Section: ENGLISH
Question 1
Give an appropriate title to the passage
D The Changing Structure of Rural labour market
The subject of the passage is rural labor market and the characteristics of the structure of the labor market and the changes in the structure of the market. Hence, choice “d” is the correct answer.
Question 2
The author does not say
C There is no gender bias among workers in agriculture sector
In the third paragraph the author mentions that one of the areas of concern was the increasing number of women employed at a very low wages in agriculture. This means that there was gender bias among workers in agriculture sector. This makes “c” as the best answer as the message contradictory to this is stated by the author.
Question 3
Why is the increasing gap between labour productivity in agricultural and non-agricultural occupations a cause of concern, according to Radhakrishnan and Sharma?
B This would lead to pressure on both the agricultural and non-agricultural sectors as whichever sector expands at the expense of the other, there would be increased labour pressure on that sector and lesser economic development in the other
This is a tough question because in the passage it is mentioned that the “increasing gap” is a cause of concern according to Radhakrishnan and Sharma but why is this a cause of concern that is not mentioned. So the elimination technique and to some extent some prior knowledge on the subject is to be used to answer this question. Choices “a”, “c” and “d” will be eliminated as increase in wages in a particular sector is not an area of concern for that particular sector. Hence, choice “b” is the best choice amongst the given choices.
Question 4
How does Bhalla explain the fact that the real wages of agricultural labourers began to rise in all parts of the country after mid-70s?
D There was a mass outflow of agricultural labourers into the non-agricultural sectors and the remaining labourers, who were lesser in number, now apportioned the existing agricultural sector wealth, getting richer individually
The question does not have great choices – in fact the correct choice has least mistakes and so is the correct answer. Choice “a” could be easily eliminated as the passage provides no information about the development of both the sectors across the world. Similarly nothing has been mentioned about economic liberalization so choice “b” is eliminated. Same goes for choice “c” as nothing has been mentioned about Green Revolution. This makes choice “d” the correct answer as it is mentioned in paragraph 4 that – “Bhalla argues that the movement ……increase in the share of non-agricultural employment in total employment”.
Question 5
What is the most important problem in understanding the condition of rural labour markets in India?
B The rural labour markets are very complex and there exists great diversity across regions and across segments of such markets
In the first paragraph it is stated - “The structure and working of rural labour markets in India is complex”.
Question 6
What sort of tension exists between the decline of poverty and the slow growth of agricultural employment and the increased casualisation of the labour force?
A A decline in rural poverty is only possible when there is increased agricultural employment and lower casualisation of the labour force
In the third paragraph this tension is stated – it is mentioned that it was a period when agricultural wages increased in real terms and when income poverty declined. However, the author goes on to say that there was a tension – “the tension between ….and increased casualization of the labor force on the other” –this implies that it was expected that a decline in rural poverty is only possible when there is increased agricultural employment. Hence choice “a” is the correct answer.
Question 7
What sort of passage is this?
C Economic
The passage talks about the economic implication of increasing rural labor force, increase in agricultural income – increase in the share of non-agricultural income in rural income and so forth. Various economic implications are discussed which makes this passage economic in nature.
Question 8
The author does not say which of the following statements in the passage?
C In India, employment was higher among the new entrants to the workforce in the 1980s
In para three the author states that – “the incidence of unemployment is higher for persons…….unemployment is typically high among new entrants to the workforce”. This makes choice “c” the correct answer.
Question 9
Why are changes in the working and living conditions of rural manual workers of utmost significance to the country as a whole?
C They form the bulk of the rural workers and so any change in their living standards augurs well for the country as a whole
In paragraph 1 the author states “Rural manual workers comprise the single largest…….The changes in the working and living conditions …….thus central to changes in the welfare….”.This makes choice “c” the correct answer though even this choice has an error in it – one cannot infer say that “any change” in their living standards augurs well for the country as a whole. The change has to be a positive change.
Question 10
For the word given at the top of each table, match the dictionary definitions on the left (a, b, c, d) with their corresponding usage on the right (e, f, g, h). Out of the four possibilities given below the table select the one that has all the usages correctly matched.
Run Down
Run Down
| Dictionary Definition | Usage | ||
| a | Trace | e | My cat was run down by a bus |
| b | Criticize | f | Have you run down those addresses I asked for last week? |
| c | Hit with a car | g | Suraj is running for president of the club. |
| d | Campaign for a government position | h | My father runs everyone down |
D af, bh, ce, dg
Consider the first sentence – the clear meaning is that a bus hit the cat, so this matches the third definition i.e. ‘hit with a car’. Now this gives us the combination “ce” and hence eliminates option b.
Now from the second sentence, we can see from the context that ‘criticize’ and ‘campaign’ are irrelevant when talking about addresses. So the only appropriate choice would be to ‘trace’. This gives us the combination “af” and hence only leaves us with option d as the correct choice!
However, let us still check the others. In the third sentence, the meaning of ‘running for’ is clearly related to the post of ‘President’, so clearly only ‘campaign’ makes sense in this context i.e. the combination “dg”. Lastly in sentence four, the ‘criticize’ aptly fits into the context!
Now from the second sentence, we can see from the context that ‘criticize’ and ‘campaign’ are irrelevant when talking about addresses. So the only appropriate choice would be to ‘trace’. This gives us the combination “af” and hence only leaves us with option d as the correct choice!
However, let us still check the others. In the third sentence, the meaning of ‘running for’ is clearly related to the post of ‘President’, so clearly only ‘campaign’ makes sense in this context i.e. the combination “dg”. Lastly in sentence four, the ‘criticize’ aptly fits into the context!
Question 11
For the word given at the top of each table, match the dictionary definitions on the left (a, b, c, d) with their corresponding usage on the right (e, f, g, h). Out of the four possibilities given below the table select the one that has all the usages correctly matched.
Wind up
Wind up
| Dictionary Definition | Usage | ||
| a | Finish | e | She just think it’s a big wind-up. |
| b | To tighten the spring of (a clockwork mechanism) |
f | He wound up the toy top and set it on floor. |
| c | To become nervous, tense, etc; excited | g | If he doesn’t get his act together, he is going to wind up in prison. |
| d | An act or instance of teasing | h | The kids always get wound up to when uncle Ronnie comes over. |
C ag, bf, ch, de
Consider sentence two first. Here the object of the phrase ‘wound up’ is the toy, so clearly the only meaning possible is that of ‘tightening the spring ...’, hence the combination “bf” is correct. This means only options b and c can be correct.
Now consider the third sentence where the object of the phrase ‘wind up’ is ‘prison’. But in option b, this statement is linked to the meaning ‘to become nervous, tense etc.’ and is clearly inappropriate. Hence the correct combination is “ag” in option c which gives the meaning ‘finish’.
Now consider the third sentence where the object of the phrase ‘wind up’ is ‘prison’. But in option b, this statement is linked to the meaning ‘to become nervous, tense etc.’ and is clearly inappropriate. Hence the correct combination is “ag” in option c which gives the meaning ‘finish’.
Question 12
For the word given at the top of each table, match the dictionary definitions on the left (a, b, c, d) with their corresponding usage on the right (e, f, g, h). Out of the four possibilities given below the table select the one that has all the usages correctly matched.
Run off
Run off
| Dictionary Definition | Usage | ||
| a | Make leave | e | Would you mind running off copies of this document for me? |
| b | Reproduce | f | You shouldn’t swim where the dirty water runs off into the ocean |
| c | Leave quickly | g | Why did you run off after the dinner? |
| d | To flow | h | The new government is trying to run the criminals off. |
A ah, be, cg, df
In the second sentence, ‘runs off’ refers to ‘dirty water’ and clearly the meaning must be ‘to flow’. Thus the correct combination would be “df” which is present only in options a and d.
To choose between these options, consider the third sentence. The possible meanings for the phrase ‘run off’ in these options are ‘make leave’ or ‘leave quickly’. It is clear to see that the first meaning is totally out of context here, so the correct combination would be “cg” and consequently “ah”.
To choose between these options, consider the third sentence. The possible meanings for the phrase ‘run off’ in these options are ‘make leave’ or ‘leave quickly’. It is clear to see that the first meaning is totally out of context here, so the correct combination would be “cg” and consequently “ah”.
Question 13
Read the following newspaper report and put the verbs in brackets into the most suitable form. Indicate your choice in the provided box.
A woman ______ (13) ______ (take) to hospital after her car collided with a lorry near Noida yesterday. She ______ (14) ______ (allow) home later after treatment. The road ______ (15) ______ (block) for an hour after the accident, and traffic had to ______ (16) ______ (divert). A police inspector said afterwards: ‘The woman was lucky. She could ______ (17) ______ (kill).
A woman ______ (13) ______ (take) to hospital after her car collided with a lorry near Noida yesterday. She ______ (14) ______ (allow) home later after treatment. The road ______ (15) ______ (block) for an hour after the accident, and traffic had to ______ (16) ______ (divert). A police inspector said afterwards: ‘The woman was lucky. She could ______ (17) ______ (kill).
C was taken
The second verb in the sentence ‘collided’ is in the simple past tense. Hence the blank should also be in the simple past tense i.e. ‘was taken’.
Question 14
Read the following newspaper report and put the verbs in brackets into the most suitable form. Indicate your choice in the provided box.
