CLAT 2011 Question Paper With Solution




Section: Verbal Ability

Question 1
Which of the following statements can most reasonably be inferred from the information available in the passage:
AP.C. Mahalanobis believed in empowering private entrepreneurs and promoting free market.
BPhillip Spratt preferred plans that would create economic conditions favourable for a forward march by the private enterprise.
CRestrictions on free markets enriched large Indian companies.
DPhilip Spratt opposed the devaluation of rupee in 1966.
B Phillip Spratt preferred plans that would create economic conditions favourable for a forward march by the private enterprise.
Shroff and Philip Sprat have been mentioned in the passage as advocates of free enterprise. “At the same time as Shroff, but independently of him, a journalist named Philip Spratt was writing a series of essays in favour of free enterprise”. This makes “b” the correct answer.
Question 2
Which of the following statements is least likely to be inferred from the passage:
AAcceptance of A.D. Shroff's plans in the official circles smothered free enterprise in India.
BThe views of the Forum of Free Enterprise ran against the conception of development then prevalent among the policy makers.
CA.D. Shroff believed that state should actively support the private sector.
DPhilip Sprxtt had been educated in Cambridge.
A Acceptance of A.D. Shroff's plans in the official circles smothered free enterprise in India.
A.D. Shroff's plans were not accepted in the official circles.
Question 3
Select the statement that best captures the central purpose of this passage:
AHighlight that even though there were advocates for free-market and private enterprise in the early years of independent India, they were crowded out by others who supported a dominant role for state over private enterprise.
BExplain the politics behind Indira Gandhi's decision to nationalise the banks.
CDemonstrate with the help of statistics how the preference of policy makers for Soviet-style economic policies prevented India's economic growth.
DEstablish that devaluation of rupee in 1966 was vindicated by subsequent experience.
A Highlight that even though there were advocates for free-market and private enterprise in the early years of independent India, they were crowded out by others who supported a dominant role for state over private enterprise.
The passage talks about the advocates who were in favor of free enterprise and also about the system, politicians and their economic policies that were not 'pro free-enterprise'.
Question 4
Philip Spratt came to India because he:
AFell in love with an Indian women
BWanted [o protest against the economic policies of the Indian government.
CWas offered the editorship of <em>Mysindia</em>.
DHad been instructed to work towards the goal of inciting a revolution in India.
D Had been instructed to work towards the goal of inciting a revolution in India.
“Spratt was a Cambridge communist who was sent by the party in 1920s to foment revolution in the subcontinent”.
Question 5
The author avers that A.D Shroffs ideas were somewhat at odds with the views of Planning Commission because:
AA.D. Shroff was in favour of rigid governmental control over all economic activities.
BShroff had opposed government’s decision to devalue Indian rupee.
CThe hostility of the government to private entrepreneurs was complained against by A.D. Shroff.
DShroff had been critical of the influence of Soviet academicians over India's economic policy.
C The hostility of the government to private entrepreneurs was complained against by A.D. Shroff.
“Shroff complained against the 'indifference, if not discouragement' with which the state treated entrepreneurs”.
Question 6
The ideological shift of Philip Spratt to the right was caused by:
AThe demise of the Soviet Union.
BThe start of the weekly called MysIndia.
CThe books that he encountered in the prison.
DThe dissolution of his first marriage to his college friend.
C The books that he encountered in the prison.
“The books he read in the prison, and his marriage to an Indian woman afterwards, inspired a steady move rightwards”.
Question 7
Select the statement that could be most plausibly inferred from this passage:
APhilip Spratt and A.D. Shroff were members of the Forum for Free Enterprise.
BThe first two Five Year Plans emphasised on the importance of private enterprise as the spearhead of economic growth.
CP.C. Mahalanobis had mooted the expulsion of foreign firms like Coca Cola and IBM from India.
DThe hopes that the licensing regime would be liberalized after the devaluation of Indian rupee were belied in the aftermath of the split in the Congress Party.
D The hopes that the licensing regime would be liberalized after the devaluation of Indian rupee were belied in the aftermath of the split in the Congress Party.
“After the rupee was devalued in 1966, there were some moves towards freeing the trade regime, and hopes that the licensing system would also be liberalized. However, after Indira Gandhi split the Congress Party in 1969, her government took its `left turn', nationalizing a fresh range of industries and returning to economic autarky”. The hopes were shattered, so “d” is the correct answer.
Question 8
The author alludes to nationalization of industries in 1969 in order to:
AShow the contradictions between AD Shroff's economic views and the official economic policies of the Government of India.
BExemplify the shift of the Indira Gandhi led government to the `left'
CDemonstrate the ideological changes in the worldview of Philip Spratt.
DHighlight the negative political repercussions of the decision to devalue the Indian currency.
B Exemplify the shift of the Indira Gandhi led government to the `left'
However, after Indira Gandhi split the Congress Party in 1969, her government took its 'left turn', nationalizing a fresh range of industries.
Question 9
"Neither Philip Spratt nor A.D. Shroff ____ able to convince Mahalanobis." Select the most appropriate phrase out of the four options for filling the blank space in the aforesaid sentence.
AWere
BAre
CWas
DIs
C Was
In this case since the noun after nor is singular, the verb that follows it must be singular. So “was” is the correct answer.
Question 10
The word ‘inveighed’ in this passage means:
APraised
BRecited
CProclaimed
DRemonstrated
D Remonstrated
Inveighed means speak or write about (something) with great hostility and is a synonym of remonstrate.
Question 11
Which of the following is the closest description of the central argument of this passage :
AManu Joseph's novel presents a scathing portrayal of Dalits.
BContemporary American literature is very cautious on politically correct representation of minorities.
CThe last two decades have witnessed the rise of a very vibrant Dalit literature.
DPortrayal of Dalits by non-Dalits merely as passive victims has been the dominant norm in Indian literature, cinema and an.
D Portrayal of Dalits by non-Dalits merely as passive victims has been the dominant norm in Indian literature, cinema and an.
The passage mentions that even before Independence up till 1970s the authors imagination seem stuck in the empathy – realism mode – trapping in abjection. They continued with “the broad stereotype of the Dalit as a passive sufferer, without consciousness of caste politics”. In the passage the author also mentions that “we need first to come to terms with the stranglehold of non-Dalit representations of Dalits”. From these we can infer “d” as the main idea of the passage.
Question 12
According to this passage, Premchand and Mulk Raj Anand:
APresented a stereotyped version of Dalit characters in their writings.
BExcelled in writing satires on social inequality.
CWere politically opposed to the views of B.R. Ambedkar.
DWere closely involved with the leadership of the nationalist movement.
A Presented a stereotyped version of Dalit characters in their writings.
The answer is in the last paragraph – “predecessors like Mulk Raj Anand and Premchand” and “continues the broad stereotype of the Dalit as a passive sufferer”.
Question 13
The writer refers to the 'anti-reservation discourse' in order to argue that:
ADalit literature has had a very dif6cultjoumey since its origins.
BManu Joseph is viscerally opposed to Dalits.
CPersons belonging to the upper castes are inherently indifferent to routine violence against Dalits.
DIndian society is not yet ready to equitably share, on its own, social, cultural and political space with Dalits.
D Indian society is not yet ready to equitably share, on its own, social, cultural and political space with Dalits.
“In a society that is inherently indifferent to the everyday violence against Dalits, in a society unwilling to share social and cultural resources equitably with Dalits unless mandated by law (as seen in the anti-reservation discourse)”.
Question 14
Which of the following statements is least likely to be inferred from this passage:
AThe author of Serious Men has used the literary device of satire to present an unflattering picture of women characters.
BIssues of representation of minorities have been debated extensively in American literature.
CThe writer of this passage believes that engagement with Dalits is necessary only because such engagement affirms the importance of identity politics.
DThe writer believes that Rohinton Mistry presented a stereotypical representation of Dal its character in his book.
C The writer of this passage believes that engagement with Dalits is necessary only because such engagement affirms the importance of identity politics.
As per the author – “we must engage with what Dalits are writing-not simply for reasons of authenticity, or as a concession to identity politics” – so “c” is not the only reason; further on in the sentence, the author cites two reasons as to why one should engage with Dalit literature.
Question 15
According to the information available in the passage, the writer attributes the prevalence of representation of Dalits by non-Dalits in literature, art and media to:
AThe nationalist understanding of Indian history.
BMarginalisation of B.R Ambedkar from nationalist movement.
CThe anti-reservation discourse
DBrahminical control over cultural production.
D Brahminical control over cultural production.
The line “unquestioned predominance of a Brahminical stranglehold over cultural production-have led us to a place where non-Dalit portrayal of Dalits in literature, cinema and art remains the norm” in the second paragraph makes “d” the best answer.
Question 16
Which of the following is not among the reasons suggested by the writer for engaging with Dalit writing:
ADalit literature has the potential to sensitize non-Dalits about the experiences of the former.
BDalit writing is more authentic than representation of Dalits by non-Dalits.
CDalit literature does not have the support of numbers.
DThe aesthetic value of Dalit writing.
B Dalit writing is more authentic than representation of Dalits by non-Dalits.
“we must engage with what Dalits are writing-not simply for reasons of authenticity”.
Question 17
Which of the following statement cannot be inferred from the passage:
AUpper-castes have dominated the instruments of cultural production in Indian society.
BIndian society is unwilling to recognise Dalits as equal, rights-bearing human beings.
CDalit writers have carved out a space for writings on Dalit experience and world view.
DThe judiciary in India, in its opposition to reservation, has betrayed its unwillingness to acknowledge Dalits as equal bearer of rights.
D The judiciary in India, in its opposition to reservation, has betrayed its unwillingness to acknowledge Dalits as equal bearer of rights.
The attitude of judiciary (whether positive or negative) towards acknowledgement of Dalits as equal bearer of rights has not been mentioned in the passage.
Question 18
The writer of this passage is critical of Rohinton Mistry's A Fine Balance for the reason that:
AIt is an example of a book on Dalit characters by a Non-Dalit.
BThe book suggests that Dalits are nothing more than passive sufferers without any agency.
CThe book ignores the everyday violence that Dalits have to confront with.
DIt bares the passive literary style of the author, Rohinton Mistry.
B The book suggests that Dalits are nothing more than passive sufferers without any agency.
Last paragraph - “continues the broad stereotype of the Dalit as a passive sufferer”.
Question 19
Which of the following words would be the best substitute for the word 'sly' in this passage:
ABright
Bwise
Cdevious
Ddim
C devious
The word 'sly' means having or showing a cunning and deceitful nature. Deceitful is a synonym of the word sly.
Question 20
"It is not as if Dalit movements ______ not active during the periods that form A Fine Balance's backdrop." Select the most appropriate choice to fill in the blank in the above sentence:
Ais
Bwas
Cwere
Dare
C were
'Movements' is plural and will be followed by were.
Question 21
Which of the following statements is least likely to be inferred from the passage:
AYounger generations of Indians are more tolerant of foreign scribes who write about their country.
BThe writer believes that a section of Indian intelligentsia is very hostile to upward economic mobility.
CMr. William Dalrymple has been accused of recolonising India through his writings.
DMost of the criticism that has been recently directed at Patrick French has emphasized mainly on the writer's underwhelming literary style.
D Most of the criticism that has been recently directed at Patrick French has emphasized mainly on the writer's underwhelming literary style.
In the first paragraph the author states “In recent weeks, the writers William Dalrymple and Patrick French, among others, have come before a fusillade of criticism in India, much of it questioning not their facts, not their interpretations, but their foreignness” – from this it is least likely to infer that they were criticized for their literary style.
Question 22
Which of the following would be the best substitute for the word, `fusillade' in the passage?
ABarrage
BBreach
CTemper
DRow
A Barrage
Fusillade means a series of shots fired or missiles thrown all at the same time or in quick succession. The synonym of fusillade is barrage.
Question 23
The writer uses the phrase, 'who-gets-to-write-about-India contingent' in this passage to refer to:
AForeign writers who have written books on India.
BCritics who have attacked foreign writers writing on India for their mere foreignness.
CElite residents of South Delhi and South Bombay.
DCultural pluralists.
B Critics who have attacked foreign writers writing on India for their mere foreignness.
From the opening paragraph and the phrase 'who-gets-to-write-about-India contingent' we can infer that the author is referring to the critics who have attacked foreign writers writing on India for their mere foreignness.
Question 24
The writer believes that the most peculiar aspect of the criticisms that Patrick French and William Dalrymple have received is that:
AMost such condemnation has emerged from elite Indians.
BSuch critics are hostile to upward immobility.
CThese censures are not centered on the books of such writers or their literary styles but are targeted at their identity instead.
DThese critics ignore the plural ethos of India.
C These censures are not centered on the books of such writers or their literary styles but are targeted at their identity instead.
“In recent weeks, the writers William Dalrymple and Patrick French, among others, have come before a fusillade of criticism in India, much of it questioning not their facts, not their interpretations, but their foreignness”.
“In the case of Mr. Dalrymple, a Briton who lives in New Delhi, it is - in the critics' view- that his writing is an act of re-colonization. In the case of Mr. French, it is that he belongs to a group of foreign writers who use business-class lounges and see some merit in capitalism and therefore do not know the real India, which only the commentariat member in question does”.
From the above lines it clear that our answer is “c”. However CLAT answer key has given “d” as the correct answer.
Question 25
Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
AAscriptive identities like caste, tribe, etc. are becoming more and more important with the passage of time.
BPatrick French believes that the new market friendly economic policies followed for the last decades have resulted in the rise of tawdry capitalism and rapacious imperialism.
CThe writer is of the opinion that a section of the intelligentsia is divorced from the views of their compatriots.
DWhile India has historically been very hospitable to a variety of religions, it has not been equally open to linguistic foreigners.
B Patrick French believes that the new market friendly economic policies followed for the last decades have resulted in the rise of tawdry capitalism and rapacious imperialism.
From the lines “As Mr. French has observed…….. When the new economy lifts up the huddled masses, then it becomes tawdry capitalism and rapacious imperialism and soulless globalization” – choice “b” can be inferred.
Question 26
According to the information available in the passage, the writer is of the opinion that:
AWriters like Patrick French do not know the real India.
BMost of the condemnation heaped on Dalrymple, French and himself has been on expected lines.
CIndia's reputation of pluralism is cosmetic at best, one that hides deep rooted hatred towards foreigners.
DThe new generation of Indians have internalized the idea that people should be rewarded for what they do and not who they are.
D The new generation of Indians have internalized the idea that people should be rewarded for what they do and not who they are.
“It is also that at the very heart of India's multifarious changes today is this glimmering idea: that Indians must be rewarded for what they do, not who they are”. To conclude from this that the new generation of Indians have internalized the idea that people should be rewarded for what they do and not who they are, would not be correct but this seems to be the best choice amongst the choices. As per CLAT answer key choice “c” is the correct answer.
Question 27
The writer refers to the history of Hindus, Christians, Jews, Muslims and Buddhists living peaceably together in India for millions of years in order to:
AShow India's openness to foreigners who have visited Indian in the quest for yoga.
BArgue that India is a country of hundreds of dialects.
CDemonstrate the religiosity pervading in an average Indian.
DIndia's deep-in the bones pluralism.
D India's deep-in the bones pluralism.
“For critics of this persuasion, India surely seems a lonely land. A country with a millennial historv of Hindus, Christians, Jews, Muslims and Buddhists living peaceably together; a country of hundreds.of dialects in which so many Indians are linguistic foreigners to each other, and happily, tolerantly so;”
The author use these lines to demonstrate the deep rooted pluralism of India.
Question 28
The writer argues that the nature of criticism he, Dalrymple and French have received for their books renders reading their books superfluous because:
ASuch criticism has been limited to a very small minority of Indians.
BThese writers are popular among Indian youth, even among those who have not read their books.
CThe literary styles of these writers are not the sole focus of such criticism.
DSuch criticism is less about what has been written in their books than about who can write on India.
D Such criticism is less about what has been written in their books than about who can write on India.
Consider the line “(His review was not about the book but about his refusal to read the book.) The book is not necessary in these cases, for the argument is about who can write about India, not what has been written” – from these lines choice “d” is the correct answer.
Question 29
According to the passage, the question `who gets to write about India' is complicated because:
AIndia has been historically open to and tolerant of foreign writers and artists.
BThis issue can be satisfactorily resolved only if we can decide who gets to decide who gets to write about India.
CAscriptive identities are becoming more and more important in a globalised world.
DThis would result in a shift of attention from what has been written to who has written.
B This issue can be satisfactorily resolved only if we can decide who gets to decide who gets to write about India.
“It is a complicated question, not least because to decide who gets to write about India, you would need to decide who gets to decide who gets to write about India”. From this “b” is the correct choice. However, as per CLAT’s answer key “d” is the correct answer.
Question 30
"But with many outsiders' India-related books recently hitting bookstores there, the sensitivity - flared into a bout of vigorous literary nativism, with equally vigorous counterpunches." Select the most appropriate choice to fill in the blank in the above sentence:
AHas
BHave
CWas
Ddid
A Has
The subject “sensitivity” is singular and will take a verb in the singular form.
Question 31
Select the statement that can be most plausibly inferred from the aforesaid passage:
AA society plagued by recurrent famines can never witness political revolution.
BReligious discrimination inevitably leads to violence and strife.
CDestitution of the masses leads to peace and social stability.
DFamines and starvation do not necessarily result in political rebellion.
D Famines and starvation do not necessarily result in political rebellion.
In the passage the author has maintained a stance that poverty and inequality may be the reason of violence but need not be the only reason to lead to violence. The author goes on to state that there have been instances when a place hit by famines and poverty experienced the most peaceful time. So “d” is the best choice that can be inferred from the passage.
Question 32
The author believes that it may not be advisable to emphasise on the connection between poverty and violence as:
AEmphasis on such connection appeals only to self-interest of persons.
BLinking poverty and violence undermines the moral character of anti-poverty measures.
CThe absence of any essential connection between poverty and violence may then weaken the very rationale of anti-poverty policies.
DThere is no necessary link between poverty and inequality.
D There is no necessary link between poverty and inequality.
“This is not to deny that poverty and inequality can - and do - have far reaching consequences with conflict and strife, but these connections have to be examined and investigated with appropriate care and empirical scrutiny, rather than being casually invoked with unreasoned rapidity in support of a `good cause."
Choice “c” is also very close but further-on in the passage the author continuously questions the validity of this link and so “d” is a better choice.
Question 33
Which of the following best captures the central argument of this passage:
AReligion is inextricably linked with violence
BFamines may not necessarily result in civil unrest.
CGlobal poverty and inequality are one of the fundamental causes of global violence and strife.
DBasing anti-poverty programmes on the need for avoidance of violence and strife is dotted with many pitfalls.
D Basing anti-poverty programmes on the need for avoidance of violence and strife is dotted with many pitfalls.
The official CLAT answer key has marked “c” as the correct answer but we believe that “d” is the central theme. The author cites many reasons as to why the rationale behind the anti-poverty programs should not be based on the unestablished link between poverty and violence.
Question 34
In the given passage, the word 'perilous' means:
AScared
BCostly
CFutile
DDangerous
D Dangerous
Perilous means full of danger or risk, so “d” is the correct answer.
Question 35
The author refers to his own experience as a child during the Bengal famine of 1943 in order to:
AIllustrate how religiosity may instill passive acceptance of even the worst forms of starvation among people.
BRepudiate the argument that religious discrimination usually tends to inspire violent protests.
CSubstantiate his assertion that it is not unusual to have the most intense suffering and misery co-exist with complete peace.
DDemonstrate that people confronted with acute starvation are rendered too helpless to protest ever at all.
D Demonstrate that people confronted with acute starvation are rendered too helpless to protest ever at all.
Both choices “c” and “d” are close. Consider the line “A starving wretch can be too frail and too dejected to fight and battle, and even to protest and holler”. Though the author mentions about misery and peace co existing, the context in which the author states this is that poverty need not result in violence (protests). Hence, “d” is a better answer.
Question 36
The word 'destitution' in this passage can be best substituted by.
ADejection
BIndigence
CDefault
DDereliction
B Indigence
Destitution means poverty so extreme that one lacks the means to provide for oneself. Indigence is a synonym of destitution.
Question 37
Which of the following statement is least likely to be inferred from the passage:
AHistory is replete with instance of famines that have occurred without there being much violent protest.
BMany writers and critics are increasingly advocating for stronger policies on poverty removal on the ground that this would help prevent political turmoil.
CThe author believes that the links between poverty and violence must never be emphasized at all.
DEconomic debility in turn inhibits political freedom.
C The author believes that the links between poverty and violence must never be emphasized at all.
“must never be emphasized at all” is too extreme and the author did not maintain such an extreme stance. The author advocated that one should be cautious in adopting this approach and also try to empirically establish the relationship between 'poverty & inequality' and violence.
Question 38
The author asserts that basing anti-poverty measures on the avowed connections between poverty and violence has certain apparent benefits because:
APoverty is similar to religious exploitation in terms of the potential violent consequences.
BIt leads to allocation of more resources on anti-poverty policies.
CThe widespread concern about war and violence provides a rationale for poverty removal that appeals to the `self-interest' of persons
DOtherwise, there would not have been the tendency to justify anti-poverty policies on the ground that they prevent political turmoil.
C The widespread concern about war and violence provides a rationale for poverty removal that appeals to the `self-interest' of persons
Based on the following lines in the opening para “Basing public policy - international as well as domestic- on such an understanding has some evident attractions. Given the public anxiety about wars and disorders in the rich countries in the world, the indirect justification of poverty removal - not for its own sake but for the sake of peace and quiet in the world - provides an argument that appeals to self interest for helping the needy. It presents an argument for allocating more resources on poverty removal because of its presumed political, rather than moral, relevance”, we can conclude that “c” is the correct choice.
Question 39
Economic reductionism' in this passage means;
ANeglecting the economic connection between poverty & violence
BExcessive accent on poverty and inequality
CEmphasizing on the linkage between violence, poverty and economic equality.
DThe view that every conflict is caused by underlying economic tensions.
C Emphasizing on the linkage between violence, poverty and economic equality.
The passage’s main theme is the link between poverty & inequality and violence and basing anti-poverty programs around this alleged link. Of the choices “c’ best explains the meaning of economic reductionism in the context of the passage.
Question 40
"A sense of encroachment, degradation and humiliation can be even easier _ mobilize for rebellion and revolt." Select the most appropriate word out of the four options for filling the blank space in the aforesaid sentence
Afor
Bas
Cinto
Dto
D to
“to” is the appropriate preposition that must be used in this statement.

