % profit = 8/100 x 100 = 8%
Question 6
The average age of A, B and C is 25 years. The ratio of their ages is 3 : 5 : 7. Find the age of A
C 15 years
Let the ages of A, B and C be 3n, 5n and 7n respectively.
But, average age = (A + B + C)/3 = 25 years
Hence, (A + B + C) = 25 x 3 = 75
i.e. 3n + 5n + 7n = 15n = 75
i.e. n = 75/15 = 5
So, age of A = 3n = 3 x 5 = 15 years
But, average age = (A + B + C)/3 = 25 years
Hence, (A + B + C) = 25 x 3 = 75
i.e. 3n + 5n + 7n = 15n = 75
i.e. n = 75/15 = 5
So, age of A = 3n = 3 x 5 = 15 years
Question 7
A certain sum of money was deposited in a bank and it became two-fold in 10 years. What is the rate of simple interest?
B 10%
Let the principal sum invested be Rs. 100
Then, Amount after 10 years = 2 x 100 = Rs. 200
i.e. Simple Interest = A – P = 200 – 100 = Rs. 100
But, SI = (P x R x T)/100
i.e. 100 = (100 x R x 10)/100
i.e. R = 100/10 = 10%
Then, Amount after 10 years = 2 x 100 = Rs. 200
i.e. Simple Interest = A – P = 200 – 100 = Rs. 100
But, SI = (P x R x T)/100
i.e. 100 = (100 x R x 10)/100
i.e. R = 100/10 = 10%
Question 8
If Rs. 80 amounts to Rs. 140 in 4 years, what will Rs. 96 amount to in 10 years at the same rate of interest per annum?
A Rs. 276
We know A = P + SI or SI = A – P
i.e. 140 – 80 = (80 x R x 4)/100
i.e. R = 60 x 100/320 = 18.75%
Now, SI on principal of 96 = (96 x 18.75 x 10)/100 = Rs. 180
So, Amount = 96 + 180 = Rs. 276
i.e. 140 – 80 = (80 x R x 4)/100
i.e. R = 60 x 100/320 = 18.75%
Now, SI on principal of 96 = (96 x 18.75 x 10)/100 = Rs. 180
So, Amount = 96 + 180 = Rs. 276
Question 9
A group of workers accepted to do a piece of work in 25 days. If 6 of them did not turn up for the work and the remaining workers did the work in 40 days, then the original number of workers was
D 16
Let work done by 1 worker in 1 day be 1 unit.
Let there be N workers initially.
Then, work done by N workers in 25 days = N x 25 = 25N
But work by (N – 6) workers in 40 days = (N – 6) x 40 = 40(N – 6)
Equating the work we get:
25N = 40(N – 6)
i.e. N = 40 x 6/15 = 16
Let there be N workers initially.
Then, work done by N workers in 25 days = N x 25 = 25N
But work by (N – 6) workers in 40 days = (N – 6) x 40 = 40(N – 6)
Equating the work we get:
25N = 40(N – 6)
i.e. N = 40 x 6/15 = 16
Question 10
Two taps ‘A’ and ‘B’ can fill a water reservoir in 8 and 6 hours respectively. A third tap ‘C’ can empty the tank completely in 24 hours. How long would it take to fill the empty tank when all the taps are open?
A 4 hours
Let the work be 24 units.
Then using Work = Rate x Time or Rate = Work/Time
Rate of A = 24/8 = 3 units/hour
Rate of B = 24/6 = 4 units/hour
Rate of C = - 24/24 = -1 units/hour
If all the taps are open together, combined rate = 3 + 4 – 1 = 6 units/hour
Using Time = Work/Rate
Time taken to fill the empty tank = 24/6 = 4 hours
Then using Work = Rate x Time or Rate = Work/Time
Rate of A = 24/8 = 3 units/hour
Rate of B = 24/6 = 4 units/hour
Rate of C = - 24/24 = -1 units/hour
If all the taps are open together, combined rate = 3 + 4 – 1 = 6 units/hour
Using Time = Work/Rate
Time taken to fill the empty tank = 24/6 = 4 hours
Section: ENGLISH
Question 1
In the following questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of the sentence has an error.