A woman ______ (13) ______ (take) to hospital after her car collided with a lorry near Noida yesterday. She ______ (14) ______ (allow) home later after treatment. The road ______ (15) ______ (block) for an hour after the accident, and traffic had to ______ (16) ______ (divert). A police inspector said afterwards: ‘The woman was lucky. She could ______ (17) ______ (kill).
A woman ______ (13) ______ (take) to hospital after her car collided with a lorry near Noida yesterday. She ______ (14) ______ (allow) home later after treatment. The road ______ (15) ______ (block) for an hour after the accident, and traffic had to ______ (16) ______ (divert). A police inspector said afterwards: ‘The woman was lucky. She could ______ (17) ______ (kill).
D was allowed
Here the verb ‘allow’ must come in the passive voice (‘she’ is the object and not the subject), so options a and c can be eliminated. Now to maintain continuity with the previous sentence this too should be in the past tense i.e. ‘was allowed’.
Question 15
Read the following newspaper report and put the verbs in brackets into the most suitable form. Indicate your choice in the provided box.
A woman ______ (13) ______ (take) to hospital after her car collided with a lorry near Noida yesterday. She ______ (14) ______ (allow) home later after treatment. The road ______ (15) ______ (block) for an hour after the accident, and traffic had to ______ (16) ______ (divert). A police inspector said afterwards: ‘The woman was lucky. She could ______ (17) ______ (kill).
A woman ______ (13) ______ (take) to hospital after her car collided with a lorry near Noida yesterday. She ______ (14) ______ (allow) home later after treatment. The road ______ (15) ______ (block) for an hour after the accident, and traffic had to ______ (16) ______ (divert). A police inspector said afterwards: ‘The woman was lucky. She could ______ (17) ______ (kill).
A was blocked
Again the object of the verb ‘block’ is the road, so the verb should be in the passive voice (and in the past), so the correct choice would be ‘was blocked’.
Question 16
Read the following newspaper report and put the verbs in brackets into the most suitable form. Indicate your choice in the provided box.
A woman ______ (13) ______ (take) to hospital after her car collided with a lorry near Noida yesterday. She ______ (14) ______ (allow) home later after treatment. The road ______ (15) ______ (block) for an hour after the accident, and traffic had to ______ (16) ______ (divert). A police inspector said afterwards: ‘The woman was lucky. She could ______ (17) ______ (kill).
A woman ______ (13) ______ (take) to hospital after her car collided with a lorry near Noida yesterday. She ______ (14) ______ (allow) home later after treatment. The road ______ (15) ______ (block) for an hour after the accident, and traffic had to ______ (16) ______ (divert). A police inspector said afterwards: ‘The woman was lucky. She could ______ (17) ______ (kill).
B be diverted
Here too traffic being the object of the verb ‘divert’, this verb should be in the passive voice. However note that the verb is preceded by the words ‘had to’ which indicates use of the infinitive. Hence the correct phrase should be ‘had to be diverted’.
Question 17
Read the following newspaper report and put the verbs in brackets into the most suitable form. Indicate your choice in the provided box.
A woman ______ (13) ______ (take) to hospital after her car collided with a lorry near Noida yesterday. She ______ (14) ______ (allow) home later after treatment. The road ______ (15) ______ (block) for an hour after the accident, and traffic had to ______ (16) ______ (divert). A police inspector said afterwards: ‘The woman was lucky. She could ______ (17) ______ (kill).
A woman ______ (13) ______ (take) to hospital after her car collided with a lorry near Noida yesterday. She ______ (14) ______ (allow) home later after treatment. The road ______ (15) ______ (block) for an hour after the accident, and traffic had to ______ (16) ______ (divert). A police inspector said afterwards: ‘The woman was lucky. She could ______ (17) ______ (kill).
B have been killed
Note that there are two verbs here – ‘was’ in the simple past tense clearly occurred after the earlier action of ‘being killed’. Now, the earlier action in the past must be represented in the perfect tense, so the sentence should be ‘She could have been killed’.
Question 18
In which of the following clusters, all the words mean ’ignoring existence of God’?
B Atheism, Agnosticism, Secularism
Keep in mind that ‘Pantheism’ refers to ‘worship or tolerance of many Gods’ while ‘deism’ refers to ‘belief in the existence of a supreme being’. Both of these clearly cannot mean ‘ignoring existence of God’. The only choice not containing either of these is option b.
Question 19
Which set of words are only nouns?
C Analysis, praxis, thesis
In option a, all three words are adjectives.
In option b, ‘porous’ is an adjective while the others are nouns.
In option d, ‘poisonous’ is an adjective, ‘vocalize’ is a verb and ‘stupidity’ is a noun.
In option b, ‘porous’ is an adjective while the others are nouns.
In option d, ‘poisonous’ is an adjective, ‘vocalize’ is a verb and ‘stupidity’ is a noun.
Question 20
Which set of words are only adjectives?
D Chemical, mathematical, French
In option a, ‘psychologies’ is clearly a plural noun.
In option b, all the words are nouns.
In option c, all the words are nouns.
In option b, all the words are nouns.
In option c, all the words are nouns.
Question 21
In which set each word is a noun, adjective and verb also?
D Square, precipitate, collect, free
Consider example sentences for option d:
As nouns: A square has equal sides; The precipitate in the experiment was white in colour; He used the day’s collect as the basis of the day’s sermon; This country is truly the land of the free.
As adjectives: The house had square windows; She had a precipitate fall down the stairs; I didn’t realize until later that it was a collect-call; After the lecture we got free pizza.
As verbs: He squared off his debts on the first of each month; His actions precipitated an already strained relationship with his father; They collected the package in the morning; Cecilia longed for a brave man to free her from her step father’s clutches.
As nouns: A square has equal sides; The precipitate in the experiment was white in colour; He used the day’s collect as the basis of the day’s sermon; This country is truly the land of the free.
As adjectives: The house had square windows; She had a precipitate fall down the stairs; I didn’t realize until later that it was a collect-call; After the lecture we got free pizza.
As verbs: He squared off his debts on the first of each month; His actions precipitated an already strained relationship with his father; They collected the package in the morning; Cecilia longed for a brave man to free her from her step father’s clutches.
Question 22
Find the odd one out.
A wary
Clearly, ‘wary’ means ‘unsure and cautious about possible dangers/problems’, while the other words all mean ‘simple-minded and easy to believe’.
Question 23
Find the odd one out.
C burst
‘burst’ means ‘to break open or apart suddenly and violently’, while the other words mean ‘vigour and spirit or enthusiasm’.
Question 24
Find the odd one out.
B diatribe
A 'diatribe’ is a ‘forceful and bitter verbal attack against someone or something’, while the other words are positive adjectives which mean ‘extremely happy or carefree’.
Question 25
Find the odd one out.
A trappings
‘trappings’ means ‘the outward signs, features or objects associated with a particular situation, role or job’, while the other words mean ‘an opening or exit way’.
Question 26
Find the odd one out.
A spectre
A ‘hoodlum’ is a ‘person who engages in crime and violence’, while the others mean ‘ghost or something that is widely feared’.
Question 27
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word.
You ______ mad if you think I’m going to lend you any more money.
You ______ mad if you think I’m going to lend you any more money.
C must be
Clearly the main clause must be in the form ‘You must be mad’ to agree with the conditional clause ‘if you think...’
Question 28
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word.
Who ______ was coming to see me this morning?
Who ______ was coming to see me this morning?
B did you say
The noun phrase ‘Who did you say’ acts as the subject for the verb ‘was coming’. Thus, the interrogative pronoun is in the subjective form ‘who’ instead of ‘whom’.
Clearly option b makes a fragment instead of a complete sentence. In option c, the use of ‘that’ as a demonstrative pronoun is superfluous i.e. it is not needed. The phrase ‘you did say’ in option d is more appropriate in a declarative statement rather than an interrogative one.
Clearly option b makes a fragment instead of a complete sentence. In option c, the use of ‘that’ as a demonstrative pronoun is superfluous i.e. it is not needed. The phrase ‘you did say’ in option d is more appropriate in a declarative statement rather than an interrogative one.
Question 29
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word.
I notified ______ I had changed my address.
I notified ______ I had changed my address.
B the Bank that
The word ‘notified’ does not need a preposition to be used along with it, hence options a, c and d are incorrect.
Question 30
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word.
If I ______ a more reliable car, I ______ to Surat rather than fly.
If I ______ a more reliable car, I ______ to Surat rather than fly.
A had; would drive
This is a conditional statement where the first conditional clause must be ‘had’ while the main clause should have verb in its conditional form i.e. as ‘would drive’.
Question 31
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word.
I first met Sohan on a beach ______ Kochi. I later found out that he had been a carpenter and a dustman, ______ other things.
I first met Sohan on a beach ______ Kochi. I later found out that he had been a carpenter and a dustman, ______ other things.
D near; among
When listing out attributes or making a list, it is common to end with the phrase ‘among other things’. This means we need to choose between options a and d. Now, the location of a beach should be described as ‘near Kochi’ and not ‘by Kochi’, hence option d is the correct choice.
Question 32
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word.
’When did you last hear ______ Don?’ ’He phoned me just this morning, He’s coming to Delhi next week, so we agreed ______ a time and place to meet.’
’When did you last hear ______ Don?’ ’He phoned me just this morning, He’s coming to Delhi next week, so we agreed ______ a time and place to meet.’
A from; on
The phrasal verb ‘hear from’ means that ‘the person spoke to Don’, while ‘hear about’ or ‘hear of’ would be used to describe an ‘incident or situation’. Also the use of the word ‘last’ clearly tells us that it is a habitual occurrence, which rules out these connotations.