Section: Quantitative Aptitude

Question 1
Akbar will turn 50 when his son Jehangir turns 18. What will be Akbar's age when it will be exactly 5 times that of Jehangir?
A36
B40
C44
D48
B 40
Since Akbar was 50 when Jehandir was 18, clearly the difference in the ages = 50 – 18 = 32 years
Using options: Reduce each option by 32 to get Jehangir’s age. See if it is 1/5th of the option value.
Option a: 36 – 32 = 4 ≠ 36/5
Option b: 40 – 32 = 8 = 40/5
Option c: 44 – 32 = 12 ≠ 44/5
Option d: 48 – 32 = 16 ≠ 48/5
Alternatively, we can assume their ages as x years and (32 + x) years respectively when Akbar becomes 5 times as old as Jehangir.
Clearly, 32 + x = 5x
i.e. 32 = 4x or x = 8
Hence Akbar’s age then was 32 + 8 = 40 years
Question 2
Arun can climb a Coconut tree by 1.5 feet by each lift; however he slips 0.5 feet every time he makes the next lift. How many individual lifts he will have to reach the top of the Coconut tree of 18.5 feet?
A20
B19
C18
D17
C 18
Height after 1 lift = 1.5 feet
Height after 2 lifts = 1.5 – 0.5 + 1.5 = 2.5 feet
Height after 3 lifts = 2.5 – 0.5 + 1.5 = 3.5 feet
Clearly this is an Arithmetic progression. Here a = 1.5 and d = 1
Let Height after n lifts be 18.5 feet.
Then, a + (n – 1)d = 18.5
i.e. 1.5 + (n – 1) = 18.5 or n = 18
Question 3
Jogen's taxable income for 2010-11 is Rs. 5,00,000. The tax rates are (i) nil for first 1,50,000, (ii) 10% for 150,001-3,00,000, and (iii) 20% for the remaining. His Tax liability is:
ARs. 45,000
BRs. 50,000
CRs. 55,000
DRs. 60,000
C Rs. 55,000
Jogen’s tax liability = 0 + 10% of (3,00,000 - 1,50,000) + 20% of (5,00,000 – 3,00,000)
= 10/100 x 1,50,000 + 20/100 x 2,00,000 = 15000 + 40000 = Rs. 55,000
Question 4
The ratio of two numbers is 4:5. But, if each number is increased by 20, the ratio becomes 6:7. The sum of such numbers is:
A90
B95
C100
D60
A 90
Let the two numbers be 4a and 5a.
Then, (4a + 20)/(5a + 20) = 6/7
i.e. 7(4a + 20) = 6(5a + 20)
i.e. 28a + 140 = 30a + 120
i.e. 2a = 20 or a = 10
Hence the numbers are initially 40 and 50 i.e. Sum = 90
Question 5
During the academic session 2009-10, in Banaras Hindu University, Varanasi, the number of students studying Arts, Law and Commerce was in the ratio of 5:6:7. If during the academic session 2010-11 the number of students studying Arts, Law and Commerce increased by 20%, 30% and 40% respectively, what will be new ratio?
A26:42:63
B36:44:73
C26:39:49
D30:39:49
D 30:39:49
Let 5a, 6a and 7a be the number of students studying Arts, Law and Commerce in 2009-10.
Then, number of students in Arts in 2010-11 = 120% of 5a = 120/100 x 5a = 6a
Number of students in Law in 2010-11 = 130% of 6a = 130/100 x 6a = 7.8a
Number of students in Commerce in 2010-11 = 140% of 7a = 140/100 x 7a = 9.8a
Hence the new ratio = 6a : 7.8a : 9.8a = 60 : 78 : 98 = 30 : 39 : 49
Question 6
A customised jewellery was sold at Rs. 1000 with 90% discount on the 'making charges. If the payment made for making charges was Rs. 100, what is the approximate rate of discount on the product?
A35
B45
C47
D90
C 47
Let A and B be the initial prices quoted for the jewellery and making charges.
Then, actual making charges = B – 90% of B = 10% of B = 100
So B = 100 x 100/10 = Rs. 1000
Now total payment made = Rs. 1000
So, actual charges for the jewellery (no discount) = A = 1000 – 100 = 900
Now, A = 900 and B = 1000 → Total = Rs. 1900
Actual payment = Rs. 1000
Hence discount received = Rs. 900
Hence % discount = 900/1900 x 100 = 900/19 = 47% approx
Question 7
A man walks from his house to the Railway station to catch a train, which is running as per schedule. If he walks at 6 km/hr, he misses the train by 9 minutes. However, if he walks at 7 km/hr, he reaches the station 6 minutes before the departure of Train. The distance of his home to the Railway Station is:
A2 km
B1.5 km
C1.05 km
D1.25 km
C 1.05 km
The correct option is not there in the options here!!!
Let T minutes be the correct time to catch the train on time.
Then, the man takes (T + 9) minutes at a speed of 6 km/hr.
But D = S x T
i.e. D = 6 x (T + 9)/60 kms
Also, the man takes (T – 6) minutes at a speed of 7 km/hr.
So, D = 7 x (T – 6)/60 kms
Equating the distances:
  • 6(T + 9)/60 = 7(T – 6)/60
  • 6T + 54 = 7T – 42
  • T = 96 minutes
Hence, D = 6 x (96 + 9)/60 = 10.5 kms
The best one can do in such a case (when the correct answer is not found in the options) is to definitely attempt the question. There is the possibility that if the question is found to be incorrect, all students who attempt the question will be awarded marks!
Question 8
Difference between two numbers is 9 and difference between their squares is 981. Lowest of the two numbers is:
A40
B50
C55
D59
B 50
Let the numbers be A and B.
Then, A – B = 9 and A2 – B2 = 981
i.e. A – B = 9 and (A – B)(A + B) = 981
i.e. A – B = 9 and 9(A + B) = 981
i.e. A – B = 9 and A + B = 109
On adding them we get: 2A = 118 or A = 59
Then, 59 – B = 9 or B = 59 – 9 = 50
So the smaller number is 50.
Question 9
Ms. Jhulan Goswami scores 102 runs in the 18th innings of her career and thus increases her average by 5. After the 18th innings, her average is:
A17
B21
C26
D28
A 17
Let Average be A after 17 innings.
Then, Sum of scores in 17 innings = 17A
Also, Average after 18th innings = A + 5
Then, Sum of scores in 18 innings = 18(A + 5)
Clearly the difference in these would be her score in the 18th innings
i.e. 18(A + 5) – 17A = 102
i.e. 18A + 90 – 17A = 102
i.e. A = 102 – 90 = 12
So Average after her 18th innings = A + 5 = 17
Question 10
In a staff room of 25 teachers, 13 drink black coffee, 7 milk coffee, 9 drink both tea and either type of coffee, and everyone drinks either of the beverages. How many teachers drink only tea?
Ainsufficient information
B5
C6
D9
A insufficient information
This is a case of 3-set venn diagram as shown below.