B are indicated
The subject of the sentence is ‘The number’ i.e. it is singular. Hence the verb must agree with it and should be ‘is indicated’ and not ‘are indicated’.
Question 2
In the following questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of the sentence has an error.
A As much as I admire him for his sterling qualities
This is a tough one!
The only error in this sentence is a punctuation error – the first clause in this sentence must be separated from the second one by a comma.
The only error in this sentence is a punctuation error – the first clause in this sentence must be separated from the second one by a comma.
Question 3
In the following questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of the sentence has an error.
D No error.
This sentence is grammatically correct.
Question 4
In the following questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of the sentence has an error.
C she will do it.
In the conditional portion of the sentence from part b onwards, there are two clauses. Now the first clause is in the past continuous tense, so the second main clause should correspondingly be in the simple future tense – however we must use the conditional modal verb ‘would’ instead of ‘will’ here.
Question 5
In the following questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of the sentence has an error.
C the custom still prevailed among some groups in India.
There is a tense mismatch between the two verbs in this sentence i.e. ‘has been banned’ in the present perfect tense and ’prevailed’ in the simple past tense. To correct this sentence the second verb should be in the simple present tense i.e. ‘prevails’.
Note: It is also possible to correct the sentence by changing the first verb to the past perfect tense i.e. ‘had been banned’. The only slight problem: the adverb ‘still’ is better used in the present than the past (some would say it makes sense there too!).
Note: It is also possible to correct the sentence by changing the first verb to the past perfect tense i.e. ‘had been banned’. The only slight problem: the adverb ‘still’ is better used in the present than the past (some would say it makes sense there too!).
Question 6
In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
LYNCH
LYNCH
A Hang
To ‘lynch’ someone is to ‘kill (someone) for an alleged offence without a legal trial, especially by hanging’.
Question 7
In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
His speech was nothing but a string of platitudes.
His speech was nothing but a string of platitudes.
B stereo-typed statements
The meaning of ‘platitude’ is ‘a remark or statement, especially one with a moral content, that has been used too often to be interesting or thoughtful’ – the closest description is in option b.
Question 8
In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
PERENNIAL
PERENNIAL
D Rare
The meaning of ‘perennial’ is ‘enduring or continually occuring’. Only ‘rare’ is exactly opposite in meaning.
Question 9
In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
My first speech was a fiasco.
My first speech was a fiasco.
A success
A ‘fiasco’ is a ‘complete failure, especially a ludicrous or humiliating one’. Hence it opposite would be ‘success’.
Question 10
Fill in the blanks
If I ______ his address, I could write to him.
If I ______ his address, I could write to him.
A knew
This is a conditional statement, so the first clause should be in the simple past tense i.e. ‘knew’.
Question 11
Fill in the blanks
When the morning ______, murder was discovered.
When the morning ______, murder was discovered.
C came
It is usually common to refer to morning with the verb ‘came’.
Question 12
Fill in the blanks
I ______ a car to be absolutely necessary these days.
I ______ a car to be absolutely necessary these days.
A consider
Clearly ‘think’ and ‘agree’ do not fit this context; besides they are not compatible with the infinitive ‘to be’. While both the other two options mean ‘to think of something carefully’, ‘consider’ is a better fit here as ‘regard’ is usually used with the preposition ‘as’.
Question 13
Fill in the blanks
Do not intrude, they are talking ______ a confidential matter.
Do not intrude, they are talking ______ a confidential matter.
C over
The only preposition that goes with the verb ‘talking’ is ‘over’. To ‘talk over’ means to ‘discuss something’.
Question 14
Fill in the blanks
I slept after lunch ______ armed chair.
I slept after lunch ______ armed chair.
C in
The preposition of position ‘in’ must be used for the verb ‘slept’.