In the second blank ‘agree on’ is the correct phrasal verb. ‘Agree to’ would mean ‘to say yes to an agreement or condition’ and is clearly inappropriate here.
In the second blank ‘agree on’ is the correct phrasal verb. ‘Agree to’ would mean ‘to say yes to an agreement or condition’ and is clearly inappropriate here.
Question 33
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word.
Perhaps because something in us instinctively distrusts such displays of natural fluency, some readers approach John Updike’s fiction with ______.
Perhaps because something in us instinctively distrusts such displays of natural fluency, some readers approach John Updike’s fiction with ______.
A suspicion
The hint here is the phrase ‘something in us instinctively distrusts’, the word in the blank should have a similar meaning. The only appropriate word is hence ‘suspicion’. Note that ‘bewilderment’ means ‘a state of being perplexed or confused’, while ‘veneration’ means ‘great respect’ and ‘recklessness’ means ‘rashness’ and clearly all these are totally out of context here.
Question 34
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word.
Despite the mixture’s ______ nature, we found that by lowering its temperature in the laboratory, we could dramatically reduce its tendency to vaporize.
Despite the mixture’s ______ nature, we found that by lowering its temperature in the laboratory, we could dramatically reduce its tendency to vaporize.
A volatile
The blank should have a similar meaning to ‘tendency to vaporize’ and hence the only appropriate word is ‘volatile’.
Question 35
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word.
I ______ you can swim so well and I can’t.
I ______ you can swim so well and I can’t.
B hate it that
Here the usually stative verb ‘hate’ is used as a transitive verb i.e. a verb that describes an action on another object. Thus, the object needs to be clarified by the pronoun ‘it’ and further described by the dependent clause “that you can swim so well and i can’t”.
Section: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Question 1
Which folk dance of India has made it to the Guinness Book of World Records as the largest folk dance in the world?
C Nati (Himachal Pradesh)
Question 2
Which e-Commerce company has made its maiden entry in the Thomson Reuters top 100 Global Innovators list 2015?
A Amazon
Question 3
Which of the following groups of international institutions are also known as
B IMF and World Bank Group
Question 4
Which of the following variables is not part of the
C Fiscal Policy
Question 5
The measurement of poverty-line in India is based on the criteria of
D Calorie consumption
Question 6
Who termed Paris deal on climate change as
C Narendra Modi
Question 7
What is R2
A It is an astromech droid that extinguishes fires, repairs spaceships and assists the lead characters in the Star Wars film
Question 8
Tunisian mediators of the so called National Dialogue Quartet won the Nobel Peace Prize 2015.
Which of the following is/are part of Quartet?
I. The Tunisian General Labour Union (UGTT)
II. The Tunisian Confederation of Industry, Trade and Handicrafts (UTICA)
III. The Tunisian Human Rights League (LTDH)
IV. The Tunisian Order of Lawyers
The correct answer is
Which of the following is/are part of Quartet?
I. The Tunisian General Labour Union (UGTT)
II. The Tunisian Confederation of Industry, Trade and Handicrafts (UTICA)
III. The Tunisian Human Rights League (LTDH)
IV. The Tunisian Order of Lawyers
The correct answer is
D I, II, III and IV
Question 9
The Employee
B Universal Account Number
Question 10
Which is the World
C Kochi (India)
Question 11
Government has introduced Start-up Scheme to promote new enterprises. Such enterprises has been awarded years tax holiday.
C 3
Question 12
Consider the following statements in respect of PAN (effective from January 1, 2016)
I. Quoting PAN is mandatory for cash payments made to settle hotel bills or for buying foreign travel tickets of an amount above Rs 50,000
II. The PAN requirement for non-luxury cash transactions is Rs 2 lakh
III. PAN for making post office deposit of over Rs 50,000 has been dispensed with
IV. PAN is mandatory on purchase of immovable property of Rs 10 lakh
The correct answer is
I. Quoting PAN is mandatory for cash payments made to settle hotel bills or for buying foreign travel tickets of an amount above Rs 50,000
II. The PAN requirement for non-luxury cash transactions is Rs 2 lakh
III. PAN for making post office deposit of over Rs 50,000 has been dispensed with
IV. PAN is mandatory on purchase of immovable property of Rs 10 lakh
The correct answer is
D I, II, III and IV
Question 13
How many firms, recently, have got licence from RBI for establishing Payment Banks?
B 11
Question 14
Government has allowed _______ FDI in operations of white level ATMs.
A 100%
Question 15
Which of the following pairs of rivers have been interlinked formally for the first time in India?
D Godavari
Question 16
Which of the following feature films from India has been declared as the official entry for 88th Oscar Awards?
B Court
Question 17
Why the Sidereal day is 4 minutes shorter than the Solar day?
C The Earth rotates on its axis
Question 18
Which is the only industrialized country of the world that did not ratify the Kyoto protocol?
B United States
Question 19
The 8th BRICS Summit (2016) is proposed to be held in
B India
Question 20
Which of the following statements is incorrect about foreign investment in India?
A Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPIs) can invest up to 51% in multi-brand retail
Question 21
An Indian car maker recently changed the name of its newly launched car because the name was similar to an epidemic
A Tata Motors
Question 22
The first telecommunication company to launch pan India 4G mobile services
D Bharti Airtel
Question 23
WTO has recently approved membership of which country?
C Afghanistan
Question 24
FM broadcast band lies in ______ .
D VHF
Question 25
What percentage of Employees Provident Fund can be invested in equity shares?
D Minimum 5% and maximum 15%
Question 26
Liquid crystals are used in
D All of the above
Question 27
Which country recently allowed women to vote in local elections for the first time?
D Saudi Arabia
Question 28
Brass Plate Subsidiaries
A For the purpose of Income tax avoidance
Question 29
Global fast-food chain ______ has maximum number of restaurants across the world.
C McDonalds
Question 30
Who has been honoured by the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2015?
C Sania Mirza
Question 31
Which of the following countries has recently declared a
D France
Question 32
Section 80 TTA of the Income Tax Act pertains to interest earned on
A Saving Bank Accounts
Question 33
Who is the Chairperson of the Film and Television Institute of India (FTTI)?
C Gajendra Chauhan
Question 34
MNREGA program provides 100 days employment in rural areas. The Government during September 2015 decided to provide additional ________ days employment in drought affected areas.
D 50
Question 35
United Nations has appointed Anupam Kher as the ambassador of
B He for She
Section: LEGAL APTITUDE
Question 1
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
Principle: A reasonable classification having nexus with the object sought to be achieved is not violative of Article 14 or Article 16 of the Constitution of India.
Factual Situation: ’X’ is a male teacher in a women’s college, who applied for the post of Principal of that College. His candidature was rejected on the basis of the Government’s policy of appointing only women as Principal of a women’s college. ’X’ challenges the policy on the ground of discrimination. Whether the challenge is sustainable?
Decision:
Principle: A reasonable classification having nexus with the object sought to be achieved is not violative of Article 14 or Article 16 of the Constitution of India.
Factual Situation: ’X’ is a male teacher in a women’s college, who applied for the post of Principal of that College. His candidature was rejected on the basis of the Government’s policy of appointing only women as Principal of a women’s college. ’X’ challenges the policy on the ground of discrimination. Whether the challenge is sustainable?
Decision:
C No, because the policy of appointment of only lady Principal in a women’s college is a reasonable classification having a nexus with the object sought to be achieved.
The challenge is not sustainable because the policy of appointment of only lady Principal in a women’s college is a reasonable classification having a nexus with the object sought to be achieved.
Question 2
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
Principle: Any institution or body can be a ’State’ if it is created under the Constitution or a statute; or if it is substantially financed by the Government; or the Government holds its share capital.
Factual Situation: K approached the High Court by filing a writ petition against the Board for Control of Cricket in India (BCCI). The argument advanced was that BCCI is a’State’ within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution of India. The question is whether the argument is acceptable?
Decision:
Principle: Any institution or body can be a ’State’ if it is created under the Constitution or a statute; or if it is substantially financed by the Government; or the Government holds its share capital.
Factual Situation: K approached the High Court by filing a writ petition against the Board for Control of Cricket in India (BCCI). The argument advanced was that BCCI is a’State’ within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution of India. The question is whether the argument is acceptable?
Decision:
D No, because neither the Board is created under a statute nor any part of share capital of the Board is held by the government and no financial assistance is given by the government to the Board.
The argument is not acceptable because neither the Board is created under a statute nor any part of share capital of the Board is held by the government and no financial assistance is given by the government to the Board.
Question 3
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
Principle: A suit shall be instituted in the court within whose jurisdiction the cause of action arises; or the defendant actually and voluntarily resides or carries on business, or personally works for gain.
Factual Situation: ’Y’ carries on business in Mumbai. ’Z’ carries on business in Delhi. ’Z’ buys goods of ‘Y’ in Mumbai through his agent and request ’Y’ to deliver them at Delhi. Accordingly, ’Y’ delivered the goods at Delhi. But he did not get the price of the goods delivered in Delhi. Therefore, he intends to move the Civil Court for recovery of amount from ’Z’. Which court may ’Y’ approach?
Decision:
Principle: A suit shall be instituted in the court within whose jurisdiction the cause of action arises; or the defendant actually and voluntarily resides or carries on business, or personally works for gain.