From the venn diagram, people who drink only tea = C = ?
Now, there are 9 people who drink either tea and Black coffee or tea and Milk coffee.
i.e. E + F = 9
Also, A + F + D + G = 13 and B + E + D + G = 7
Now those who drink only Tea = Total teachers – Black Coffee U Milk Coffee
However, we are not given any information about regions D and G, which will be needed to find Black Coffee U Milk Coffee and hence the required value.
Hence the information given is insufficient to find C.
Question 11
A box contains 90 discs which are numbered from 1 to 90. If one disc is drawn at random from the box, the probability that it bears a perfect square number is:
A1/10
B1/11
C1/90
D1/9
A 1/10
Number of perfect squares from 1 to 90 = 9
(12 = 1, 22 = 4, 32 = 9 ... 92 = 81)
So required probability = 9/90 = 1/10
Question 12
Two coins are tossed simultaneously. The probability of getting at the most one head is:
A1/4
B1/2
C3/4
D1
C 3/4
There are 4 possibilities when two coins are tossed namely:
  1. Heads & Heads
  2. Heads & Tails
  3. Tails & Heads
  4. Tails and Tails
Now required Probability = P(At most one head) = P(0 heads or 1 heads)
Clearly, 3 of the 4 possible outcomes will have either 0 heads (Case-4) or 1 heads (Cases 2 and 3).
Hence Probability = 3/4
Alternatively, P(At most 1 head) = 1 – P(2 heads) = 1 – 1/4 = 3/4
Question 13
A flag pole 18 m high casts a shadow 9.6 m long. What is the distance of the top of the pole from the far end of the shadow?
A20 metres
B20.04 metres
C20.4 metres
D24 metres
C 20.4 metres
Consider the figure shown below:

Here ∆ABC will be a right triangle
So, AC2 = AB2 + BC2 = 182 + 9.62 = 324 + 92.16 = 416.16
Hence AC must be a little more than 20 (we can rule out options a and d)
Now, checking the other options we can see that 20.42 = 416.16
So AC = 20.4 metres
Question 14
The 10th term of the series: 5, 8, 11, 14, ... is:
A32
B35
C38
D185
A 32
This series is clearly an Arithmetic progression.
Here a = 5 and d = 3
Hence, nth term = 5 + 3(n – 1)
So 10th term = 5 + 3 x 9 = 5 + 27 = 32
Question 15
A bag contains 19 red balls, 37 blue balls and 27 green balls. If a ball is picked up from this bag at random, what is the probability of picking a blue ball?
A19/83
B37/87
C34/81
DNone of the above
D None of the above
Red = 19, Blue = 37 and Green = 27
So Total balls = 83
Hence probability of picking a blue ball = 37/83
Question 16
A cylindrical tennis ball container can contain maximum three balls stacked on one another. The top and bottom bails also touch the lid and the base of the container respectively. If the volume of a tennis ball is 240 cm', then what is the volume of the container?
A1080 cm<sup>3</sup>
B840 cm<sup>3</sup>
C1440 cm<sup>3</sup>
D720 cm<sup>3</sup>
A 1080 cm<sup>3</sup>
Volume of spherical tennis ball = 240
i.e. 4/3 x πR3 = 240
i.e. R3 = 240 x 3/4 x 1/π = 180/π
Now, radius of the cylinder = R
Also since three spheres are stacked on one another, height of the cylinder = 2R + 2R + 2R = 6R
Now, Volume of Cylinder = πR2H = π x R2 x 6R = π x 6 x R3 = π x 6 x 180/π = 1080 cm3
Question 17
Ranjeetha walks around the circular park in 15 minutes. If she walks at the rate of 5km/hr, how much distance would she have to travel, at the minimum, to reach the centre of the park from any point on its perimeter?
A100 metre
B200 metre
C250 metre
D300 metre
B 200 metre
Circumference of the circle = Distance = Speed x Time = 5 x 15/60 = 5/4 km = 1250 metres
i.e. 2πR = 1250 or R = 1250 x 7/44 = 198.9 or approximately 200 metres
Question 18
If (9/7)3 x (49/81)2x-6=(7/9)9, then the value of x is:
A12
B9
C8
D6
D 6
Given, (9/7)3 x [(7/9)2]2x – 6 = (7/9)9
i.e. 93/73 x 72(2x – 6)/92(2x – 6) = (7/9)9
i.e. 74x – 12 – 3/94x – 12 – 3 = (7/9)9
Equating the powers of 7 we have:
4x – 12 – 3 = 9
i.e. 4x = 9 + 15 = 24
or x = 24/4 = 6
Question 19
Francis has 18 eggs out of which 12 eggs were sold at 10% loss than the cost price. At what mark up should he sell the remaining eggs to cover his losses?
A5%
B10%
C15%
D20%
D 20%
Let CP of an egg be Rs. 10
Then total CP of 18 eggs = 18 x 10 = Rs. 180
Now, 12 eggs were sold at 10% loss i.e. at 10 – 10% of 10 = 10 – 1 = Rs. 9
Hence SP of 12 eggs = 12 x 9 = Rs. 108
Now SP of 18 eggs must be equal to CP of 18 eggs
So, SP of remaining 6 eggs = 180 – 108 = Rs. 72
Hence SP of each egg = 72/6 = Rs. 12
% mark-up = (12 – 10)/10 x 100 = 20%
Question 20
If the length and height of a brick increases by 10% each respectively, and the breadth reduces by 20%, what is the percentage change in the volume of the brick?
A28
B30
C32
D36
C 32
All option choices are missing the decimal point here. Correct answer (3.2%) is not available!
Let L, B and H be length, breadth and height of a brick initially.
Initial Volume = LBH
Then new length = L + 10% of L = 1.1L
New breadth = B – 20% of B = 0.8B
New height = H + 10% of H = 1.1H
New Volume = 1.1 x 0.8 x 1.1 x LBH
i.e. New Volume = 0.968 x Old Volume = 96.8% of Old Volume
Clearly the volume of the brick reduced by 3.2%
Alternatively:
Let length, breadth and height of brick be 10 each.
Then initial volume = 10 x 10 x 10 = 1000
Also, new length = new height = 10 + 10/100 x 10 = 11
And new breadth = 10 – 20/100 x 10 = 8
Hence new volume = 11 x 8 x 11 = 968
Hence % decrease in volume = 32/1000 x 100 = 3.2%