Question 15
Fill in the blanks
He is so ______ that he immediately believed my story of ghosts.
He is so ______ that he immediately believed my story of ghosts.
B credulous
The best fit here is ‘credulous’ which means ‘having or showing too great a readiness to believe things’.
Question 16
Fill in the blanks
I will help only ______
I will help only ______
D if I have time
In conditional statements it is common to use simple present tense in the conditional clause, and the simple future tense in the main clause – so ‘if I have time’ is correct.
Question 17
Fill in the blanks
He doesn’t work with hands he works ______ the machine.
He doesn’t work with hands he works ______ the machine.
D on
The preposition that agrees with ‘machine’ is clearly either ‘with’ or ‘on’. But we are not describing the machine as a tool; rather we are talking about the machine as the object of the work, so the better choice would be ‘on’.
Question 18
Fill in the blanks
Every Shakespearean hero has an internal ______ in his character
Every Shakespearean hero has an internal ______ in his character
D flaw
The best choice is ‘flaw’. While all the option choices are negative words, ‘defect’, ‘weakness’ and ‘fault’ are rarely referred to as internal. Also, ‘flaw’ is usually used as a quality that goes against what is otherwise perfect.
Question 19
In this section, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each passage have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
S1: Two men held a struggling crazed dog down on a table.
S6: The men watched him awe-struck.
P : Its mouth was smothered with saliva and a bite from its jaws might cause death.
Q : He put one end of the tube between his lips and lowered the other towards the foam covered jaws.
R : Beside them stood Louis Pasteur holding a narrow glass-tube in one hand.
S : As the animal writhed he carefully sucked some of the saliva up the tube.
The proper sequence should be
S1: Two men held a struggling crazed dog down on a table.
S6: The men watched him awe-struck.
P : Its mouth was smothered with saliva and a bite from its jaws might cause death.
Q : He put one end of the tube between his lips and lowered the other towards the foam covered jaws.
R : Beside them stood Louis Pasteur holding a narrow glass-tube in one hand.
S : As the animal writhed he carefully sucked some of the saliva up the tube.
The proper sequence should be
A P R Q S
P should follow S1 as the its in P refers to the crazed dog and this sentence extends the idea introduced in S1. The pronoun “He put…” in Q and “he carefully…” in “S” refers to Louis Pasteur in R and so R should come before both Q and S. Hence, we are left with only choice “a” which is the correct answer.
Question 20
In this section, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each passage have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
S1: There is only one monkey we can thoroughly recommend as an indoor pet
S6: Finally, let me say that no other monkey has a better temper or more winning ways.
P: They quickly die from colds and coughs after the first winter fogs Q: It is the beautiful and intelligent Capuchin monkey
R: The lively little Capuchins, however, may be left for years in an English house without the least danger to their health
S: The Marmosets, it is true, are more beautiful than the Capuchins and just as pleasing, but they are too delicate for the English climate
The proper sequence should be:
S1: There is only one monkey we can thoroughly recommend as an indoor pet
S6: Finally, let me say that no other monkey has a better temper or more winning ways.
P: They quickly die from colds and coughs after the first winter fogs Q: It is the beautiful and intelligent Capuchin monkey
R: The lively little Capuchins, however, may be left for years in an English house without the least danger to their health
S: The Marmosets, it is true, are more beautiful than the Capuchins and just as pleasing, but they are too delicate for the English climate
The proper sequence should be:
C Q S P R
S1 has to be followed by Q as Capuchin monkey is the one that is recommended in S1. So we are left with choices “b” or “c”. S and P are mandatory pair and S should come before P as the pronoun “they” in P refers to “the Marmosets” in S. This correct order is in choice “c” and hence it is the correct answer.
Question 21
Fill in the blanks.
The Ganga is ___(21)___ they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she ___(22)___ it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in ___(23)___ ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true. She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ___(24)___ the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the river with ___(25)___ of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini – the east flowing river ___(26)___ west at Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ___(27)___ in her water, muttering ___(28)___ to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the ___(29)___ of prayer pouring water through their finger in habits for which may be they never ___(30)___ the meaning.