Factual Situation: ’Y’ carries on business in Mumbai. ’Z’ carries on business in Delhi. ’Z’ buys goods of ‘Y’ in Mumbai through his agent and request ’Y’ to deliver them at Delhi. Accordingly, ’Y’ delivered the goods at Delhi. But he did not get the price of the goods delivered in Delhi. Therefore, he intends to move the Civil Court for recovery of amount from ’Z’. Which court may ’Y’ approach?
Decision:
A ‘Y‘ may institute the suit either at Delhi where Z carries on business or at Mumbai where the cause of action arose.
‘Y‘ may institute the suit either at Delhi where Z carries on business or at Mumbai where the cause of action arose because as per the principle, a suit shall be instituted in the court within whose jurisdiction the cause of action arises; or the defendant actually and voluntarily resides or carries on business, or personally works for gain.
Question 4
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
Principle: The acceptance of an offer will be valid only if it is made in the way it was expected to be made.
Factual Situation: There was a telephonic discussion between’J‘ and ‘K‘ for negotiating the sale of the shop of former to the latter. Upon reaching an agreement as to the price of the shop of ‘J’ at Rs 20 lakh, ‘J’ told ‘K’ to send a letter to him within two weeks confirming that she wishes to buy the shop for the price finalized. Two days thereafter, ‘K’ gave her acceptance to ‘J’ over telephone but sent the letter of confirmation after lapse of one month. Is ‘J’ bound by acceptance of ‘K’?
Decision:
Principle: The acceptance of an offer will be valid only if it is made in the way it was expected to be made.
Factual Situation: There was a telephonic discussion between’J‘ and ‘K‘ for negotiating the sale of the shop of former to the latter. Upon reaching an agreement as to the price of the shop of ‘J’ at Rs 20 lakh, ‘J’ told ‘K’ to send a letter to him within two weeks confirming that she wishes to buy the shop for the price finalized. Two days thereafter, ‘K’ gave her acceptance to ‘J’ over telephone but sent the letter of confirmation after lapse of one month. Is ‘J’ bound by acceptance of ‘K’?
Decision:
B No, because although the acceptance over telephone was conveyed in time but not in the mode specified and the letter of acceptance was also not sent within two weeks.
‘J’ is not bound by acceptance of ‘K because although the acceptance over telephone was conveyed in time but not in the mode specified and the letter of acceptance was also not sent within two weeks.
Question 5
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
Principle: A power conferred by a statute cannot be withdrawn by a subordinate legislation.
Factual Situation: The Cinematograph Act conferred powers upon the District Magistrate (DM) to grant license subject to the control of the government. The government framed Rules under the said Act. The effect of these Rules was that the licensing power stood transferred to the Government itself and the District Magistrate was rendered powerless. Whether such Rules are valid?
Decision:
Principle: A power conferred by a statute cannot be withdrawn by a subordinate legislation.
Factual Situation: The Cinematograph Act conferred powers upon the District Magistrate (DM) to grant license subject to the control of the government. The government framed Rules under the said Act. The effect of these Rules was that the licensing power stood transferred to the Government itself and the District Magistrate was rendered powerless. Whether such Rules are valid?
Decision:
A The licensing power was granted by the Cinematograph Act. Any withdrawal or transfer thereof was possible only through an Amending Act and not by any Rules made under the Parent Act.
The licensing power was granted by the Cinematograph Act. Any withdrawal or transfer thereof was possible only through an Amending Act and not by any Rules made under the Parent Act.
Question 6
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
Principle: Clause (1) of Article 15 of the Constitution of India prohibits the State from discriminating between citizens on the ground only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
Factual Situation: The admission Rules of an Engineering College located in XYZ State of India provided that no capitation fee shall be charged from the residents of the XYZ State but the non-residents shall be required to pay capitation fee. Whether the Rules are violative of Article 15 (1) of the Constitution?
Decision:
Principle: Clause (1) of Article 15 of the Constitution of India prohibits the State from discriminating between citizens on the ground only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
Factual Situation: The admission Rules of an Engineering College located in XYZ State of India provided that no capitation fee shall be charged from the residents of the XYZ State but the non-residents shall be required to pay capitation fee. Whether the Rules are violative of Article 15 (1) of the Constitution?
Decision:
D No, because Article 15 (1) does not prohibit discrimination based on the place of residence.
The Rules are not violative of Article 15 (1) of the Constitution because Article 15 (1) does not prohibit discrimination based on the place of residence.
Question 7
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
Principle: In the employer – employee relationship, the employer is held liable for all the wrongs committed by his employees in the course of employment.
Factual Situation: David was employed as a Driver in ABC & Co over the past 15 years and has been appreciated by the General Manager for his hard work and sincerity. He has been rewarded by the company for his accident free record. David‘s younger brother wanted to join the same company as a driver. He obtained a Learner‘s Licence, joined a Driving School and was learning driving during the last three months. He was on the verge of completion of the training and appear for the Driving test. He wanted to have more practice before the test and requested his brother David for using the Company‘s car for two days. David also allowed him to use the office car for the practice. While he was practicing driving, a truck came from the wrong side, hit the company‘s car driven by David‘s brother, which in turn hit a pedestrian and injured him. The pedestrian sues the company for damages.
Decision:
Principle: In the employer – employee relationship, the employer is held liable for all the wrongs committed by his employees in the course of employment.
Factual Situation: David was employed as a Driver in ABC & Co over the past 15 years and has been appreciated by the General Manager for his hard work and sincerity. He has been rewarded by the company for his accident free record. David‘s younger brother wanted to join the same company as a driver. He obtained a Learner‘s Licence, joined a Driving School and was learning driving during the last three months. He was on the verge of completion of the training and appear for the Driving test. He wanted to have more practice before the test and requested his brother David for using the Company‘s car for two days. David also allowed him to use the office car for the practice. While he was practicing driving, a truck came from the wrong side, hit the company‘s car driven by David‘s brother, which in turn hit a pedestrian and injured him. The pedestrian sues the company for damages.
Decision:
B The Company is liable as David allowed his brother to drive the car
The Company is liable as David allowed his brother to drive the car for practice. Principle clearly mentions that the employer is held liable for all the wrongs committed by his employees in the course of employment.
Question 8
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
Principle: No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law and Civil Courts have coercive powers to compel attendance of witness only within its local territory.
Factual Situation: Puchu, a resident of Faridabad was summoned by the Delhi High Court as a witness in a civil case regarding wrongful possession of immovable property filed by Amu against Kichu. He refused to appear before the court due to his office job. He was prosecuted by the court. Is he liable?
Decision:
Principle: No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law and Civil Courts have coercive powers to compel attendance of witness only within its local territory.
Factual Situation: Puchu, a resident of Faridabad was summoned by the Delhi High Court as a witness in a civil case regarding wrongful possession of immovable property filed by Amu against Kichu. He refused to appear before the court due to his office job. He was prosecuted by the court. Is he liable?
Decision:
A He is not liable because he is not the resident of Delhi
He is not liable because he is not the resident of Delhi since as per the principle, Civil Courts have coercive powers to compel attendance of witness only within its local territory.
Question 9
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
Principle: Article 19 (1) (g) of the Constitution of India guarantees to all citizens the right to practice any profession, or to carry on any trade, occupation and business but Article 19 (6) empowers the State to impose reasonable restrictions on this right in the interest of public.
Factual Situation: Having experienced acute shortage of labour for agricultural purpose due to engagement of agricultural labourer in manufacture of agricultural labour in the manufacture of Bidis. Whether the law violates the constitutional provisions?
Decision:
Principle: Article 19 (1) (g) of the Constitution of India guarantees to all citizens the right to practice any profession, or to carry on any trade, occupation and business but Article 19 (6) empowers the State to impose reasonable restrictions on this right in the interest of public.
Factual Situation: Having experienced acute shortage of labour for agricultural purpose due to engagement of agricultural labourer in manufacture of agricultural labour in the manufacture of Bidis. Whether the law violates the constitutional provisions?
Decision:
D Yes, because the object sought to be achieved by this law is to keep sufficient labour supply for agricultural purpose, which could have been easily achieved by restraining the employment of agricultural labour in Bidi manufacturing during the agricultural season only. Absolute restriction amounts to withdrawal of the right. Hence, the law is unconstitutional.
The law violates the constitutional provisions because the object sought to be achieved by this law is to keep sufficient labour supply for agricultural purpose, which could have been easily achieved by restraining the employment of agricultural labour in Bidi manufacturing during the agricultural season only. Absolute restriction amounts to withdrawal of the right.
Question 10
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
Principle: When a person unlawfully intervenes in the chattel of another person by which the latter is deprived of its use, the former commits the tort of conversion. And nobody shall enrich himself at other’s cost.
Factual Situation: X, a patient suffering from fibroids in her uterus approached KLM Medical Institute. X was suggested to undergo surgery to remove the fibroids from her uterus. The operation was successfully performed and X was discharged after few days. One of the researchers of the KLM Institute discovered some rare and unique cells in the fibroids of X and using these cells, the laboratory of KLM developed some life-saving drugs and earned rupees twenty crore from a leading International Pharma Company. When X came to know about it, she claimed five crore from the Institute.
Decision:
Principle: When a person unlawfully intervenes in the chattel of another person by which the latter is deprived of its use, the former commits the tort of conversion. And nobody shall enrich himself at other’s cost.