Section: General Knowledge

Question 1
Why was Arundhati Roy investigated for sedition?
AFor committing contempt of court
BFor saying that Kashmir is not an integral part of India
CFor sympathising with the Maoists
DFor condemning nuclear tests conducted by India
B For saying that Kashmir is not an integral part of India
For saying that Kashmir is not an integral part of India
Question 2
Damon Galgut's 'In a Strange Room' was recently in news for:
AMan Booker Prize shortlist
BWinning the Pulitzer Prize
CWinning the Orange Prize for fiction
DNone of the above
A Man Booker Prize shortlist
Man Booker Prize shortlist
Question 3
Who was recently in the news when the Supreme Court of India rejected her plea for Euthanasia, but paved the way for legalization of passive euthanasia?
AAruna Shanbaug
BAruna Roy
CMary Roy
DMedha Patkar
A Aruna Shanbaug
Aruna Shanbaug
Question 4
Nagoya Protocol, signed by India on 30"October, 2010 is:
Aan international treaty of bilateral investment between India and Japan
Ban international treaty to ensure that local produce are exploited only under license and for the common good of the mankind
Can international treaty to ensure that the benefits of natural resources and their commercial derivatives are shared with local communities
DNone of the above.
C an international treaty to ensure that the benefits of natural resources and their commercial derivatives are shared with local communities
an international treaty to ensure that the benefits of natural resources and their commercial derivatives are shared with local communities
Question 5
Julian Assange, the founder of WikiLeaks, was arrested in which of the following nations?
AU.K
BSweden
CU.S.A
DDenmark
A U.K
U.K
Question 6
Which of the following are the five countries that have decided to bid for 2017 World Athletics Championships?
AQatar, USA, China, Sri Lanka and Brazil
BGermany, Britain, Hungary, Qatar and Spain
CGermany, Qatar, India, Spain and China
DGermany, Britain, China, Qatar and Spain
B Germany, Britain, Hungary, Qatar and Spain
Germany, Britain, Hungary, Qatar and Spain
Question 7
The recent Tunisian revolution is known as:
AOrange Revolution
BJasmine Revolution
CPurple Revolution
DCrescent Revolution
B Jasmine Revolution
Jasmine Revolution
Question 8
The Naive and the Sentimental Novelist' is a 2010 publication of Harvard University Press of which of the following authors?
AOrhan Pamuk
BJ.M Coetzie
CPartha Chatterjee
DBen Okri
A Orhan Pamuk
Orhan Pamuk
Question 9
Who replaced Lalit Modi as the IPL Chairman and Commissioner from this year's edition of the IPL?
AChirayu Amin
BRajiv Shukla
CRatnakar Shetty
DShashank Manohar
A Chirayu Amin
Chirayu Amin
Question 10
Which one of the following films was officially selected to compete in the Un Certain Regard (A Certain Glance) category at the 2010 Cannes Film Festival?
AUdaan
BMy Name is Khan
CWednesday
DDhobi Ghat
B My Name is Khan
My Name is Khan
Question 11
Ram Kumudini Devi, whose birth centenary is being celebrated in 2011, was the:
AFirst woman barrister of India
BFirst woman Mayor of Hyderabad
CFirst woman photographer in India
DFirst woman doctor of India
B First woman Mayor of Hyderabad
First woman Mayor of Hyderabad
Question 12
The Supreme Court in 2010 upheld an order of the Bombay High Court to lift a four-year old ban imposed by the Maharashtra government on publication and circulation of a controversial book, authored by American scholar James Laine. Identify the book from the following.
AChatrpati Shivaji
BShivaji-The Warrior King
CShivaji - The Hindu King in Muslim India
DNone of the above.
C Shivaji - The Hindu King in Muslim India
Shivaji - The Hindu King in Muslim India
Question 13
In which case did the Nagpur Bench of the Bombay High Court on July 14, 2010 commute the death sentence of six accused to rigorous life imprisonment?
AKhairlanji case
BBhopal Gas Leak case
CBhagalpur case
DNithari Case
A Khairlanji case
Khairlanji case
Question 14
The Shunglu panel was constituted for which of the following issues?
AInvestigate the 2G Spectrum Scam
BSuggest Civil Service Reforms
CProbe the Commonwealth Games Scam
DSuggest reforms on centre-state relationship
A Investigate the 2G Spectrum Scam
Investigate the 2G Spectrum Scam
Question 15
Who was appointed as the Chairman of the National Innovation Council in August 2010?
AShashi Tharoor
BChetan Bhagat
CArindam Chaudhury
DSam Pitroda
D Sam Pitroda
Sam Pitroda
Question 16
Name the Kenya-born political lobbyist who runs a firm called Vaishnavi Corporate Communications, and has recently been in news?
ABarkha Dutt
BVir Sanghhvi
CVina Ramani
DNiira Radia
D Niira Radia
Niira Radia
Question 17
Irom Sharmila has been fasting for the last 10 years to protest against which of the following issues?
ARape cases against Indian Army in Manipur
BEmergency in Manipur
CPrevention of Terrorism Act 2005
DApplication of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act 1958 in Manipur
D Application of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act 1958 in Manipur
Application of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act 1958 in Manipur
Question 18
Thein Sein is the newly-appointed President of which of the following nations?
AIndonesia
BMalaysia
CMyanmar
DThailand
C Myanmar
Myanmar
Question 19
Baglihar dam has been a matter of dispute between which nations?
ABangladesh and Myanmar
BMyanmar and China
CIndia and China
DIndia and Pakistan
D India and Pakistan
India and Pakistan
Question 20
Who is the author of the book "TINDERBOX - The Past and Future of Pakistan"?
AHusain HaqqanI
BYasmeen Niaz Mohiuddin
CIshrat Husain
DM.J. Akbar
D M.J. Akbar
M.J. Akbar
Question 21
On 25th January 2011, BJP leaders Sushma Swaraj and Arun Jaitley were prevented from entering Srinagar and unfurl the national flag. What was that Rath Yatra called?
ASwabhimaan Yatra
BEkta Yatra
CMukti Yatra
DSwaraj Yatra
B Ekta Yatra
Ekta Yatra
Question 22
Who is chairing the Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) on the 2G Spectrum allocation issue?
AMurli Manohar Joshi
BA Raja
CM. Thambi Durai
DP.C. Chacko
D P.C. Chacko
P.C. Chacko
Question 23
Saina Nehwal recently defeated Ji Hyun Sung of South Korea to win which of the following titles?
ASwiss Open Grand Prix Gold Badminton
BCommonwealth Games
CSingapore Open
DHong Kong Open
A Swiss Open Grand Prix Gold Badminton
Swiss Open Grand Prix Gold Badminton
Question 24
Moner Manush', the film to win the `Golden Peacock' at the 41s' International Film Festival of India was based on the life of which legendary 19'° century folk singer and spiritual leader?
AKabir
BSurjya Sen
CKabir Suman
DLalan Fakir
D Lalan Fakir
Lalan Fakir
Question 25
Justice P.C. Phukan Commission of Inquiry was constituted to enquire into which of the following incidents?
AClashes between Nagas and Lepchas in Nagaland on 14 August 2008
BClashes between Bodos and Muslims in Northern Assam's Udalguri district on 14 August 2008
CClashes between Assamese and Bengalis in Guwahati on 14 August 2008
DNone of the above
B Clashes between Bodos and Muslims in Northern Assam's Udalguri district on 14 August 2008
Clashes between Bodos and Muslims in Northern Assam's Udalguri district on 14 August 2008
Question 26
The first woman Secretary General of SAARC is from which country?
AMaldives
BBhutan
CSri Lanka
DIndia
A Maldives
Maldives
Question 27
Under whose premiership was the Women's Reservations Bill (to secure quotas for women in Parliament and state legislative assemblies) first introduced in Parliament?
ARajiv Gandhi
BHD Deve Gowda
CAtal Bihari Vajpayee
DManmohan Singh
B HD Deve Gowda
HD Deve Gowda
Question 28
Which Irish player scored the fastest Century in the history of World Cup Cricket?
ANiaal'Oilten
BKevin O' Brien
CA. Cusack
DEd Joyce
B Kevin O' Brien
Kevin O' Brien
Question 29
Which of the following report brought out the 2G spectrum scam?
ACBI report
BWikiLeaks
CCAG report
DNone of the above
D None of the above
None of the above
Question 30
In February 2011, Gopa Sabharwal was appointed as the first Vice Chancellor of which University of international stature?
AJawaharlal Nehru University
BAzim Premji University
CVisva-Bharati University
DNalanda International University
D Nalanda International University
Nalanda International University
Question 31
With, which Hindutva association are Sadhvi Pragya Singh Thakur and Swami Aseemanand allegedly associated?
AVishwa Hindu Parishad
BShri Ram Sena
CAbhinav Bharat
DArya Samaj
A Vishwa Hindu Parishad
Vishwa Hindu Parishad
Question 32
With which of the following do you associate the name P.J Thomas?
ACentral Vigilance Commission
BLokpal
CAnti corruption Ombudsman
DBanking Ombudsman
A Central Vigilance Commission
Central Vigilance Commission
Question 33
The 17th Commonwealth Law Conference was held in which city?
ADelhi
BBangalore
CKolkata
DHyderabad
D Hyderabad
Hyderabad
Question 34
Gustavo Santaolall who composed the music to the song "Stranger Lives" in the movie "Dhobi Ghat", is from which of the following nations?
AChile
BPeru
CArgentina
DMexico
C Argentina
Argentina
Question 35
Which one of the following was not awarded a portion of the contested land by the judgment of the Allahabad High Court in 2010 pertaining to the Ayodhya dispute?
ANirmohi Akhada
BSunni Central Board of Waqfs
CRashtriya Swayamsevak Sang
DBhagwan Sri Ram Lala Virajman
C Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sang
Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sang
Question 36
Sania Mirza claimed silver in the tennis mixed doubles category in the Asian Games in Guanzhou in November 2010. Who was her Partner?
AMahesh Bhupathi
BSomdev Devvarman
CLeander Paes
DVishnu Vardhan
D Vishnu Vardhan
Vishnu Vardhan
Question 37
China objected to the Dalai Lama's recent visit to Tawang in Arunachal Pradesh. What was he visiting in Tawang?
AA Buddhist monastery
BA memorial to Tibetans massacred by the Chinese army
CThe residence of Panchen Lama
DNone of the above
A A Buddhist monastery
A Buddhist monastery
Question 38
Which one of the following tribes lives in the Niyamgiri Hills, which is at the heart of the controversy surrounding Vedanta Resources' mining operations?
AManna Dhora
BDongria Kondh
CPardhan
DMal Pahariya
B Dongria Kondh
Dongria Kondh
Question 39
Which prominent Barrister-politician, 'who was closely linked with the emergency proclamation of 1975, breathed his last in Kolkata on 6t' November 2010?
AJyoti Basu
BSiddhartha Shankar Ray
CHiren Mukherjee
DIndrajit Gupta
B Siddhartha Shankar Ray
Siddhartha Shankar Ray
Question 40
Who is the author of the book `Great Soul: Mahatma Gandhi and his Struggle with India', criticised for its content?
ANirad C. Chaudhury
BJoseph Lelyveld
CKhushwant Singh
DHermann Kallenbach
B Joseph Lelyveld
Joseph Lelyveld
Question 41
Which Gharana of Classical singing did Late Pandit Bhimsen Joshi belong to?
ADhrupad
BMaihar
CKirana
DEtawah
C Kirana
Kirana
Question 42
14th March 2011 was the 80th Anniversary of the first Indian sound Film (talkie). Which Movie was it?
AJahan Ara
BAlam Ara
CNoorjehan
DNone of the above
B Alam Ara
Alam Ara
Question 43
Which internationally renowned musician collaborated with Rahul Sharma to release a music album titled 'Namaste India'?
ARichard Clayderman
BKenny G
CYanni
DRicky Martin
B Kenny G
Kenny G
Question 44
"War on Terrorism or American Strategy for Global Dominance" is authored by which of the following authors?
ANoam Chomsky
BDemetrios Caraley
CLea Brilmayer
DManzoor Alam
D Manzoor Alam
Manzoor Alam
Question 45
Mohammad Asif, Mohammad Amir and Salman Butt (Cricket players of Pakistan) have been banned for being found guilty of spot fixing. To which of the following institutions have they appealed?
APakistan Cricket Board
BAnti-Corruption Tribunal of the Asian Cricket Council
CCourt of Arbitration for Sport
DAnti-Corruption Tribunal of the International Cricket Council
C Court of Arbitration for Sport
Court of Arbitration for Sport
Question 46
Indian driver Karun Chandok was recently in the news for which of the following?
ABeing selected as a reserve driver by Team Force India for the 2011 Formula One season.
BBeing selected as a reserve driver by Team Lotus for the 2011 Formula One season.
CBeing selected as a reserve driver by Team Ferrari for the 2011 Formula One season.
DNone of the above.
B Being selected as a reserve driver by Team Lotus for the 2011 Formula One season.
Being selected as a reserve driver by Team Lotus for the 2011 Formula One season.
Question 47
The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change meeting of 2010 December was held in which of the following places?
AColorado
BCanberra
CCancun
DNone of the above.
C Cancun
Cancun
Question 48
Which of the following pairings is incorrect?
AMuammar Gaddafi-Syria
BFidel Castro-Cuba
CPol Pot- Cambodia
DHosni Mubarak
A Muammar Gaddafi-Syria
Muammar Gaddafi-Syria
Question 49
The Right of Children to Full and Compulsory Education Act 2009 requires private schools to ensure that - percent of their students come from weaker sections and disadvantaged groups?
A2
B15
C25
D40
C 25
25
Question 50
Srikrishna Committee, which recently submitted its report, was constituted for which of the following issues?
AMumbai bomb blast case
BMalegaon blast case
CTelengana issue
D2G Spectrum corruption issue
C Telengana issue
Telengana issue

Section: Logical Reasoning

Question 1
The following six questions comprise of one or more statements. Please answer the questions on the basis of the given statement(s). Please make the factual assumptions required by the question even if you believe the statement is false.

‘Where there is smoke, there is fire'.

Which of the following statements, if true, would show that the above statement is false?
AThere is sometimes smoke where there is no fire.
BThere is sometimes fire where there is no smoke.
CThere is no fire where there is no smoke.
DNone of the above.
A There is sometimes smoke where there is no fire.
The given statement will be proven false under two cases when there is smoke but no fire or when there is no fire but there is smoke. The second part is given in choice “a” and that is the correct answer.
Question 2
The following six questions comprise of one or more statements. Please answer the questions on the basis of the given statement(s). Please make the factual assumptions required by the question even if you believe the statement is false.

‘Where there is poverty, there are always thieves'.

Which of the following statements, if true, would show that the above statement is false?
AAmerica is a rich country and there are thieves in America.
BBhutan is a poor country and there are no thieves in Bhutan.
CBangladesh is a poor country and there are many thieves in Bangladesh.
DNepal is a rich country and there are no thieves in Nepal.
B Bhutan is a poor country and there are no thieves in Bhutan.
The given statement will be proven false under two cases when there is poverty but no thieves or when there are no thieves but there is poverty. The first case is given in choice “b” and is the correct answer.
Question 3
The following six questions comprise of one or more statements. Please answer the questions on the basis of the given statement(s). Please make the factual assumptions required by the question even if you believe the statement is false.

Statement 1: Sugar is bad for people with diabetes.
Statement 2: Leela does not eat sugar.

Assuming that Statements 1 and 2 are true, which of the following statements follows?
ALeela has diabetes.
BSugal is ba for Leela
CPeople with diabetes do not eat sugar.
DNone of the above.
D None of the above.

Leela could also fall within Diabetes but outside sugar. So we cannot conclude anything.
Question 4
The following six questions comprise of one or more statements. Please answer the questions on the basis of the given statement(s). Please make the factual assumptions required by the question even if you believe the statement is false.

Statement 1: People who read fashion magazines do not like to read fiction.
Statement 2: Tenzin does not read fashion magazines.

Assuming that Statements 1 and 2 are true, which of the following conclusions might be said to follow?
ATenzin likes to read fiction.
BTenzin may or may not like to read fiction.
CTenzin does not like to read fiction.
DTenzin does not like fashion magazines.
B Tenzin may or may not like to read fiction.

As could be seen from the figure Tenzin may or may not like to read fiction.
Question 5
The following six questions comprise of one or more statements. Please answer the questions on the basis of the given statement(s). Please make the factual assumptions required by the question even if you believe the statement is false.

Suleiman: All Communists are atheists.
Sheeba: That is not true.

Which of the following, if true, would make Sheeba's reply the most convincing?
AMy uncle is an atheist but he is not a Communist.
BMy uncle is a Communist but he is not an atheist.
CMy uncle is a Communist and an atheist.
DMy uncle is neither a Communist nor an atheist.
B My uncle is a Communist but he is not an atheist.
Choice “b” will make Sheeba’s answer most convincing because there is one communist who is not an atheist.
Question 6
The following six questions comprise of one or more statements. Please answer the questions on the basis of the given statement(s). Please make the factual assumptions required by the question even if you believe the statement is false.

Statement 1: All pingos are byronic.
Statement 2: Shalisto is byronic.
Statement 3: Therefore ______.

Fill in the blank.
AShalisto is a pingo.
BShalisto is not a pingo.
CShalisto is not byronic.
DNone of the above
D None of the above

As could be seen from the two figures nothing could be concluded from the information provided. “a” and “b” are possibilities but not conclusions.
Question 7
For the following eight questions, study the sequence of letters, numbers or words carefully to work out the pattern on which it is based, and therefore what the next item in the sequence must be. For example, the sequence 'A, C, E, G, _____’, has odd- numbered letters of the alphabet; therefore, the next item must be 'I'. The meanings of the words are irrelevant.

A, B, D, G, K, P, -

What is the last alphabet in this sequence?
AZ
BY
CV
DX
C V
The pattern is + 1, +2, +3. The final term will be P + 6 = V.
Question 8
For the following eight questions, study the sequence of letters, numbers or words carefully to work out the pattern on which it is based, and therefore what the next item in the sequence must be. For example, the sequence 'A, C, E, G, _____’, has odd- numbered letters of the alphabet; therefore, the next item must be 'I'. The meanings of the words are irrelevant.

B, C, E, G, K, M, Q, S, -

What is the next alphabet in this sequence?
AT
BU
CV
DW
D W
The letters are the consecutive prime numbers starting with B (2). Next is C (3), E (5) and so on. So the final letter will be 23, which is W.
Question 9
For the following eight questions, study the sequence of letters, numbers or words carefully to work out the pattern on which it is based, and therefore what the next item in the sequence must be. For example, the sequence 'A, C, E, G, _____’, has odd- numbered letters of the alphabet; therefore, the next item must be 'I'. The meanings of the words are irrelevant.

Z, X, T, N, -

What is the next alphabet in this sequence'?
AE
BF
CG
DH
B F
26 (Z) -2 = 24; 24 (X) – 4 = 20, 20 – 6 =14. So we observe that the difference between two numbers is increasing by 2 (started with 2) with every consecutive pair. So the final difference will be of 8 and the final term will be 14 – 8 = 6, which is F.
Question 10
For the following eight questions, study the sequence of letters, numbers or words carefully to work out the pattern on which it is based, and therefore what the next item in the sequence must be. For example, the sequence 'A, C, E, G, _____’, has odd- numbered letters of the alphabet; therefore, the next item must be 'I'. The meanings of the words are irrelevant.

‘Apple, Application, _____ , Approval, Apricot, April'

Which of the following best fits in the blank?
AArrogant
BApril
CAppropriate
DApiary
C Appropriate
In Apple and Application first four letters are the same, similarly in the last pair of Apricot and April the first four letters are same. So the correct word will be one of which the first four letters are same as that of the word Approval. So Appropriate best fits the blank.
Question 11
For the following eight questions, study the sequence of letters, numbers or words carefully to work out the pattern on which it is based, and therefore what the next item in the sequence must be. For example, the sequence 'A, C, E, G, _____’, has odd- numbered letters of the alphabet; therefore, the next item must be 'I'. The meanings of the words are irrelevant.