The Ganga is ___(21)___ they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she ___(22)___ it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in ___(23)___ ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true. She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ___(24)___ the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the river with ___(25)___ of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini – the east flowing river ___(26)___ west at Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ___(27)___ in her water, muttering ___(28)___ to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the ___(29)___ of prayer pouring water through their finger in habits for which may be they never ___(30)___ the meaning.
A kind
Clearly, ‘name’ and ‘flow’ are totally irrelevant here. Also, the next statement is positive about the Ganga, so ‘kind’ is a better fit.
Question 22
Fill in the blanks.
The Ganga is ___(21)___ they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she ___(22)___ it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in ___(23)___ ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true. She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ___(24)___ the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the river with ___(25)___ of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini – the east flowing river ___(26)___ west at Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ___(27)___ in her water, muttering ___(28)___ to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the ___(29)___ of prayer pouring water through their finger in habits for which may be they never ___(30)___ the meaning.
The Ganga is ___(21)___ they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she ___(22)___ it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in ___(23)___ ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true. She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ___(24)___ the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the river with ___(25)___ of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini – the east flowing river ___(26)___ west at Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ___(27)___ in her water, muttering ___(28)___ to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the ___(29)___ of prayer pouring water through their finger in habits for which may be they never ___(30)___ the meaning.
D gives
‘refuse’ and ‘ignore’ can be used only with another modal verb, so these can be ignored. Also in this context ‘takes’ is incorrect. So best choice is indeed ‘gives’.
Question 23
Fill in the blanks.
The Ganga is ___(21)___ they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she ___(22)___ it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in ___(23)___ ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true. She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ___(24)___ the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the river with ___(25)___ of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini – the east flowing river ___(26)___ west at Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ___(27)___ in her water, muttering ___(28)___ to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the ___(29)___ of prayer pouring water through their finger in habits for which may be they never ___(30)___ the meaning.
The Ganga is ___(21)___ they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she ___(22)___ it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in ___(23)___ ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true. She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ___(24)___ the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the river with ___(25)___ of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini – the east flowing river ___(26)___ west at Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ___(27)___ in her water, muttering ___(28)___ to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the ___(29)___ of prayer pouring water through their finger in habits for which may be they never ___(30)___ the meaning.
B her
The best choice here is ‘her’. We can rule out ‘their’ as the plural form does not agree with the singular ‘Ganga’. Also the words ‘any’ and ‘only’ are totally irrelevant.
Question 24
Fill in the blanks.
The Ganga is ___(21)___ they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she ___(22)___ it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in ___(23)___ ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true. She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ___(24)___ the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the river with ___(25)___ of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini – the east flowing river ___(26)___ west at Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ___(27)___ in her water, muttering ___(28)___ to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the ___(29)___ of prayer pouring water through their finger in habits for which may be they never ___(30)___ the meaning.
The Ganga is ___(21)___ they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she ___(22)___ it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in ___(23)___ ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true. She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ___(24)___ the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the river with ___(25)___ of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini – the east flowing river ___(26)___ west at Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ___(27)___ in her water, muttering ___(28)___ to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the ___(29)___ of prayer pouring water through their finger in habits for which may be they never ___(30)___ the meaning.
D watching
Clearly the ‘first rays of the sun’ can only be watched. Hence option d is correct.
Question 25
Fill in the blanks.
The Ganga is ___(21)___ they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she ___(22)___ it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in ___(23)___ ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true. She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ___(24)___ the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the river with ___(25)___ of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini – the east flowing river ___(26)___ west at Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ___(27)___ in her water, muttering ___(28)___ to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the ___(29)___ of prayer pouring water through their finger in habits for which may be they never ___(30)___ the meaning.