Factual Situation: X, a patient suffering from fibroids in her uterus approached KLM Medical Institute. X was suggested to undergo surgery to remove the fibroids from her uterus. The operation was successfully performed and X was discharged after few days. One of the researchers of the KLM Institute discovered some rare and unique cells in the fibroids of X and using these cells, the laboratory of KLM developed some life-saving drugs and earned rupees twenty crore from a leading International Pharma Company. When X came to know about it, she claimed five crore from the Institute.
Decision:
B KLM Institute need not share its income with X because the medical institute instead of destroying the waste fibroids of X conducted research on its own and invented new life-saving drugs.
KLM Institute need not share its income with X because the medical institute instead of destroying the waste fibroids of X conducted research on its own and invented new life-saving drugs.
Question 11
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
Principle: A judgment which binds only the parties to a suit in which the judgment was passed is called judgment in personam; whereas a judgment which binds all men irrespective of whether they were party to suit or not is known as judgment in rem. .
Factual Situation: “Judgment of a competent court determining contractual obligations of the parties to a contract is an example of judgment in personam; but a judgment of a competent court declaring a party to be insolvent is an example of judgment in rem.” Comment on the correctness of this statement.
Decision:
Principle: A judgment which binds only the parties to a suit in which the judgment was passed is called judgment in personam; whereas a judgment which binds all men irrespective of whether they were party to suit or not is known as judgment in rem. .
Factual Situation: “Judgment of a competent court determining contractual obligations of the parties to a contract is an example of judgment in personam; but a judgment of a competent court declaring a party to be insolvent is an example of judgment in rem.” Comment on the correctness of this statement.
Decision:
D The statement is correct.
Judgment of a competent court determining contractual obligations of the parties to a contract is an example of judgment in personam; but a judgment of a competent court declaring a party to be insolvent is an example of judgment in rem.
Question 12
Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
Principle: According to Article 20 (1) of the Constitution, no person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of the law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence, nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence.
Factual Situation: ‘P‘ was charged with an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term of one year. The Magistrate convicted him and awarded him a punishment of one year imprisonment. While’P‘ was undergoing the sentence, the law under which ‘P’ was convicted came to be amended and the punishment for the offence of which ‘P’ was convicted was reduced to six months. The defense filed an application to the Magistrate for review of sentence and to commute it to six months. Can the application be allowed?
Decision:
Principle: According to Article 20 (1) of the Constitution, no person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of the law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence, nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence.
Factual Situation: ‘P‘ was charged with an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term of one year. The Magistrate convicted him and awarded him a punishment of one year imprisonment. While’P‘ was undergoing the sentence, the law under which ‘P’ was convicted came to be amended and the punishment for the offence of which ‘P’ was convicted was reduced to six months. The defense filed an application to the Magistrate for review of sentence and to commute it to six months. Can the application be allowed?
Decision:
D Yes, because retrospective application of criminal law if it is beneficial to the accused is not against Article 20 (1) of the Constitution.
The application can be allowed because retrospective application of criminal law if it is beneficial to the accused is not against Article 20 (1) of the Constitution.
Question 13
The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled as ’Assertion‘ and the other as ‘Reason’. Read both the statements carefully and answer using the codes given below.
Assertion (A): The entries in the three legislative lists are not always set out with scientific precision
Reason (R): The entries are not powers but are only fields of legislation
Assertion (A): The entries in the three legislative lists are not always set out with scientific precision
Reason (R): The entries are not powers but are only fields of legislation
B Both A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A
Question 14
The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled as ’Assertion‘ and the other as ‘Reason’. Read both the statements carefully and answer using the codes given below.
Assertion (A): No action lies for mere damage caused by some act which does not violate a legal right.
Reason (R): An action lies for interference with another’s legal right even where it causes no actual damage.
Assertion (A): No action lies for mere damage caused by some act which does not violate a legal right.
Reason (R): An action lies for interference with another’s legal right even where it causes no actual damage.
B Both A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A. Assertion and reason are based on latin maxim injuria sine damnum and damnum sine injuria. There is no co-relation between the two.
Question 15
The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled as ’Assertion‘ and the other as ‘Reason’. Read both the statements carefully and answer using the codes given below.
Assertion (A): The parties to the contract must be competent to contract otherwise it will be a void contract.
Reason (R): All wagering agreements are void.
Assertion (A): The parties to the contract must be competent to contract otherwise it will be a void contract.
Reason (R): All wagering agreements are void.
B Both A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A. Assertion talks about competency of the parties while reason provides for wager agreements.
Question 16
The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled as ’Assertion‘ and the other as ‘Reason’. Read both the statements carefully and answer using the codes given below.
Assertion (A): Custom to have force of law must be followed from time immemorial
Reason (R): Custom represents common consciousness of the people
Assertion (A): Custom to have force of law must be followed from time immemorial
Reason (R): Custom represents common consciousness of the people
B Both A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A. There is no co-relation between Custom being followed from time immemorial and common consciousness of the people.
Question 17
The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled as
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Since an accused person cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself therefore he cannot be forced to give his thumb impression.
Question 18
The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled as ’Assertion‘ and the other as ‘Reason’. Read both the statements carefully and answer using the codes given below.
Assertion (A): In federalism, there is division of powers between the Centre and the States.
Reason (R): The legislation is not invalid merely because it incidentally encroaches upon matters which have been assigned to another organ.
Assertion (A): In federalism, there is division of powers between the Centre and the States.
Reason (R): The legislation is not invalid merely because it incidentally encroaches upon matters which have been assigned to another organ.
B Both A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A. There is no co-relation between federalism and encroachment upon legislative matters.
Question 19
The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled as ’Assertion‘ and the other as ‘Reason’. Read both the statements carefully and answer using the codes given below.
Assertion (A): International law is not law at all
Reason (R): International law has no judicial system to enforce the law by applying sanctions.
Assertion (A): International law is not law at all
Reason (R): International law has no judicial system to enforce the law by applying sanctions.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Since International law has no judicial system to enforce the law by applying sanctions therefore it is not considered as law at all by some jurists.
Question 20
The Constitution (One hundredth Amendment) Act, 2015 amended the ______ Schedule of the Constitution to give effect to an agreement entered into by India and _______ on acquiring and transferring of territories between the two countries.
C First; Bangladesh
The Constitution (One hundredth Amendment) Act, 2015 amended the First Schedule of the Constitution to give effect to an agreement entered into by India and Bangladesh on acquiring and transferring of territories between the two countries.
Question 21
Who is the CEO of NITI Aayog?
D Amitabh Kant
Amitabh Kant is the CEO of NITI Aayog.
Question 22
Allahabad High Court has held that the ________of deceased Government employees are eligible for appointment on compassionate ground.
D married daughter
Allahabad High Court has held that married daughter of deceased Government employees are eligible for appointment on compassionate ground.
Question 23
Which party has won the general elections of Spain in spite of its worst result since 1989?
A People’s Party
People’s Party won the general elections of Spain in spite of its worst result since 1989
Question 24
Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority has started using ________ for online registration under the National Pension System Scheme.
A PAN Card
Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority has started using PAN Card for online registration under the National Pension System Scheme.
Question 25
When a vehicle is financed by a bank, what kind of charge does the bank have over the primary security?
B Hypothecation
Hypothecation is the practice where (usually through a letter of hypothecation) a debtor pledges collateral to secure a debt or as a condition precedent to the debt, or a third party pledges collateral for the debtor.
Question 26
Under which Act can action be taken against wilful defaulters of banking loans?
D Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act (SARFAESI Act)
Under Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, action be taken against wilful defaulters of banking loans.
Question 27
Which of the following court/tribunal ordered levy of an environment compensatory charge on commercial vehicles not bound for the capital yet passing through Delhi?
A Supreme Court of India
The Supreme Court on 10th October 2016 gave an in-principle approval to impose an environmental levy on all commercial vehicles entering the national capital.
Question 28
Parliament has enacted which of the following Legislation in 2015 – 16?
I. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act
II. The Election Laws (Amendment) Act
III. The Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendment Act
IV. Commercial Courts, Commercial Division and Commercial Appellate Division of High Courts Act
I. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act
II. The Election Laws (Amendment) Act
III. The Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendment Act
IV. Commercial Courts, Commercial Division and Commercial Appellate Division of High Courts Act
D I, II, III and IV
All the given options are correct.
Question 29
In the following States more than 60% seats are in reserved category in educational institutions against 50% cap as fixed by the Supreme Court of India
I. Karnataka
II. Tamil Nadu
III. Odisha
IV. Bihar
The correct answer is
I. Karnataka
II. Tamil Nadu
III. Odisha
IV. Bihar
The correct answer is
D I, II and III
Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Odisha, more than 60% seats are in reserved category in educational institutions against 50% cap as fixed by the Supreme Court of India.
Question 30
According to SEBI norms, a person found guilty of indulging in unfair trade practices shall be liable to a penalty of
I. Rs. 25 crore
II. Three times the amount of profits made out of such practices,.....
The correct answer is:
I. Rs. 25 crore
II. Three times the amount of profits made out of such practices,.....
The correct answer is:
C either I or II
Both the given options are correct.
Question 31
The minimum wages in _______ are the highest in the northern region.
B Delhi
The minimum wages in Delhi are the highest in the northern region.