‘Sunday, Monday, Wednesday, Saturday, Wednesday, Monday, Sunday, ______,

Which of the following best fits in the blank?
ASunday
BTuesday
CSaturday
DThursday
A Sunday
The pattern of difference between two consecutive days is +1, +2, +3. So the final day will be Sunday + 7 = Sunday.
Question 12
For the following eight questions, study the sequence of letters, numbers or words carefully to work out the pattern on which it is based, and therefore what the next item in the sequence must be. For example, the sequence 'A, C, E, G, _____’, has odd- numbered letters of the alphabet; therefore, the next item must be 'I'. The meanings of the words are irrelevant.

‘387924, ______, 3724, 423, 32, 2’.

Which number is missing?
A42978
B42783
C42983
D42783
A 42978
Every next value has one number less than the preceding value. For example after 3724 the next value is 423. Also the highest digit value in the preceding term does not appear in the next term. For example in 3724 “7” is the highest digit value and it does not feature in the next term, that is, 423. Applying this logic we know that the term after ‘387924’ will have only five digits and will not have 9. So options “a” and “c” are out. Options “b” and “d” are same.
Question 13
For the following eight questions, study the sequence of letters, numbers or words carefully to work out the pattern on which it is based, and therefore what the next item in the sequence must be. For example, the sequence 'A, C, E, G, _____’, has odd- numbered letters of the alphabet; therefore, the next item must be 'I'. The meanings of the words are irrelevant.

‘Gym, hymn, lynx, pygmy, rhythm'

Which of the following words does not belong to the above set?
AMyrrh
BMythic
CFlyby
DSyzygy
B Mythic
The given words do not have any vowel in them and so choice “b” which has a vowel “i” in it does not belong to this group.
Question 14
For the following eight questions, study the sequence of letters, numbers or words carefully to work out the pattern on which it is based, and therefore what the next item in the sequence must be. For example, the sequence 'A, C, E, G, _____’, has odd- numbered letters of the alphabet; therefore, the next item must be 'I'. The meanings of the words are irrelevant.

Aadvark, Eerie, liwi, Oolong, ______

Which of the following words follows the pattern of this series?
AUvula
BUulium
CUranium
DUranus
B Uulium
The first two letters in each word in the given sequence are vowels Aa (Aadvark), Ee (Eerie), Ii and Oo. So the first two letters of the next word should be Uu which is in choice “b”.
Question 15
For the following nine questions, read the given argument or statement carefully, making any factual assumptions necessary. Then choose the best answer out of the four choices to the question asked. Note that not all the facts given will be relevant for determining the answer.

‘China has a higher literacy rate than India. This is due to the greater efficiency of the Communist system. Efficiency is sorely lacking in India's democratic system. Therefore, democracy is the biggest obstacle to India's achieving 100% literacy.’

Which of the following, if true, would directly undermine the above argument?
AInefficiency is equally a problem in democracies and Communist countries.
BCommunist systems do not respect human rights.
CFreedom is more important than literacy.
DChina is slowly making the transition to democracy.
A Inefficiency is equally a problem in democracies and Communist countries.
Choice “a” makes the main premise (efficiency) of the argument irrelevant and would, therefore, directly undermine the given argument.
Question 16
For the following nine questions, read the given argument or statement carefully, making any factual assumptions necessary. Then choose the best answer out of the four choices to the question asked. Note that not all the facts given will be relevant for determining the answer.

‘In 399 BC, a jury in Athens condemned Socrates to death for impiety and corrupting the morals of the youth. Socrates' friends offered to help him escape, but Socrates refused. Socrates argued that the fact that he had lived in Athens for so many years meant that he had committed himself to obeying its laws. It would therefore be wrong for him to break those very laws he was implicitly committed to obeying.'

Which one of the following claims constitutes the most plausible challenge to Socrates' argument?
ALong residence only commits someone to obeying just laws and Socrates was convicted under an unjust law.
BLong residence by itself does not imply a commitment to obeying laws since one never made any explicit commitment.
CObedience to the law is not always required.
DThere is no point in escaping from prison since one will anyway be captured again.
B Long residence by itself does not imply a commitment to obeying laws since one never made any explicit commitment.
The correct choice will be either “b” or “c”. Choice “b” is a better choice by stating that explicit commitment to a law is more relevant and applicable than an implicit commitment. It is challenging a premise (implicit commitment) used by the given argument.
Question 17
For the following nine questions, read the given argument or statement carefully, making any factual assumptions necessary. Then choose the best answer out of the four choices to the question asked. Note that not all the facts given will be relevant for determining the answer.

‘Soft drinks have been shown by scientists to be bad for the teeth. Therefore, the government would be justified in banning all soft drinks from the Indian market.’

Assuming that the factual claim in the above argument is true, what else needs to be assumed for the conclusion to follow?
AThe government is justified in banning anything that is bad for dental health.
BSoft drinks are also bad for gastric health.
CDental hygiene is a matter of great concem.
DNo further assumptions are necessary.
A The government is justified in banning anything that is bad for dental health.
The conclusion for banning all soft drinks will hold ground if a principle that anything that is bad for teeth could be banned is established. This is given in choice “a” and is the correct answer.
Question 18
For the following nine questions, read the given argument or statement carefully, making any factual assumptions necessary. Then choose the best answer out of the four choices to the question asked. Note that not all the facts given will be relevant for determining the answer.

‘In order to be eligible for election to the Lok Sabha, a person must be at least 25 years of age. Moreover, one must not be bankrupt. Therefore, Latinder Singh, over 50 years of age and without any criminal convictions, cannot be the Speaker of the Lok Sabha since he has just filed 'for bankruptcy.'

Which of the following must be assumed for the conclusion to follow logically?
AAnyone over 50 years of ago is eligible to be Speaker of the Lok Sabha as long as he or she has no criminal convictions.
BPeople without criminal convictions cannot be elected to the Lok Sabha even if they are not bankrupt.
COnly those eligible for election to the Lok Sabha are eligible to be the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
DThere is no minimum age requirement for the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
C Only those eligible for election to the Lok Sabha are eligible to be the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
The two conditions were given for the election to Lok Sabha. Latinder Singh fails one of them so we can conclude that he cannot be elected to Lok Sabha. However, the conclusion made is that he cannot be a speaker of Lok Sabha. For this conclusion to be correct we have to assume that to be a speaker of Lok Sabha one has to be an elected member of Lok Sabha which Latinder Singh cannot be and so he cannot be the speaker of Lok Sabha.
Question 19
For the following nine questions, read the given argument or statement carefully, making any factual assumptions necessary. Then choose the best answer out of the four choices to the question asked. Note that not all the facts given will be relevant for determining the answer.

‘As a century draws to a close, people start behaving much like people coming to the end of a long life. People approaching death often start reflecting on the events of their lives.' Similarly, people alive in 1999 ______

Which of the following most logically completes the paragraph above?
A……….. started reflecting on the events of the twentieth century.
B……….. started to reflect on the events of their lives.
C……….. started to fear death.
D……….. started to wonder what the year 2000 would bring.
A ……….. started reflecting on the events of the twentieth century.
Comparison is made between close to a life and close to a century. More information is given about life so the conclusion has to be made about century. So as people approach death they often start reflecting on the events of their lives – similarly as 20th century draws to a close people will start reflecting on the events of 20th century. So “a” will be the correct answer.
Question 20
For the following nine questions, read the given argument or statement carefully, making any factual assumptions necessary. Then choose the best answer out of the four choices to the question asked. Note that not all the facts given will be relevant for determining the answer.

‘The Roman poet and philosopher Lucretius proposed the following thought experiment. if the universe has a boundary, we can throw a spear at (his boundary. If the spear flies through, then it is not a boundary. If the spear bounces back, there must something beyond this boundary that is itself in space, which means it is not a boundary at all. Either way, it turns out that the universe has no boundary.'

How best can the form of Lucretius' argument for the infinity of space be described?
ALuuetius shows that positing finite space leads to a contradiction.
BLucretius shows that finite space is inconsistent with physics.
CLucretius shows that finite space is inconsistent with mathematics.
DLucretius shows that finite space is inconceivable.
A Luuetius shows that positing finite space leads to a contradiction.
Choice “a” expresses the main idea of Lucretius’s argument.
Question 21
For the following nine questions, read the given argument or statement carefully, making any factual assumptions necessary. Then choose the best answer out of the four choices to the question asked. Note that not all the facts given will be relevant for determining the answer.

‘Utilitarians believe that the right action is that which produces the most happiness.'

Which of the following claims is incompatible with the utilitarian view?
AThe right thing to do is to make the consequences of our actions as good as possible.
BThe right thing to do is to do our duty, whatever the consequences.
CThe right thing to do is to act on a rule which, if followed widely, produces the most happiness.
DThe right thing to do is to act from motivations which produce the most happiness.
B The right thing to do is to do our duty, whatever the consequences.
The consequence if are negative and lead to misery will go against the belief of utilitarian and so “b” is the answer.
Question 22
For the following nine questions, read the given argument or statement carefully, making any factual assumptions necessary. Then choose the best answer out of the four choices to the question asked. Note that not all the facts given will be relevant for determining the answer.

‘Senthil goes to Ambala for the first time in his life. On the way from the railway station to his hotel, he sees twelve people, all of them male. He concludes that there are no women in Ambala. As a matter of fact, there are many thousands of women in Ambala.'

Which of the following best describes Senthil's error?
ASenthil was misled by irrelevant details.
BSenthil generalised on the basis of insufficient evidence.
CSenthil was biased against women.
DSenthil was bad at counting.
B Senthil generalised on the basis of insufficient evidence.
The error he made was to conclude from a small sample size, that is, he generalized on the basis of insufficient evidence.
Question 23
For the following nine questions, read the given argument or statement carefully, making any factual assumptions necessary. Then choose the best answer out of the four choices to the question asked. Note that not all the facts given will be relevant for determining the answer.

‘It took many centuries before the countries of Europe could resolve their internal problems of violence and corruption to become the stable nation-states they are. Therefore, it will take many centuries for India to achieve internal stability.'

Assuming that the factual claims in the argument above are hue, what must be assumed in order for the conclusion to follow?
ACountries everywhere must follow the same paths towards stability.
BIndia is gradually progressing towards internal stability.
CIndian can learn how to achieve stability by studying Europe's example.
DIndia has no hope of achieving stability in the near future.
A Countries everywhere must follow the same paths towards stability.
Of the given choices choice “a” is the best answer - if all other countries were to follow the path that Europe did and were to expect the same outcome then is at least feasible to conclude that India will take many centuries to achieve internal stability.
Question 24
In the following three questions, assume that a `fact' expresses something that can be proved by clear and objective data. An opinion expresses a judgment, view, attitude, or conclusion that is not backed by data.

Which one of the following statements is best described as an assertion of opinion rather than an assertion of fact?
ABrazil, China and India are now among the largest emitters of greenhouse gases.
BScientists agree that human activity is an important cause of climate change.
CThe Indian government's policy on climate change is misguided.
DThe Indian government's policy on climate change has changed significantly in the last five years.
C The Indian government's policy on climate change is misguided.
The answer could be “b” or “c”.
Question 25
In the following three questions, assume that a `fact' expresses something that can be proved by clear and objective data. An opinion expresses a judgment, view, attitude, or conclusion that is not backed by data.

Which one of the above statements is best described as an assertion of opinion rather than an assertion of fact?
AThe number of people migrating into Bengaluru has increased significantly in recent years.
BThis is because Bengaluru provides more economic opportunities than the towns and villages from which these migrants come.
CThis sudden influx of migrants has made the city less pleasant to live in.
DThe success of the government's rural employment guarantee act might have the effect of stemming some rural-urban migration.'
C This sudden influx of migrants has made the city less pleasant to live in.
All others could be objectively checked.
Question 26
In the following three questions, assume that a `fact' expresses something that can be proved by clear and objective data. An opinion expresses a judgment, view, attitude, or conclusion that is not backed by data.

Which one of the following statements, if true, is best described as an assertion of opinion rather than an assertion of fact?
AMumbai is larger than Pune.
BMumbai is smaller than Pune.
CMumbai is more cultured than Pure.
DMumbai is more crowded than Pune.
A Mumbai is larger than Pune.
All others could be objectively checked.
Question 27
For the following three questions, there are two or more statements along with few conclusions deduced from the statements. You are required to answer on the basis of the statements and the conclusions. Make the factual assumptions required by the question even if you believe the statement is actually false.

Statement 1: Some aeroplanes are balloons.
Statement 2: Some balloons are rockets.
Conclusions:
(A) Some aeroplanes are rockets.
(B) Some rockets are tables.
(C) All the rockets are balloons.
(D) All the balloons are aeroplanes.

Asuming that statements 1 and 2 are true, which conclusions follow:
AOnly (B) and (D)
BOnly (A) and (C)
COnly (D)
DNone of the above.
D None of the above.

As could be seen from the figure, none could be concluded.
Question 28
For the following three questions, there are two or more statements along with few conclusions deduced from the statements. You are required to answer on the basis of the statements and the conclusions. Make the factual assumptions required by the question even if you believe the statement is actually false.

Statement 1: All whales are fish.
Statement 2: Some fish are not amphibians.
Statement 3: All whales are amphibians.
Statement 4: Some amphibians are not fish.
Conclusions:
(A) Some fish are amphibians.
(B) Some amphibians are fish.
(C) Only whales are both fish and amphibians.
(D) All amphibians are fish.

Assuming only that Statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are true, which of the above conclusions may be deduced?
AOnly (A) and (B).
BOnly (C).
COnly (D).
DNone of the above.
D None of the above.

Using this figure we can see that conclusion “A”, “B” and “D” cannot be drawn.

Using the figure above we can see that even conclusion “C” cannot be drawn. Hence the correct answer is “d”.
 
Question 29
For the following three questions, there are two or more statements along with few conclusions deduced from the statements. You are required to answer on the basis of the statements and the conclusions. Make the factual assumptions required by the question even if you believe the statement is actually false.

Statement 1: All libraries are laboratories.
Statement 2: No laboratories are hostels.
Conclusions:
(A) All laboratories are libraries.
(B) Some hostels are libraries.
(C) Some libraries are hostels.
(D) No library is a hostel.