The Ganga is ___(21)___ they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she ___(22)___ it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in ___(23)___ ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true. She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ___(24)___ the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the river with ___(25)___ of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini – the east flowing river ___(26)___ west at Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ___(27)___ in her water, muttering ___(28)___ to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the ___(29)___ of prayer pouring water through their finger in habits for which may be they never ___(30)___ the meaning.
C glints
Here the blank is a word that describes ‘metallic gold’. The only appropriate choice is ‘glints’.
Question 26
Fill in the blanks.
The Ganga is ___(21)___ they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she ___(22)___ it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in ___(23)___ ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true. She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ___(24)___ the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the river with ___(25)___ of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini – the east flowing river ___(26)___ west at Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ___(27)___ in her water, muttering ___(28)___ to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the ___(29)___ of prayer pouring water through their finger in habits for which may be they never ___(30)___ the meaning.
The Ganga is ___(21)___ they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she ___(22)___ it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in ___(23)___ ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true. She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ___(24)___ the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the river with ___(25)___ of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini – the east flowing river ___(26)___ west at Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ___(27)___ in her water, muttering ___(28)___ to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the ___(29)___ of prayer pouring water through their finger in habits for which may be they never ___(30)___ the meaning.
D turns
Option b and c cannot be used to describe the path of a river so these can be ignored. Also the sense is that of the river changing directions, hence ‘turns’ is a better fit here.
Question 27
Fill in the blanks.
The Ganga is ___(21)___ they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she ___(22)___ it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in ___(23)___ ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true. She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ___(24)___ the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the river with ___(25)___ of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini – the east flowing river ___(26)___ west at Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ___(27)___ in her water, muttering ___(28)___ to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the ___(29)___ of prayer pouring water through their finger in habits for which may be they never ___(30)___ the meaning.
The Ganga is ___(21)___ they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she ___(22)___ it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in ___(23)___ ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true. She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ___(24)___ the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the river with ___(25)___ of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini – the east flowing river ___(26)___ west at Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ___(27)___ in her water, muttering ___(28)___ to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the ___(29)___ of prayer pouring water through their finger in habits for which may be they never ___(30)___ the meaning.
A deep
To describe depth, the only appropriate word is ‘deep’. To be ‘chest deep’ in water means that water comes up to one’s chest.
Question 28
Fill in the blanks.
The Ganga is ___(21)___ they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she ___(22)___ it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in ___(23)___ ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true. She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ___(24)___ the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the river with ___(25)___ of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini – the east flowing river ___(26)___ west at Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ___(27)___ in her water, muttering ___(28)___ to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the ___(29)___ of prayer pouring water through their finger in habits for which may be they never ___(30)___ the meaning.
The Ganga is ___(21)___ they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she ___(22)___ it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in ___(23)___ ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true. She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ___(24)___ the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the river with ___(25)___ of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini – the east flowing river ___(26)___ west at Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ___(27)___ in her water, muttering ___(28)___ to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the ___(29)___ of prayer pouring water through their finger in habits for which may be they never ___(30)___ the meaning.
C invocations
An ‘invocation’ is ‘a prayer of entreaty’ and fits this blank perfectly as the latter part of the sentence does mention prayers.
Question 29
Fill in the blanks.
The Ganga is ___(21)___ they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she ___(22)___ it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in ___(23)___ ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true. She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ___(24)___ the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the river with ___(25)___ of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini – the east flowing river ___(26)___ west at Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ___(27)___ in her water, muttering ___(28)___ to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the ___(29)___ of prayer pouring water through their finger in habits for which may be they never ___(30)___ the meaning.
The Ganga is ___(21)___ they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she ___(22)___ it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in ___(23)___ ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true. She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ___(24)___ the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the river with ___(25)___ of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini – the east flowing river ___(26)___ west at Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ___(27)___ in her water, muttering ___(28)___ to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the ___(29)___ of prayer pouring water through their finger in habits for which may be they never ___(30)___ the meaning.
B rituals
The phrase following this part is ‘pouring water through their finger’ which is indeed description of a ‘ritual’.
Question 30
Fill in the blanks.