Question 32
The correct sequence in ascending order of their creation of the following international institution is:
I. WTO
II. GATT
III. UNCTAD
IV. NAFTA
I. WTO
II. GATT
III. UNCTAD
IV. NAFTA
A II, III, I, IV
GATT was signed by 23 nations in Geneva on 30 October 1947, and took effect on 1 January 1948, the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) was established in 1964 as a permanent intergovernmental body. UNCTAD is the part of the United Nations Secretariat dealing with trade, investment, and development issues, the WTO officially commenced on 1 January 1995 under the Marrakesh Agreement, signed by 124 nations on 15 April 1994, the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) is a treaty entered into by the United States, Canada, and Mexico; it went into effect on January 1, 1994.
Question 33
Government of India has decided to establish _______ in selected High Courts.
C Commercial Division
Government of India has decided to establish Commercial Divisions in selected High Courts.
Question 34
‘Zero Rating’ is a recent term used in
D Net Neutrality
Zero-rating is the practice of providing Internet access without financial cost under certain conditions, such as by only permitting access to certain websites or by subsidizing the service with advertising.
Question 35
Which Article of the Constitution of India was used to impose President Rule in Uttarakhand and placing the Assembly under suspended animation in March 2016?
C Article 356
Under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, in the event that a state government is unable to function according to constitutional provisions, the Central government can take direct control of the state machinery. The state's governor issues the proclamation, after obtaining the consent of the President of India.
Section: REASONING
Question 1
Investors need to critically evaluate the risk of each investment option.
A If the inference is ‘definitely true’
The passage states that “To make sense of this choice….it is imperative…..”. This makes “a” the correct answer.
Question 2
Present day investors need to use their judgement more critically before investing.
A If the inference is ‘definitely true’
“Investors today have more investment opportunities…it is imperative”..this makes “a” the correct choice.
Question 3
Multiple investment options of similar types helps in making better investment decisions.
D If the inference is ‘probably false’
The passage states that “it could at times lead to clutter and “noise” if the options are mostly similar and undifferentiated”. This makes “d” the correct choice.
Question 4
In the past, investors were generally guided by the fund managers.
C If the ‘data provide in inadequate’
In the passage no information is provided about the investment behavior of the investors in the past nor is any information provided about the fund managers. This makes “c” the correct choice.
Question 5
Read the following short passages and answer the questions that follow each passage.
For some women, the cost of giving birth can be an unexpectedly a large burden. The average normal birth now costs Rs. 3,200 and a birth with complications can cost thousands of rupees more. Of women in the primary child-bearing age range of eighteen to twenty-four, who account for about 40 percent of all births in this country annually, more than 25 percent have no health care insurance to pay maternity costs.
If the above statements are true, which one of the following must also be true?
For some women, the cost of giving birth can be an unexpectedly a large burden. The average normal birth now costs Rs. 3,200 and a birth with complications can cost thousands of rupees more. Of women in the primary child-bearing age range of eighteen to twenty-four, who account for about 40 percent of all births in this country annually, more than 25 percent have no health care insurance to pay maternity costs.
If the above statements are true, which one of the following must also be true?
B Each year, about 60 percent of all births in this country are to women who are younger than eighteen or older than twenty-four.
It is given that women between the age group of 18 to 24 account for 40 percent of all births in this country annually. So 60 percent will fall out of this group, which will be women either less than eighteen years of age or more than 24 years of age.
Question 6
Read the following short passages and answer the questions that follow each passage.
Products sold under a brand name used to command premium prices because, in general, they were superior to non-brand rival products. Technical expertise in product development has become so widespread, however, that special quality advantages are very hard to obtain these days and even harder to maintain. As a consequence, brand-name products generally neither offer higher quality nor sell at higher prices. Paradoxically, brand names are a bigger marketing advantage than ever.
Which of the following, if true, most helps to resolve he paradox outlined above?
Products sold under a brand name used to command premium prices because, in general, they were superior to non-brand rival products. Technical expertise in product development has become so widespread, however, that special quality advantages are very hard to obtain these days and even harder to maintain. As a consequence, brand-name products generally neither offer higher quality nor sell at higher prices. Paradoxically, brand names are a bigger marketing advantage than ever.
Which of the following, if true, most helps to resolve he paradox outlined above?
A Brand names are taken by consumers as a guarantee of getting a product as good as the best rival product.
Brand names are a bigger marketing advantage than ever – now marketing advantage is from the point of the sellers and not the consumers. What could be the marketing advantage? 1. Higher price which may translate to higher profits. 2. Higher sales. Why is there a paradox? The paradox is that branded products don’t sell at higher prices – so what is the marketing advantage. The choice which offers a marketing advantage will help resolve this paradox. Choice “a” offers that advantage in the fprm of customer trust that may lead to higher sales.
Question 7
Read the following short passages and answer the questions that follow each passage.
The extent to which a society is really free can be gauged by its attitude towards artistic expression. Freedom of expression can easily be violated in even most outwardly democratic of societies. When a government’s Arts Council withholds funding from a dance performance that its members deem “obscene”, the voice of a few bureaucrats have in fact censored the work of the choreographer, thereby committing the real obscenity of repression.
The extent to which a society is really free can be gauged by its attitude towards artistic expression. Freedom of expression can easily be violated in even most outwardly democratic of societies. When a government’s Arts Council withholds funding from a dance performance that its members deem “obscene”, the voice of a few bureaucrats have in fact censored the work of the choreographer, thereby committing the real obscenity of repression.
C Withholding financial support for a performance is not the same as actively preventing or inhibiting it.
Choice “c” is the correct answer as the Council is not prohibiting access to all the sources of funding. The organizers can reach out to other channels of funding. The council may be governed by some ideas/norms (which again in a free society it is free to follow) and this performance may be against those norms. So just by not funding it itself it is not completely preventing it or inhibiting it.
Question 8
Read the following short passages and answer the questions that follow each passage.
It is not generally realized than when a court upholds or invalidates legislation or executive action, it neither approves nor condemns any legislative action. It merely determines whether the legislation or executive action is in conformity with or contrary to the provisions of the Constitution. It discharges the function of guarding the Constitution, no more, no less. Judicial activism is to be properly understood in the context of the extent and the vigour and the readiness with which the courts exercise their power of judicial review. When courts actively perform an interventionist role, we witness the phenomenon of judicial activism. When the judiciary exercises self-restraint in exercising the power of judicial review and limits its role, there is absence of judicial activism. But the pendulum of judicial review is never static and judicial activism, or lack of it, is a variable phenomenon.
Which one of the following, if true, would defeat the case presented above?
It is not generally realized than when a court upholds or invalidates legislation or executive action, it neither approves nor condemns any legislative action. It merely determines whether the legislation or executive action is in conformity with or contrary to the provisions of the Constitution. It discharges the function of guarding the Constitution, no more, no less. Judicial activism is to be properly understood in the context of the extent and the vigour and the readiness with which the courts exercise their power of judicial review. When courts actively perform an interventionist role, we witness the phenomenon of judicial activism. When the judiciary exercises self-restraint in exercising the power of judicial review and limits its role, there is absence of judicial activism. But the pendulum of judicial review is never static and judicial activism, or lack of it, is a variable phenomenon.
Which one of the following, if true, would defeat the case presented above?
B Often, the judiciary is seen to be making disparaging remarks about the executive, pulling up officials for lapses in conduct, many a time condemning them.
Option choice “c” and “d” are easy to eliminate as they state what is mentioned in the passage. Choice “b” comes close to the choice as these actions may be taken as actions which may be taken not to safeguard the constitution.
Question 9
Read the following short passages and answer the questions that follow each passage.
Traditionally, decision-making by managers that is reasoned and step-by-step has been considered preferable to intuitive decision-making. However, a recent study found that top managers used intuition significantly more than did most middle or lower-level managers. This confirms the alternative view that intuition is actually more effective than careful, methodical reasoning.
The conclusion above is based on which of the following assumptions?
Traditionally, decision-making by managers that is reasoned and step-by-step has been considered preferable to intuitive decision-making. However, a recent study found that top managers used intuition significantly more than did most middle or lower-level managers. This confirms the alternative view that intuition is actually more effective than careful, methodical reasoning.
The conclusion above is based on which of the following assumptions?
D Top managers are more effective at decision-making than middle or lower-level managers.
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So in the argument the link between top managers and intuition and between intuition and more effective is established. However, the missing link is between top managers and effective.
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Only when it is known that top managers are effective can the conclusion that intuition is more effective be drawn. Hence choice “d” is the correct answer.
Question 10
Read the following short passages and answer the questions that follow each passage.
Banker: By transferring income to a retirement account at our bank, people can save money by delaying payment of taxes.
Accountant: That plan won’t actually save money because the taxes will have to be paid sometime in the future when the money is withdrawn.
Which one of the following best explains the conflict between the Banker and the Accountant?
Banker: By transferring income to a retirement account at our bank, people can save money by delaying payment of taxes.
Accountant: That plan won’t actually save money because the taxes will have to be paid sometime in the future when the money is withdrawn.
Which one of the following best explains the conflict between the Banker and the Accountant?
C The Banker and the Accountant disagree on the application of the term “save”.
For the banker if a payment is delayed to a future date it is a saving made, however, for the accountant if the payment is to be made in future it is not savings. Hence , they disagree on the application of the term “save”.
Question 11
Which of the following combinations of person and mode is not correct?
D E – Aeroplane
Using clues (iii) and (iv) we get the table as shown below:-
Now, we can see that A would have travelled by bus. Using clue v, we can infer that A would not have travelled to Delhi or Chennai. Also using clue ii, we can conclude that D (travelled in a boat) would not have travelled to Delhi. The updated table will look like as shown below:-
Now, A could have travelled only to Hyderabad. Delhi only by E and D would have travelled to Chennai. The final table is shown below:-
E used train, therefore, option “d” is incorrect.