Assuming that statements 1 and 2 are true, which conclusions follow?
AOnly (A) and (B)
BOnly (B) and (C)
COnly (C) and (D)
DOnly D
D Only D

As could be seen only “d” is correct.
Question 30
For the following sixteen questions, read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Instead of being concerned with what actually happens in practice ... [economics] is increasingly preoccupied with developing pseudo-mathematical formulas. These provide models of behavior which never quite fit what actually happens, in a way which resembles the physical sciences gone wrong: instead of equations describing reality, economics produces equations describing deal conditions and theoretical clarity of a type which never occurs in practice'.

Which of the following best summarises the argument of this paragraph?
AEconomics ought to be more like the physical sciences.
BTheoretical clarity is undesirable in economics.
CThe physical sciences are wrong to emphasise mathematic formulae.
DThe mathematical equations used by economists do not accurately describe the real world.
D The mathematical equations used by economists do not accurately describe the real world.
“Instead of equations describing reality” “instead of being concerned with what actually happens in practice” - from these “d” becomes the best answer.
Question 31
For the following sixteen questions, read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Instead of being concerned with what actually happens in practice ... [economics] is increasingly preoccupied with developing pseudo-mathematical formulas. These provide models of behavior which never quite fit what actually happens, in a way which resembles the physical sciences gone wrong: instead of equations describing reality, economics produces equations describing deal conditions and theoretical clarity of a type which never occurs in practice'.

Which of the following claims is not implied in the paragraph above?
AEconomists should stop using mathematical models.
BEquations describing ideal conditions should not be mistaken for equations describing reality.
CTheoretical clarity should not come at the expense of accuracy.
DModels of human behaviour should be true to the complexity of human nature.
A Economists should stop using mathematical models.
The passage never mentions that economics should use mathematical models at all. Instead it would have preferred if it used models that reflect reality.
Question 32
For the following sixteen questions, read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Instead of being concerned with what actually happens in practice ... [economics] is increasingly preoccupied with developing pseudo-mathematical formulas. These provide models of behavior which never quite fit what actually happens, in a way which resembles the physical sciences gone wrong: instead of equations describing reality, economics produces equations describing deal conditions and theoretical clarity of a type which never occurs in practice'.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument of the passage above?
AThe physical sciences are themselves reducing their reliance on mathematical formulae.
BThe real world in fact closely approximates ideal theoretical conditions.
CWe do not at present have the mathematical expertise to model the full complexity of the world economy.
DAcademic economists need to be more sensitive to human nature.
B The real world in fact closely approximates ideal theoretical conditions.
The main premise used by the author for the argument is that the models used by economics does not depict the real world. So if choice “b” is correct the basic premise of the author will be negated and hence this choice weakens the argument.
Question 33
For the following sixteen questions, read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

'Religions, like camel caravans, seem to avoid mountain passes. Buddhism spread quickly south from Buddha's birth-place in southern Nepal across the flat Gangetic plain to Sri Lanka. But it took a millennium to reach China ... The religious belt stretched eventually to Mongolia and Japan, but in Afghanistan Buddhism filled only a narrow belt that left pagans among the valleys to the east and west in Kailash and Ghor'.

Which of the following best summarises the subject of this paragraph?
AThe Afghan people were hostile to Buddhism.
BGeography has considerable impact on the spread of religions.
CBuddhism does not flourish in mountainous regions.
DReligion has a considerable impact on geography.
B Geography has considerable impact on the spread of religions.
“Religion seem to avoid mountain passes” – in other parts also the passage touches upon the selective spread of religion on the basis of the geography – so it will be fair to summarize that Geography has considerable impact on the spread of religions.
Question 34
For the following sixteen questions, read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

'Religions, like camel caravans, seem to avoid mountain passes. Buddhism spread quickly south from Buddha's birth-place in southern Nepal across the flat Gangetic plain to Sri Lanka. But it took a millennium to reach China ... The religious belt stretched eventually to Mongolia and Japan, but in Afghanistan Buddhism filled only a narrow belt that left pagans among the valleys to the east and west in Kailash and Ghor'.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion to the above argument?
AChristianity took several centuries to cross the Atlantic Ocean to America.
BThe Hindukush mountains made no difference to the speed with which Islam spread.
CBuddhism is strongest in mountainous regions.
DJainism is less popular in cold climates.
C Buddhism is strongest in mountainous regions.
The passage gives example of Buddhism to elaborate that religion avoids mountain passes. If it were true that Buddhism is strongest in mountainous regions it will invalidate the basic premise of the author and will so weaken the conclusion.
Question 35
For the following sixteen questions, read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

‘Friendship was indeed a value for the villagers, more for men than for women. Two good friends were said to be `like brothers' (literally, `like elder brother-younger brother', annatammandirahage). I heard this expression several times and l could not help recalling the statement of an elderly English colleague who had told me that he and his brother were very close and had written to each other every week. He had added, `We are very good friends.' That is, friendship connoted intimacy in England while in Rampura (as in rural India everywhere), brotherhood conveyed intimacy'.

Which of the following best summarises the conclusion of the argument of this paragraph?
AFriendship has greater value for men than for women.
BPeople in England have different altitudes to brotherhood and friendship than people in rural India.
CBrotherhood has greater value in rural India than in England.
DFriendship has greater value in England than in India.
B People in England have different altitudes to brotherhood and friendship than people in rural India.
“That is, friendship connoted intimacy in England while in Rural India, brotherhood conveyed intimacy.” From this we can conclude that the attitude of people of England towards brotherhood and friendship is different from that of rural India.
Question 36
For the following sixteen questions, read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

‘Friendship was indeed a value for the villagers, more for men than for women. Two good friends were said to be `like brothers' (literally, `like elder brother-younger brother', annatammandirahage). I heard this expression several times and l could not help recalling the statement of an elderly English colleague who had told me that he and his brother were very close and had written to each other every week. He had added, `We are very good friends.' That is, friendship connoted intimacy in England while in Rampura (as in rural India everywhere), brotherhood conveyed intimacy'.

Which of the following, if true, would directly contradict the conclusion of the above argument?
APeople are less likely to have large families in England.
BPeople in England are no longer close to their family members.
CPeople in England do not think that friendship connotes intimacy.
DPeople in rural India think that sisters cannot be intimate.
C People in England do not think that friendship connotes intimacy.
Choice “c” contradicts the conclusion of the argument that friendship connotes intimacy for people in England.
Question 37
For the following sixteen questions, read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

‘A language is most easily leamt when it is in tune with the social context. To teach an Indian child in English at the primary stage ... strengthens distinctions of class and status and warps the mind. Failure to resort to regional languages in literacy campaigns also hampers their success'.

Which of the following best summarises the argument of the passage above?
ALearning English warps the mind.
BLanguage policy should be devised with an eye to social context.
CLiteracy campaigns in India have failed.
DEnglish should be taught at the secondary school level.
B Language policy should be devised with an eye to social context.
It is given in the passage that it is easier to learn a language when it is aligned with the social context. Choice “b” best captures the argument of the passage.
Question 38
For the following sixteen questions, read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

‘A language is most easily leamt when it is in tune with the social context. To teach an Indian child in English at the primary stage ... strengthens distinctions of class and status and warps the mind. Failure to resort to regional languages in literacy campaigns also hampers their success'.

Which of the following claims, if true, would weaken the argument in the passage above?
ALiteracy campaigns are more successful when conducted in English.
BLearning English at an early age has been found to weaken class distinctions.
CChildren who learn English at the primary-school stage have been found to show greater intellectual ability than those who team English only at the secondary level.
DAll of the above.
D All of the above.
All of the given choices provide facts that contradict the given argument and thus weaken it.
Question 39
For the following sixteen questions, read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

‘The tribes should develop their own culture and make their contribution to the cultural richness of the country. It is unnecessary to cause them to change their customs, habits or diversions so far as to make themselves indistinguishable from other classes. To do so would be to rob rural and pastoral life of its colour and stimulating diversity'.

Which of the following conclusions is not implied by the passage above'?
AIt is good for India's tribal people to develop their culture.
BTribal customs should not be allowed to change in any respect.
CForcing tribal people to change their customs reduces the diversity of rural life.
DTribal culture is part of the cultural richness of India.
B Tribal customs should not be allowed to change in any respect.
“It is unnecessary to cause them to change their customs, habits or diversions so far as to make themselves indistinguishable from other classes”. The key word is so far, that is, they could change to some extent but not so far. From this we can say that choice “b” cannot be implied. “Should not be allowed to change in any respect” is too extreme an inference.
Question 40
For the following sixteen questions, read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

‘The tribes should develop their own culture and make their contribution to the cultural richness of the country. It is unnecessary to cause them to change their customs, habits or diversions so far as to make themselves indistinguishable from other classes. To do so would be to rob rural and pastoral life of its colour and stimulating diversity'.

Which of the following claims runs directly counter to the spirit of the passage above?
ATribal people should be able to decide what elements of the modem world to adopt.
BThe govemment should make modem science and medicine available to tribal people.
CTribal people should not be subjected to any coercion to conform to non-tribal cultural norms as long as they do not violate the law.
DThe tribals should assimilate as far as possible into non-tribal culture as a condition of full citizenship.
D The tribals should assimilate as far as possible into non-tribal culture as a condition of full citizenship.
Choice “d” directly contradicts what is given in the passage.
Question 41
For the following sixteen questions, read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

‘The tribes should develop their own culture and make their contribution to the cultural richness of the country. It is unnecessary to cause them to change their customs, habits or diversions so far as to make themselves indistinguishable from other classes. To do so would be to rob rural and pastoral life of its colour and stimulating diversity'.

Which of the following is not an assumption required by the above argument?
AColour and diversity are desirable things.
BTribal people are capable of contributing to India's cultural diversity.
CChanging tribal customs is a necessary condition of making modern medicine available to tribal people.
DRural life is presently full of colour and diversity.
C Changing tribal customs is a necessary condition of making modern medicine available to tribal people.
The idea of modern medicine is beyond the scope of the passage and so choice “c” is the correct answer.
Question 42
For the following sixteen questions, read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

‘India is the only country in the world where, in the States which are governed by the Communist party, human rights are fully respected -- and that is only because the Bill of Rights is firmly entrenched in our national Constitution. We can proudly say that our Constitution gave us a flying start and equipped us adequately to meet the challenges of the future.'

Which of the following conclusions is not implied by the passage above?
ACommunist states often do not respect human rights.
BCommunist states never respect human rights.
CThe entrenchment of the Bill of Rights is what ensures that even Communist- governed states respect human rights.
DThe Indian Constitution prepared India for the challenges of independence.
B Communist states never respect human rights.
It is given in the passage that In India there are States which are governed by the Communist party, and such states fully respect human rights. Choice “b” contradicts this and cannot be inferred.
Question 43
For the following sixteen questions, read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

‘India is the only country in the world where, in the States which are governed by the Communist party, human rights are fully respected -- and that is only because the Bill of Rights is firmly entrenched in our national Constitution. We can proudly say that our Constitution gave us a flying start and equipped us adequately to meet the challenges of the future.'

Which of the following, if true, would weaken the above argument?
ACommunist governments are motivated to respect human rights out of Communist principles, not Constitutional ones.
BThe Constitution of India is itself sympathetic to Communist principles.
CHuman rights need to be enforceable to have any meaning.
DCountries without a strong culture of human rights are prone to oppressing minorities.
A Communist governments are motivated to respect human rights out of Communist principles, not Constitutional ones.
The argument states that the concept of human rights enshrined in the constitution of India is the only reason behind the Communist party’s respect for human rights (in India). Option (a) weakens the argument by stating that the communist governments are not motivated by the principles of the constitution (of India). Instead they are motivated by their own Communist principle.
Question 44
For the following sixteen questions, read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

'Poverty is ----- more restrictive and limiting than anything else. It poverty and low standards continue then democracy, for all its fine institutions and ideals, ceases to be a liberating force. It must therefore aim continuously at the eradication of poverty and its companion unemployment. In other words, political democracy is not enough. It must develop into economic democracy also'.

Which of the following is not implied by the above passage?
ADemocracy has ceased to be a liberating force.
BDemocracies should aim to eliminate poverty.
CPoverty and unemployment go hand in hand.
DPolitical democracy should develop into economic democracy.
A Democracy has ceased to be a liberating force.
The passage doesn’t state that democracy has ceased to be liberating force instead it states that it will cease to be a liberating force if poverty and low standard continues.
Question 45
For the following sixteen questions, read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

'Poverty is ----- more restrictive and limiting than anything else. It poverty and low standards continue then democracy, for all its fine institutions and ideals, ceases to be a liberating force. It must therefore aim continuously at the eradication of poverty and its companion unemployment. In other words, political democracy is not enough. It must develop into economic democracy also'.

Which of the following views, if true, would weaken the argument of the above passage?
APolitical democracy is inseparable from economic democracy.
BPoverty does not in fact restrict freedom.
CDemocracy flourishes most in poor societies.
DEconomic democracy is a necessary condition for the elimination of unemployment.
C Democracy flourishes most in poor societies.
The author states that political democracy is not sufficient and its needs to progress to economic democracy – in other words democracy won’t work if poverty continues to rise. Choice “c” contradicts this and, therefore, weaken the given argument.

Section: Legal Aptitude

Question 1
In answering the following questions, you should not rely on any rule(s) except the rule(s) that are supplied for every problem. Further, you should not assume any fact other than 'those' stated in the problem. The aim is to test your ability to properly apply a rule to a given set of facts, even when the result is absurd or unacceptable for any other reason. It is not the aim to test any knowledge of law you may already possess.

Rules
A. The fundamental right to freedom of association includes the right to form an association as well as not join an association.
B. The fundamental right to freedom of association also includes the freedom to decide with whom to associate.
C. The fundamental right to freedom of association does not extend to the right to realise the objectives of forming the association.
D.  Fundamental rights are applicable only to laws made by or administrative actions of the State and do not apply to actions of private persons.
E. Any law in contravention of fundamental rights is unconstitutional and therefore cannot bind any person.