The Ganga is ___(21)___ they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she ___(22)___ it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in ___(23)___ ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true. She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ___(24)___ the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the river with ___(25)___ of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini – the east flowing river ___(26)___ west at Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ___(27)___ in her water, muttering ___(28)___ to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the ___(29)___ of prayer pouring water through their finger in habits for which may be they never ___(30)___ the meaning.
The Ganga is ___(21)___ they said, in her giving and her taking away. If you ask her for anything she ___(22)___ it gently. A calm and slow oblivion in ___(23)___ ever-flowing waves. Mridula hoped it was true. She sat on the stone steps of the Kedar Ghat, ___(24)___ the first rays of the Sun touch the ripples on the river with ___(25)___ of metallic gold. Ganga paschim vahini – the east flowing river ___(26)___ west at Varanasi like a moody woman. People bathed, said prayers standing chest ___(27)___ in her water, muttering ___(28)___ to her and to the rising sun, repeating endlessly the ___(29)___ of prayer pouring water through their finger in habits for which may be they never ___(30)___ the meaning.
D knew
Clearly ‘knew’ is a perfect fit here.
Question 31
Why does the author thinks that the cohesive group can do a much better job at decision making than it could if it were non-cohesive?
D All of the above.
All the points mentioned in choices “a”, “b” and “c” are stated in the opening paragraph and hence choice “d” is the correct answer.
Question 32
Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage?
A Despite its value in encouraging frank discussions, high cohesion can lead to a debilitating type of group decision making called groupthink.
The author has highlighted the positive aspects of cohesion and also its pitfalls one of being a syndrome called “groupthink”. The author further states that though cohesion is an essential antecedent condition for groupthink it is not a sufficient one and there could be other factors that determine whether cohesiveness will deteriorate into group think or not. This makes choice “a” the best answer. Since those other factors are not mentioned in the passage choice b” is out. Choice “c” is mentioned in the passage but is not the main idea of the passage. The passage doesn’t mention choice “d”.
Question 33
A group of closely associated colleagues has made a disastrous diplomatic decision after a series of meetings marked by disagreement over conflicting alternatives. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to say that this scenario.
B indicates that the group’s cohesiveness was coupled with some other factor to produce a groupthink fiasco
There are some key elements in the question:-
“a group of closely associated colleagues” – implies there is cohesiveness
“made a disastrous diplomatic decision” – in the context of the passage cohesiveness may have led to group think which may have led to the disastrous decision.
However, in the last paragraph the author has stated that there are other factors also that deteriorate group decision making and cohesiveness is not the sufficient condition for such mistakes. Hence in the given scenario the author is most likely to say what is stated in choice “b”.
“a group of closely associated colleagues” – implies there is cohesiveness
“made a disastrous diplomatic decision” – in the context of the passage cohesiveness may have led to group think which may have led to the disastrous decision.
However, in the last paragraph the author has stated that there are other factors also that deteriorate group decision making and cohesiveness is not the sufficient condition for such mistakes. Hence in the given scenario the author is most likely to say what is stated in choice “b”.
Question 34
The passage mentions which one of the following as a component of groupthink?
B strong belief that the group’s decisions are right.
In the second paragraph the author states “the danger is not that individuals will conceal objections…..but that they will think the proposal is a good one without attempting to carry out a critical scrutiny….”. This makes choice “b” the correct answer.
Question 35
It can be inferred from the passage that both the author of the passage and the researchers mentioned in the passage would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements about groupthink?
A Groupthink occurs in all strongly cohesive groups, but its contribution to collective decision making is not fully understood.
In the last paragraph the author states that based on analyses of major fiascos of international diplomacy and military decision making researchers have identified groupthink behavior as a recurring pattern. The author further states that though cohesion is an essential antecedent condition for groupthink it is not a sufficient one and there could be other factors that determine whether cohesiveness will deteriorate into group think or not. So though “all cohesive groups” in choice “a” is an extreme conclusion it still is the best choice amongst the four choices given and is the correct answer.