Now, we can see that A would have travelled by bus. Using clue v, we can infer that A would not have travelled to Delhi or Chennai. Also using clue ii, we can conclude that D (travelled in a boat) would not have travelled to Delhi. The updated table will look like as shown below:-
Now, A could have travelled only to Hyderabad. Delhi only by E and D would have travelled to Chennai. The final table is shown below:-
E used train, therefore, option “d” is incorrect.
Question 12
Which of the following combination is true for A?
C Hyderabad – Bus
A went to Hyderabad by bus.
Question 13
Which of the following combinations of place and mode is not correct?
A Hyderabad – Train
Hyderabad is in a bus so option “a” is incorrect.
Question 14
The person travelling to Hyderabad went by which of the following modes?
B Bus
Hyderabad is in a bus so option “b” is correct.
Question 15
Who among the following travelled to Delhi?
C E
E travelled to Delhi so option “c” is correct.
Question 16
If W is parallel to U and W is ½ km south of V and 1 km north of T, then which two streets would be 1 & ½ km apart?
A U and W
There are two possible correct answers to this question – “a” and “c”. As per the official key “a” is the correct answer.
First let us get the diagrammatic representation of all the clues –
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Now using the additional information given for this question we will get a figure as shown below:-
As could be seen from the figure both U and W and V and T are 1 and ½ km apart. The correct answer as per the official key was “a”.
First let us get the diagrammatic representation of all the clues –
Now using the additional information given for this question we will get a figure as shown below:-
As could be seen from the figure both U and W and V and T are 1 and ½ km apart. The correct answer as per the official key was “a”.
Question 17
Which of the following possibilities would make two streets coincide?
D R is ½ km east of O
Using option “d” we can see that streets P and R will coincide.
First let us get the diagrammatic representation of all the clues –
Now using option “d” we can see that streets P and R will coincide.
First let us get the diagrammatic representation of all the clues –
Now using option “d” we can see that streets P and R will coincide.
Question 18
Street R is between O and P, then the distance between P and Q is
D 1.25 km
Using the additional information provided in the question we will get the figure as shown below:-
Question 19
R is between O and P, then which of the following is false?
B P is less than 1 km km from Q
Using the additional information provided in the question we will get the figure as shown below:-
Since we know that distance between PQ is 1.25 km, choice “b” is incorrect.
Question 20
Which of the following is necessarily true?
C Y is 1.5 km north of X
Clues v and vi make choice “c” necessarily true.
Question 21
What is the profession of H?
D Nurse
In this question we have assumed that H will be nurse as the students are likely to be in the third generation and also since there was no choice as data insufficient.
Question 22
Who is the husband of H?
A I
I is the husband of H.
Question 23
Which of the following are two married couples?
B MK, IH
The two married couples are MK and IH.
Question 24
Who is the sister of L?
D Information insufficient
Since we don’t know the gender of J the apt answer is choice “d”.
Question 25
If Saturday falls four days after today, which is 6th January, on what day did the 1st of December of previous year fall?
B Monday
4 days after 6th January is Saturday. So 10th of January is a Saturday. From 1st December to 10th Jan there are a total of 40 days which means 40/7 = 5 (remainder) extra days. So whatever day 1st December was plus 5 becomes Saturday. So 1st December would have been Saturday – 5 = Monday.
Question 26
A what angle the hands of a clock are inclined when it is half past 8 ?
C 75<sup>o</sup>
Hour hands would have covered an angle of 255 degrees. (8 hours plus 30 minutes) x 0.5 degrees per minute. 510 x 0.5 = 255 degrees.
Minute hand would have covered an angle of 180 degrees. 30 minutes x 6 degrees per minute. 30 x 6 = 180 degrees.
So, the angle between these two hands will be 255 – 180 = 75 degrees.
For theory on clocks you may connect with us at www.eptitude.co.in.
Minute hand would have covered an angle of 180 degrees. 30 minutes x 6 degrees per minute. 30 x 6 = 180 degrees.
So, the angle between these two hands will be 255 – 180 = 75 degrees.
For theory on clocks you may connect with us at www.eptitude.co.in.
Question 27
Find the missing numbers in following series.
3, 20, 63, 144, 275, ?
3, 20, 63, 144, 275, ?
A 468
12 x 3 = 3, 22 x 5 = 20, 32 x 7 = 63, 42 x 9 = 144, 52 x 11 = 275, 62 x 13 = 468.
Alternatively you may use two level differences to figure out the answer.
The second level difference starts with 26 and then the difference increases with +12.
Alternatively you may use two level differences to figure out the answer.
The second level difference starts with 26 and then the difference increases with +12.
Question 28
Find the missing numbers in following series.
113, ?, 164, 215, 283, 368
113, ?, 164, 215, 283, 368
B 130
The difference between 164 and 215 is that of 51 and this increases by 17 for the next value. So the next term is 215 + 68 (51 +17). The next term is 283 + 85 (68 + 17). By the same logic the term before 164 will be 164 – 34(51 – 17) = 130.
Question 29
Find the missing letters in following series.
AYBZC, DWEXF, GUHVI, ?, MQNRO
AYBZC, DWEXF, GUHVI, ?, MQNRO
C JSKTL
AYBZC – Within this term there are two alternate series – A + 1 = B, B + 1 = C. Even series starts with Y and then it becomes Y + 1 = Z.
The first letter of the next term is the first letter of the first term +3. So the first letter of the next term is A + 3 = D.
By the logic the first letter of the missing term will be G + 3 = J. So the letters of this term will be J _ K(J+1), _, L(K+1). Only choice “c” has these values and is the correct answer.
The first letter of the next term is the first letter of the first term +3. So the first letter of the next term is A + 3 = D.
By the logic the first letter of the missing term will be G + 3 = J. So the letters of this term will be J _ K(J+1), _, L(K+1). Only choice “c” has these values and is the correct answer.
Question 30
Find the missing letters in following series.
Z1A, X2D, V6G, T21J, R88M, ?
Z1A, X2D, V6G, T21J, R88M, ?
D P445P
Question 31
X’s sister had arranged for her husband’s fatal accident.
D If the statement either supports or weakens a possible explanation of the result.
This was an extremely vague and subjective set. If there is negative marking in the paper we suggest selective approach in such types of sets. The option choices given makes the set even more complicated. So if a statement gives an explanation to the result how does one decide whether to mark “b” or “d”. As per us “d” could be marked only when the statements weakens the argument like Statement: X committed a major blunder in one of recent assignment, an assignment which of great military importance. For the questions we are giving the answers as were stated in the official answer key.
Question 32
X’s sister was an operative in the Kapistan Secret Police, and her husband had been acting as a spy before his death.
B If the statement present a possible adequate explanation of the result.
This was an extremely vague and subjective set. If there is negative marking in the paper we suggest selective approach in such types of sets. The option choices given makes the set even more complicated. So if a statement gives an explanation to the result how does one decide whether to mark “b” or “d”. As per us “d” could be marked only when the statements weakens the argument like Statement: X committed a major blunder in one of recent assignment, an assignment which of great military importance. For the questions we are giving the answers as were stated in the official answer key.
Question 33
X’s promotion and reassignment to the Kosco Army Headquarters came as a result of Y’s recommendations.
A If the statement is inconsistent with, or contradicts, the fact situation, the result, or both together. If so Choose (a).
This was an extremely vague and subjective set. If there is negative marking in the paper we suggest selective approach in such types of sets. The option choices given makes the set even more complicated. So if a statement gives an explanation to the result how does one decide whether to mark “b” or “d”. As per us “d” could be marked only when the statements weakens the argument like Statement: X committed a major blunder in one of recent assignment, an assignment which of great military importance. For the questions we are giving the answers as were stated in the official answer key.
Question 34
For X, a missile base is a more highly prized assignment than a supply depot.
C If the statement is deducible from something in the fact-situation, or the result, or both together.
This was an extremely vague and subjective set. If there is negative marking in the paper we suggest selective approach in such types of sets. The option choices given makes the set even more complicated. So if a statement gives an explanation to the result how does one decide whether to mark “b” or “d”. As per us “d” could be marked only when the statements weakens the argument like Statement: X committed a major blunder in one of recent assignment, an assignment which of great military importance. For the questions we are giving the answers as were stated in the official answer key.
Question 35
X’s failure to win a promotion for eight years was the result of the clerical error in his records.
B If the statement present a possible adequate explanation of the result.
This was an extremely vague and subjective set. If there is negative marking in the paper we suggest selective approach in such types of sets. The option choices given makes the set even more complicated. So if a statement gives an explanation to the result how does one decide whether to mark “b” or “d”. As per us “d” could be marked only when the statements weakens the argument like Statement: X committed a major blunder in one of recent assignment, an assignment which of great military importance. For the questions we are giving the answers as were stated in the official answer key.
Section: MATHEMATICS
Question 1
A die is rolled twice. What is the probability that sum of the numbers on the two faces is 5?
B 1/9
Clearly on two throws of a dice the total possibilities are 6 x 6 = 36.
Now to get a sum of 5, the possible cases are 1+4, 4+1, 2+3, 3+2 i.e. four favourable cases.