Facts
Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals, a private company, offered an employment contract of two years to Syed Monitul Alam. One of the clauses in the employment contract provided that Syed Monirul Alam must join Gajodhar Mazdoor Sangh (GMS), one of the trade unions active in Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals.

Decide which of the following propositions can be most reasonably inferred through the application of the stated legal rules to the facts of this case:
AThe employment contract offered to Monitul Alam to join GMS is legal as it does not restrict his freedom not to join any association.
BThe condition requiring Monirul Alam to join GMS cannot bind him as it impinges on his freedom not to join any association.
CSyed Monirul Alam cannot claim a fundamental right to freedom of association against Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals and therefore, the contract would bind him even though his freedom of association is restricted.
DThe employment contract infringes Syed Monirul Alam's freedom to decide with whom to associate and therefore is legally not enforceable.
C Syed Monirul Alam cannot claim a fundamental right to freedom of association against Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals and therefore, the contract would bind him even though his freedom of association is restricted.
As Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals is a private company and not a state, they are not bound to protect any Fundamental Rights. Monirul Alam has the Fundamental Right to join or not join those associations only which are part of the State, i.e. part of the Indian governance. Here, Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals being a private company has no obligation to fulfil Monirul's Fundamental Rights; therefore, the contract is valid and does not violate any Fundamental Rights. The question is based on Principle D and hence option c will the most appropriate answer.
Question 2
Rules
A. The fundamental right to freedom of association includes the right to form an association as well as not join an association.
B. The fundamental right to freedom of association also includes the freedom to decide with whom to associate.
C. The fundamental right to freedom of association does not extend to the right to realise the objectives of forming the association.
D.  Fundamental rights are applicable only to laws made by or administrative actions of the State and do not apply to actions of private persons.
E. Any law in contravention of fundamental rights is unconstitutional and therefore cannot bind any person.

Facts
Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals, a private company, offered an employment contract of two years to Syed Monitul Alam. One of the clauses in the employment contract provided that Syed Monirul Alam must join Gajodhar Mazdoor Sangh (GMS), one of the trade unions active in Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals.

If Parliament enacts a law which requires every employee to join the largest trade union in their workplace mandating Syed Monirul Alam to join GMS, then:
 
ASuch a law would merely govem private action to which fundamental rights do not apply.
BSuch a law would not curtail any individual's right to freedom of association.
CNeither the employment contract, nor the law of the parliament would be enforceable as they would curtail the freedom of association.
DThe law of parliament would violate an individual's freedom not to join any association and therefore be unconstitutional.
D The law of parliament would violate an individual's freedom not to join any association and therefore be unconstitutional.
The law of parliament would violate an individual's freedom not to join any association and therefore be unconstitutional. Parliament is clearly a state within the meaning of given principles. Any law in contravention of fundamental rights is unconstitutional and therefore cannot bind any person therefore, this law is unconstitutional as it has been passed by the Indian Parliament. Hence, (d) is the correct choice.
Question 3
Rules
A. The fundamental right to freedom of association includes the right to form an association as well as not join an association.
B. The fundamental right to freedom of association also includes the freedom to decide with whom to associate.
C. The fundamental right to freedom of association does not extend to the right to realise the objectives of forming the association.
D.  Fundamental rights are applicable only to laws made by or administrative actions of the State and do not apply to actions of private persons.
E. Any law in contravention of fundamental rights is unconstitutional and therefore cannot bind any person.

Facts
Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals, a private company, offered an employment contract of two years to Syed Monitul Alam. One of the clauses in the employment contract provided that Syed Monirul Alam must join Gajodhar Mazdoor Sangh (GMS), one of the trade unions active in Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals.

If Parliament enacts a law that requires a trade union to open its membership to all the employees, then
ASuch a law would not infringe any fundamental right to freedom of association.
BThe law of the parliament would curtail an individual's right not to join any association.
CSuch a law would curtail the union members' right to decide with whom they would like to associate.
DSuch a law would render the employment contract offered by Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals to Syed Monirul Alam unenforceable.
C Such a law would curtail the union members' right to decide with whom they would like to associate.
The individual members of the union also have a right to choose whom they want to associate with. As the Parliament's action is forcing them to admit everyone, such a law is therefore violating their Fundamental Rights. Putting into effect Rule (E), the law has to be declared as unconstitutional as it violates Fundamental Rights; therefore (c) is the correct choice.
Question 4
Rules
A. The fundamental right to freedom of association includes the right to form an association as well as not join an association.
B. The fundamental right to freedom of association also includes the freedom to decide with whom to associate.
C. The fundamental right to freedom of association does not extend to the right to realise the objectives of forming the association.
D.  Fundamental rights are applicable only to laws made by or administrative actions of the State and do not apply to actions of private persons.
E. Any law in contravention of fundamental rights is unconstitutional and therefore cannot bind any person.

Facts
Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals, a private company, offered an employment contract of two years to Syed Monitul Alam. One of the clauses in the employment contract provided that Syed Monirul Alam must join Gajodhar Mazdoor Sangh (GMS), one of the trade unions active in Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals.

If Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals enter into an agreement with GMS wherein the former agrees to hire only the existing members of GMS as employees, then:
AThe agreement would be illegal as it would curtail the union members' right to decide with whom they would like to associate.
BSuch an agreement would infringe the union's right to decide with whom to associate and therefore is legally not enforceable.
CThe agreement would not be enforceable as it would infringe upon the employer's right not to join an association.
DThe constitutionality of this agreement cannot be contested on grounds of contravention of fundamental rights as such rights are not applicable to private persons.
D The constitutionality of this agreement cannot be contested on grounds of contravention of fundamental rights as such rights are not applicable to private persons.
The agreement is between two private companies and thus no question of Fundamental Rights will arise because the companies do not fall in the category of state. Only those laws are to be struck down which are violating Fundamental Rights. Neither is an agreement law nor is this agreement violating Fundamental Rights as it is between two private groups, therefore, the agreement is lawful. The correct option is (d).
Question 5
Rules
A. The fundamental right to freedom of association includes the right to form an association as well as not join an association.
B. The fundamental right to freedom of association also includes the freedom to decide with whom to associate.
C. The fundamental right to freedom of association does not extend to the right to realise the objectives of forming the association.
D.  Fundamental rights are applicable only to laws made by or administrative actions of the State and do not apply to actions of private persons.
E. Any law in contravention of fundamental rights is unconstitutional and therefore cannot bind any person.

Facts
Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals, a private company, offered an employment contract of two years to Syed Monitul Alam. One of the clauses in the employment contract provided that Syed Monirul Alam must join Gajodhar Mazdoor Sangh (GMS), one of the trade unions active in Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals.

If Parliament enacts a legislation prohibiting strikes by trade unions of employees engaged in pharmaceutical industry, then:
AThe legislation would not violate the right to freedom of association.
BThe legislation would curtail the right of trade unions to strike, and therefore violate freedom of association.
CSince strike is only one of the objectives with which u trade union is fonned, right to strike is not protected by the right to freedom of association.
DNone of the above
A The legislation would not violate the right to freedom of association.
Right to form association is very different from right to strike. Going on strike is not a fundamental right. Therefore, if Parliament passes a law which does not violate the Fundamental Right of freedom of association, then such a law cannot be held as being unconstitutional. Therefore the correct choice is option (a).
Question 6
Rule: Whoever finds an unattended object can keep it unless the true owner claims that object. This does not affect the property owner's right to the ownership of the property on whicit the object is found. The right to ownership of a property does not include the right to ownership of unattended objects on that property.

Facts: Elizabeth is the CEO of a global management services company in Chcnnai and is on her way to Ranchi to deliver the convocation address at India's leading business school on the outskirts of Ranchi. Flying business class on Dolphin Airlines, she is entitled to use the lounge owned by the airline in Chennai Airport while waiting for her flight. She finds a diamond ear-ring on the floor of the lounge and gives it to the staff of Dolphin Airlines expressly stating that in the event of nobody claiming the ear-ring within six months, she would claim it back. The airline sells the ear-ring after eight months and Elizabeth files a case to recover the value of the ear-ring from the airline when she is informed about its sale.

As a judge you would order that:
AElizabeth is not entitled to compensation because the ear-ring was found on the property of the airline and therefore, the airline is entitled to sell it.
BThe airline must compensate Elizabeth because owning the lounge does not give the airline the right over all things that might be found on it.
CThe airline must compensate Elizabeth because while accepting the ear-ring from Elizabeth they had agreed to return it if nobody claimed it within six months.
DElizabeth is not entitled to compensation because she did not claim the ear- ring after the expiry of six months and the airline waited for a couple more months before selling it.
B The airline must compensate Elizabeth because owning the lounge does not give the airline the right over all things that might be found on it.
Principle mentions that anybody finding an unattended object can exercise ownership over them and therefore once Elizabeth found the earring, it became her property, and the airline should not have sold it to someone else without their permission. Therefore the correct answer is (b).
Question 7
Rule: Whoever finds an unattended object can keep it unless the true owner claims that object. This does not affect the property owner's right to the ownership of the property on whicit the object is found. The right to ownership of a property does not include the right to ownership of unattended objects on that property.

Facts: Elizabeth is the CEO of a global management services company in Chcnnai and is on her way to Ranchi to deliver the convocation address at India's leading business school on the outskirts of Ranchi. Flying business class on Dolphin Airlines, she is entitled to use the lounge owned by the airline in Chennai Airport while waiting for her flight. She finds a diamond ear-ring on the floor of the lounge and gives it to the staff of Dolphin Airlines expressly stating that in the event of nobody claiming the ear-ring within six months, she would claim it back. The airline sells the ear-ring after eight months and Elizabeth files a case to recover the value of the ear-ring from the airline when she is informed about its sale.

Assume now that Elizabeth was only an economy class passenger and was not entitled to use the airline's lounge. However, she manages to gain entry and finds the ear-ring in the lounge. The rest of the above facts remain the same. Will her illegal entry into the Lounge affect Elizabeth's right to keep the ear-ring (or be compensated for its value)?
AYes, the airline claims that Elizabeth's entry into the lounge was illegal and therefore she has no right over anything she found there
BNo, because Elizabeth's class of travel has no bearing on the Outcome in this case
CCannot be determined as we need to know how Elizabeth was able to access the airline's lounge.
DNone of the above.
B No, because Elizabeth's class of travel has no bearing on the Outcome in this case
The word "anyone” used in the principle means anyone even if he is a thief and had somehow gained access to the lounge and found that earring he would still be entitled to claim ownership over it. The fact that she was not allowed in the lounge makes no difference to the adjudication that will be made by the court on the basis of these principles. Therefore the correct answer is (b) and Elizabeth's class of travel has no bearing on the outcome in this case.
Question 8
Rule: Whoever finds an unattended object can keep it unless the true owner claims that object. This does not affect the property owner's right to the ownership of the property on whicit the object is found. The right to ownership of a property does not include the right to ownership of unattended objects on that property.

Facts: Elizabeth is the CEO of a global management services company in Chcnnai and is on her way to Ranchi to deliver the convocation address at India's leading business school on the outskirts of Ranchi. Flying business class on Dolphin Airlines, she is entitled to use the lounge owned by the airline in Chennai Airport while waiting for her flight. She finds a diamond ear-ring on the floor of the lounge and gives it to the staff of Dolphin Airlines expressly stating that in the event of nobody claiming the ear-ring within six months, she would claim it back. The airline sells the ear-ring after eight months and Elizabeth files a case to recover the value of the ear-ring from the airline when she is informed about its sale.

To the original fact scenario, the following fact is added: In the lounge there are numerous signboards which proclaim 'Any unattended item will be confiscated by Dolphin Airlines'. In this case, you would:
AOrder the airline to pay compensation to Elizabeth because the board in the lounge cannot grant property rights over unattended objects to the airline.
BDeny Elizabeth compensation because the signboard makes it evident that the airline, as owner of the lounge, is exercising all rights over all unattended items in the lounge and the ear-ring is one such item.
CDeny Elizabeth compensation because she knew any unattended item belonged to the airline.
DOrder the airline to pay compensation to Elizabeth because the property rights of the airline are relevant only if the item is unattended. The moment Elizabeth found the earring, it belonged to her.
A Order the airline to pay compensation to Elizabeth because the board in the lounge cannot grant property rights over unattended objects to the airline.
Putting up the signboard does not make any difference to the case as the principle specifically prohibits the owner of land from 'claiming any ownership over unattended property. Hence the correct answer is (a). The airline will pay compensation to Elizabeth because the board in the lounge cannot grant property rights over unattended objects to the airline.
Question 9
Rule A: The State shall not discriminate, either directly or indirectly, on the grounds of sex, race, religion, caste, creed, sexual orientation, marital status, disability, pregnancy, place of birth, gender orientation or any other status.

Rule B: Direct discrimination occurs when for a reason related to one or more prohibited grounds a person or group of persons is treated less favourably than another person or another group of persons in a comparable situation.

Rule C: Indirect discrimination occurs when a provision, criterion or practice which is neutral on the face of it would have the effect of putting persons having a status or a characteristic associated with one or more prohibited grounds at a particular disadvantage compared with other persons.

Rule D: Discrimination shall be justified when such discrimination is absolutely necessary in order to promote the well-being of disadvantaged groups, such as women, dalits, religious minorities, sexual minorities or disabled persons.

Facts:
On 2nd October 2010, the Governor of the state of Bihar ordered the release of all women prisoners who were serving sentence of less than one year imprisonment to mark the occasion of Mahatma Gandhi's birthday.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the Governor's order?
AIt discriminates directly on the ground of sex.
BIt discriminates indirectly on the ground of sex.
CIt does not discriminate oil the ground of sex.
DIt discriminates directly as well as indirectly on tile ground of sex.
A It discriminates directly on the ground of sex.
The Governor's choice to release all female prisoners has resulted in direct discrimination as the male prisoners have not been provided with an advantage that all the female prisoners have been provided with. Therefore it is direct discrimination on the grounds of sex. Thus the correct answer is (a). Facts also do not mention that releasing women prisoners was absolutely necessary.
Question 10
Rule A: The State shall not discriminate, either directly or indirectly, on the grounds of sex, race, religion, caste, creed, sexual orientation, marital status, disability, pregnancy, place of birth, gender orientation or any other status.