So, probability = Favourable cases/Possible cases = 4/36 = 1/9
Now to get a sum of 5, the possible cases are 1+4, 4+1, 2+3, 3+2 i.e. four favourable cases.
So, probability = Favourable cases/Possible cases = 4/36 = 1/9
Question 2
Twenty five workers were employed to complete a compound wall in 12 days. Five workers left after working for 4 days. The remaining 20 workers completed the work. In how many days the total job was completed?
C 14 days
Let work done by 1 worker in 1 day be 1 unit.
Then Total Work = Work done by 25 workers in 12 days = 25 x 12 = 300 units
Now, work done by 25 workers in the first 4 days = 25 x 4 = 100 units
i.e. work left now = 300 – 100 = 200
Since 5 workers leave, work done by remaining 20 workers in N days = work left = 200
i.e. 20 x N = 200 or N = 10 days
Hence total time taken = 4 + 10 = 14 days
Then Total Work = Work done by 25 workers in 12 days = 25 x 12 = 300 units
Now, work done by 25 workers in the first 4 days = 25 x 4 = 100 units
i.e. work left now = 300 – 100 = 200
Since 5 workers leave, work done by remaining 20 workers in N days = work left = 200
i.e. 20 x N = 200 or N = 10 days
Hence total time taken = 4 + 10 = 14 days
Question 3
In a garden, there are 8 rows and 10 columns of papaya trees. The distance between the two trees is 2 metres and a distance of one metre is left from all sides of the boundary of the garden. The length of the garden is
B 14 metres
There are 8 rows so there will be 7 spaces (of 2 metres each) between each row, besides a 1 metre space at the two ends. So width = 7 x 2 + 2 = 16 metres
Similarly there are 10 columns, so there will be 9 spaces (of 2 metres each) between each column, and a 1 metre space at the two ends. So, length = 9 x 2 + 2 = 20 metres
Similarly there are 10 columns, so there will be 9 spaces (of 2 metres each) between each column, and a 1 metre space at the two ends. So, length = 9 x 2 + 2 = 20 metres
Question 4
A man can row 14 km/h in still water. In the stream flowing with the speed of 10 km/h he takes 4 hours to move with the stream and come back. Find the distance he rowed the boat.
B 13.71 km
Boat’s speed = 14 km/hr and Current’s speed = 10 km/hr
Hence effective speed upstream = 14 – 10 = 4 km/hr
And effective speed downstream = 14 + 10 = 24 km/hr
Now, the same distance (say D km) is travelled in both directions i.e. upstream and downstream.
Hence time taken upstream = D/4 hours
And time taken downstream = D/24 hours
So, total time = D/4 + D/24 = 4
i.e. 7D/24 = 4 or D = 96/7 = 13.71 km
Hence effective speed upstream = 14 – 10 = 4 km/hr
And effective speed downstream = 14 + 10 = 24 km/hr
Now, the same distance (say D km) is travelled in both directions i.e. upstream and downstream.
Hence time taken upstream = D/4 hours
And time taken downstream = D/24 hours
So, total time = D/4 + D/24 = 4
i.e. 7D/24 = 4 or D = 96/7 = 13.71 km
Question 5
What will be the difference in simple and compound interest on Rs. 2,000 after three years at the rate of 10 percent per annum?
C Rs. 62
SI for 3 years = 2000 x 10 x 3/100 = Rs. 600
CI for 3 years = 2000 x (1 + 10/100)3 – 2000 = 2000 x 1.13 – 2000
= 2000 x (1.331 – 1) = 2000 x 0.331 = Rs. 662
Hence difference = CI – SI = 662 – 600 = Rs. 62
CI for 3 years = 2000 x (1 + 10/100)3 – 2000 = 2000 x 1.13 – 2000
= 2000 x (1.331 – 1) = 2000 x 0.331 = Rs. 662
Hence difference = CI – SI = 662 – 600 = Rs. 62
Question 6
A man covers a certain distance between his house and office on a Scooter. Having an average speed of 30 km/hr, he reaches office late by 10 minutes. However, with a speed of 40 km/hr, he reaches his office 5 minutes earlier. The distance between his house and office is
A 30 km
Let the usual time taken at a speed of S km/hr be T minutes.
Then, time taken at 30 km/hr = (T + 10) minutes.
And, time taken at 40 km/hr = (T – 5) minutes.
Also, the same distance is travelled between his house and office.
Hence D = S x T/60 = 30 x (T + 10)/60 = 40 x (T – 5)/60
i.e. 30(T + 10) = 40(T – 5)
i.e. 30T + 300 = 40T – 200
i.e. 10T = 500 or T = 50 minutes
Hence D = 30 x (50 + 10)/60 = 30 kms
Then, time taken at 30 km/hr = (T + 10) minutes.
And, time taken at 40 km/hr = (T – 5) minutes.
Also, the same distance is travelled between his house and office.
Hence D = S x T/60 = 30 x (T + 10)/60 = 40 x (T – 5)/60
i.e. 30(T + 10) = 40(T – 5)
i.e. 30T + 300 = 40T – 200
i.e. 10T = 500 or T = 50 minutes
Hence D = 30 x (50 + 10)/60 = 30 kms
Question 7
A box contains Rs. 56 in the form of coins of one rupee, 50 paisa and 25 paisa. The number of 50 paisa coins is double the number of 25 paisa coins and four times the number of one rupee coins. The number of 50 paisa coin in the box is
D 64
Let the number of 1 rupee, 50 paisa and 25 paisa coins be A, B and C respectively.
Then, B = 2C = 4A
i.e. C = B/2 and A = B/4
Also, total money = Rs. 56 = 5600 paisa
i.e. A x 100 + B x 50 + C x 25 = 5600
i.e. 100 x (B/4) + 50B + 25 x (B/2) = 5600
i.e. 175B/2 = 5600
i.e. B = 5600 x 2/175 = 64
Then, B = 2C = 4A
i.e. C = B/2 and A = B/4
Also, total money = Rs. 56 = 5600 paisa
i.e. A x 100 + B x 50 + C x 25 = 5600
i.e. 100 x (B/4) + 50B + 25 x (B/2) = 5600
i.e. 175B/2 = 5600
i.e. B = 5600 x 2/175 = 64
Question 8
The price of 7 bananas is equal to the cost of 3 kiwis. The price of 2 kiwis is equal to the cost of 1 banana and 5 chikoos. If Rambo has just enough money to buy 30 chikoos, then how many bananas Rambo could buy with the same amount?
A 22
Let the price of a banana, kiwi and chikoo be Rs. B, Rs. K and Rs. C respectively.
Then, 7B = 3K and 2K = B + 5C
i.e. 14B = 6K and 6K = 3B + 15C
On equating: 14B = 3B + 15C
i.e. 11B = 15C
i.e. 22B = 30C
This means that in the same money, Rambo can buy 30 chikoos or 22 bananas.
Then, 7B = 3K and 2K = B + 5C
i.e. 14B = 6K and 6K = 3B + 15C
On equating: 14B = 3B + 15C
i.e. 11B = 15C
i.e. 22B = 30C
This means that in the same money, Rambo can buy 30 chikoos or 22 bananas.
Question 9
In a certain class, 72% of the students prefer cold coffee and 44% prefer fruit juice. If each of them prefers cold coffee or fruit juice and 48 likes both, the total number of students in the class is
C 300
Cold Coffee = 72%
Fruit juice = 44%
Let % who prefer both beverages = B%
Also each of them prefers one of these beverages:
i.e. Cold Coffee U Fruit Juice = 100%
i.e. 72% + 44% - B% = 100%
i.e. B = 16%
i.e. 16% of students like both = 48 students
i.e. 16/100 x Total students = 48
i.e. Total students = 48 x 100/16 = 300
Fruit juice = 44%
Let % who prefer both beverages = B%
Also each of them prefers one of these beverages:
i.e. Cold Coffee U Fruit Juice = 100%
i.e. 72% + 44% - B% = 100%
i.e. B = 16%
i.e. 16% of students like both = 48 students
i.e. 16/100 x Total students = 48
i.e. Total students = 48 x 100/16 = 300
Question 10
The average price of 10 pens is Rs. 12 while the average price of 8 of these pens is Rs. 11.75. Of the remaining two pens, if the price of one pen is 60% more than the price of the other, what is the price of each of these two pens?
D Rs. 10, Rs. 16
Average price of 10 pens = Rs. 12
i.e. Total Price of 10 pens = 12 x 10 = Rs. 120
Also, average price of 8 pens = Rs. 11.75
So Total price of 8 pens = 11.75 x 8 = Rs. 94
On subtracting we can see:
Price of remaining 2 pens = 120 – 94 = Rs. 26
Let price of 1 pen be Rs. P; then price of other pen = P + 60% of P = 1.6P
Hence, P + 1.6P = 26
i.e. P = 26/2.6 = Rs. 10
i.e. price of the two pens is Rs. 10 and Rs. 16 respectively.
i.e. Total Price of 10 pens = 12 x 10 = Rs. 120
Also, average price of 8 pens = Rs. 11.75
So Total price of 8 pens = 11.75 x 8 = Rs. 94
On subtracting we can see:
Price of remaining 2 pens = 120 – 94 = Rs. 26
Let price of 1 pen be Rs. P; then price of other pen = P + 60% of P = 1.6P
Hence, P + 1.6P = 26
i.e. P = 26/2.6 = Rs. 10
i.e. price of the two pens is Rs. 10 and Rs. 16 respectively.