Rule B: Direct discrimination occurs when for a reason related to one or more prohibited grounds a person or group of persons is treated less favourably than another person or another group of persons in a comparable situation.

Rule C: Indirect discrimination occurs when a provision, criterion or practice which is neutral on the face of it would have the effect of putting persons having a status or a characteristic associated with one or more prohibited grounds at a particular disadvantage compared with other persons.

Rule D: Discrimination shall be justified when such discrimination is absolutely necessary in order to promote the well-being of disadvantaged groups, such as women, dalits, religious minorities, sexual minorities or disabled persons.

Facts:
On 2nd October 2010, the Governor of the state of Bihar ordered the release of all women prisoners who were serving sentence of less than one year imprisonment to mark the occasion of Mahatma Gandhi's birthday.

Is the governor's order justified under Rule D?
AYes, because it is for the well-being of women prisoners.
BNo because it is not absolutely necessary for the well-being of women prisoners.
CNo, because it does not promote the well-being of women prisoners or the society.
DNone of the above
C No, because it does not promote the well-being of women prisoners or the society.
Rule D provides for discrimination to be justified if it is necessary for the development of a particular group in society. Looking at the release order by the Governor he has ordered the discharge of all female prisoners, which by itself is not necessary for the development of the female population. There was no absolutely necessity to release women prisoners, therefore, the correct choice is (c).
Question 11
Rule A: The State shall not discriminate, either directly or indirectly, on the grounds of sex, race, religion, caste, creed, sexual orientation, marital status, disability, pregnancy, place of birth, gender orientation or any other status.

Rule B: Direct discrimination occurs when for a reason related to one or more prohibited grounds a person or group of persons is treated less favourably than another person or another group of persons in a comparable situation.

Rule C: Indirect discrimination occurs when a provision, criterion or practice which is neutral on the face of it would have the effect of putting persons having a status or a characteristic associated with one or more prohibited grounds at a particular disadvantage compared with other persons.

Rule D: Discrimination shall be justified when such discrimination is absolutely necessary in order to promote the well-being of disadvantaged groups, such as women, dalits, religious minorities, sexual minorities or disabled persons.

Facts:
On 2nd October 2010, the Governor of the state of Bihar ordered the release of all women prisoners who were serving sentence of less than one year imprisonment to mark the occasion of Mahatma Gandhi's birthday.

Assume that the Governor also made a second order requiring the release of all persons under the age of 25 and over the age of 65 who were serving a sentence of less than one year's imprisonment. Under the Rules, this order is:
ADirectly discriminatory.
BIndirectly discriminatory.
CNot discriminatory.
DDiscriminatory, but justifiable.
A Directly discriminatory.
Discrimination has been made on the ground of age which is not an allowed criteria in the principle. Therefore, this is a case of direct discrimination done on the basis of age. Hence the correct answer is (a).
Question 12
Rule A: The State shall not discriminate, either directly or indirectly, on the grounds of sex, race, religion, caste, creed, sexual orientation, marital status, disability, pregnancy, place of birth, gender orientation or any other status.

Rule B: Direct discrimination occurs when for a reason related to one or more prohibited grounds a person or group of persons is treated less favourably than another person or another group of persons in a comparable situation.

Rule C: Indirect discrimination occurs when a provision, criterion or practice which is neutral on the face of it would have the effect of putting persons having a status or a characteristic associated with one or more prohibited grounds at a particular disadvantage compared with other persons.

Rule D: Discrimination shall be justified when such discrimination is absolutely necessary in order to promote the well-being of disadvantaged groups, such as women, dalits, religious minorities, sexual minorities or disabled persons.

Facts:
On 2nd October 2010, the Governor of the state of Bihar ordered the release of all women prisoners who were serving sentence of less than one year imprisonment to mark the occasion of Mahatma Gandhi's birthday.

Assume further that the government made a third order, releasing all graduate prisoners who are serving a sentence of less than one year's imprisonment. Which of the following statistics would have to be true for this order to be indirectly discriminatory?
AOnly 13% of the prison population in Bihar have a graduation degree.
BOf the graduate prisoners. 89% belong to upper castes.
COnly 25% women in Bihar get a graduation degree.
DAll of the above.
B Of the graduate prisoners. 89% belong to upper castes.
Discrimination has been made between Graduate students serving less than one year, and Non-graduate students serving less than one year. As one group is in overwhelming majority, therefore, it would be indirect discrimination against the other because of the classification made on the basis of graduation. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).
Question 13
Rule A: The State shall not discriminate, either directly or indirectly, on the grounds of sex, race, religion, caste, creed, sexual orientation, marital status, disability, pregnancy, place of birth, gender orientation or any other status.

Rule B: Direct discrimination occurs when for a reason related to one or more prohibited grounds a person or group of persons is treated less favourably than another person or another group of persons in a comparable situation.

Rule C: Indirect discrimination occurs when a provision, criterion or practice which is neutral on the face of it would have the effect of putting persons having a status or a characteristic associated with one or more prohibited grounds at a particular disadvantage compared with other persons.

Rule D: Discrimination shall be justified when such discrimination is absolutely necessary in order to promote the well-being of disadvantaged groups, such as women, dalits, religious minorities, sexual minorities or disabled persons.

Rule E: 'A discriminatory act shall be justified if its effect is to promote the well- being of disadvantaged groups, such as women, dalits, religious minorities, sexual minorities or disabled persons.'

Facts:
On 2nd October 2010, the Governor of the state of Bihar ordered the release of all women prisoners who were serving sentence of less than one year imprisonment to mark the occasion of Mahatma Gandhi's birthday.

Would the first Order of release of all women prisoners be justified under Rule E?
AYes because it promotes the well-being, of women.
BNo, because it does not promote the well-being of women prisoners
CNo, because it does not promote the well-being of all disadvantaged groups equally.
DNone of the above.
C No, because it does not promote the well-being of all disadvantaged groups equally.
Rule E provides for discrimination to be justified if it is necessary for the development of women. Looking at the release order by the Governor; he has ordered the discharge of all female prisoners, which by itself is not sufficient for the development of the female population. Releasing women prisoners does not effect their well being. Hence, the correct answer is (c).
Question 14
Rules:
A. A minor is a person who is below the age of eighteen. However, where a guardian administers the minor's property the age of majority is twenty-one.
B. A minor is not permitted by law to enter into a contract. Hence, where a minor enters into a contract with a major person, the contract is not enforceable. This effectively means that neither the minor nor the other party can make any claim on the basis of the contract.
C. In a contract with a minor, if the other party hands over any money or confers any other benefit on the minor, the same shall not be recoverable from the minor unless the otherparty was deceived by the minor lo hand over money or any other benefit. The other party will have to show that (he minor misrepresented her age, he was ignorant about the age of the minor and that he handed over the benefit on the basis of such representation.

Facts
Ajay convinces Bandita, a girl aged IR that she should sell her land to him. Bandita's mother Chaaru is her guardian. Nonetheless Bandita, without the permission of Chaaru, sells the land to Ajay for a total sum of rupees fifty lakh, paid in full and final settlement of the price. Chaaru challenges this transaction claiming that Bandita is a minor and hence the possession of the land shall not be given to Ajay. Thus Ajay is in a difficult situation and has no idea how to recover his money from Bandita.

Chaaru is justified in challenging the sale transaction because:
ABandita is of unsound mind and is not in a position to make rational decisions.
BThough Bandita is eighteen year old, she will be treated as a minor, as Chaaru is her guardian.
CThough Bandita is eighteen year old, she cannot sell the land without the permission of her mother.
DThough Bandita is eighteen year old she should not be treated like a person who has attained the age of majority.
B Though Bandita is eighteen year old, she will be treated as a minor, as Chaaru is her guardian.
Charu can challenge the sale on the ground that Bandita was a minor and therefore she cannot enter into contract of sale. and the land could only be sold via her administrator, i.e. Charu. Therefore, the sale would be void ab initio.
Question 15
Rules:
A. A minor is a person who is below the age of eighteen. However, where a guardian administers the minor's property the age of majority is twenty-one.
B. A minor is not permitted by law to enter into a contract. Hence, where a minor enters into a contract with a major person, the contract is not enforceable. This effectively means that neither the minor nor the other party can make any claim on the basis of the contract.
C. In a contract with a minor, if the other party hands over any money or confers any other benefit on the minor, the same shall not be recoverable from the minor unless the otherparty was deceived by the minor lo hand over money or any other benefit. The other party will have to show that (he minor misrepresented her age, he was ignorant about the age of the minor and that he handed over the benefit on the basis of such representation.

Facts
Ajay convinces Bandita, a girl aged IR that she should sell her land to him. Bandita's mother Chaaru is her guardian. Nonetheless Bandita, without the permission of Chaaru, sells the land to Ajay for a total sum of rupees fifty lakh, paid in full and final settlement of the price. Chaaru challenges this transaction claiming that Bandita is a minor and hence the possession of the land shall not be given to Ajay. Thus Ajay is in a difficult situation and has no idea how to recover his money from Bandita.

Ajay can be allowed to recover the money only if he can show that:
AHe was deceived by Bandita who misrepresented her age.
BHe honestly believed that Bandita was empowered under the law to sell the land.
CHe was an honest person who had paid the full price of the land to Bandita.
DBoth (a) and (b).
A He was deceived by Bandita who misrepresented her age.
Ajay can be allowed to recover the money only if he can show that he was deceived by Bandita who misrepresented her age. As the third principle quite clearly states, the only way that he can reclaim the amount that he paid to Bandita is if he can show that Bandita misrepresented her age.The correct answer is (a).
Question 16
Rules:
A. A minor is a person who is below the age of eighteen. However, where a guardian administers the minor's property the age of majority is twenty-one.
B. A minor is not permitted by law to enter into a contract. Hence, where a minor enters into a contract with a major person, the contract is not enforceable. This effectively means that neither the minor nor the other party can make any claim on the basis of the contract.
C. In a contract with a minor, if the other party hands over any money or confers any other benefit on the minor, the same shall not be recoverable from the minor unless the otherparty was deceived by the minor lo hand over money or any other benefit. The other party will have to show that (he minor misrepresented her age, he was ignorant about the age of the minor and that he handed over the benefit on the basis of such representation.

Facts
Ajay convinces Bandita, a girl aged IR that she should sell her land to him. Bandita's mother Chaaru is her guardian. Nonetheless Bandita, without the permission of Chaaru, sells the land to Ajay for a total sum of rupees fifty lakh, paid in full and final settlement of the price. Chaaru challenges this transaction claiming that Bandita is a minor and hence the possession of the land shall not be given to Ajay. Thus Ajay is in a difficult situation and has no idea how to recover his money from Bandita.

In order to defend the sale, Bandita will need to show that
ABandita has attained the age of majority.
BBandita is mature enough to make rational decisions regarding her own affairs.
CThe sale transaction was beneficial to her interest and will enhance her financial status.
DNone of the above.
A Bandita has attained the age of majority.
In order to defend the sale, Bandita will need to show that she has attained the age of majority. If she can successfully illustrate in court that Bandita was a major and capable of administering and transferring the property, then no questions can be raised on the transaction.
Question 17
Rules:
A. A minor is a person who is below the age of eighteen. However, where a guardian administers the minor's property the age of majority is twenty-one.
B. A minor is not permitted by law to enter into a contract. Hence, where a minor enters into a contract with a major person, the contract is not enforceable. This effectively means that neither the minor nor the other party can make any claim on the basis of the contract.
C. In a contract with a minor, if the other party hands over any money or confers any other benefit on the minor, the same shall not be recoverable from the minor unless the otherparty was deceived by the minor lo hand over money or any other benefit. The other party will have to show that (he minor misrepresented her age, he was ignorant about the age of the minor and that he handed over the benefit on the basis of such representation.

Facts
Ajay convinces Bandita, a girl aged IR that she should sell her land to him. Bandita's mother Chaaru is her guardian. Nonetheless Bandita, without the permission of Chaaru, sells the land to Ajay for a total sum of rupees fifty lakh, paid in full and final settlement of the price. Chaaru challenges this transaction claiming that Bandita is a minor and hence the possession of the land shall not be given to Ajay. Thus Ajay is in a difficult situation and has no idea how to recover his money from Bandita.

Which of the following is correct?
AAjay should be allowed to recover the money because even though there is no contract, Bandita and Chaaru should not be allowed to unjustly benefit from Ajay's money.
BAjay should be allowed the possession of the land because Chaaru can always decide to approve the transaction between Ajay and Bandita.
CAjay should not be allowed to recover because he induced Bandita, a minor; to sell the land.
DNone of the above.
D None of the above.
It is a fundamental principle of solving a legal reasoning question that the given facts must comply with principles but in the given case none of the principles seems to be in alignment with the given facts hence the correct option will be (d).
Question 18
Rules:
A. A minor is a person who is below the age of eighteen. However, where a guardian administers the minor's property the age of majority is twenty-one.
B. A minor is not permitted by law to enter into a contract. Hence, where a minor enters into a contract with a major person, the contract is not enforceable. This effectively means that neither the minor nor the other party can make any claim on the basis of the contract.
C. In a contract with a minor, if the other party hands over any money or confers any other benefit on the minor, the same shall not be recoverable from the minor unless the otherparty was deceived by the minor lo hand over money or any other benefit. The other party will have to show that (he minor misrepresented her age, he was ignorant about the age of the minor and that he handed over the benefit on the basis of such representation.

Facts
Ajay convinces Bandita, a girl aged IR that she should sell her land to him. Bandita's mother Chaaru is her guardian. Nonetheless Bandita, without the permission of Chaaru, sells the land to Ajay for a total sum of rupees fifty lakh, paid in full and final settlement of the price. Chaaru challenges this transaction claiming that Bandita is a minor and hence the possession of the land shall not be given to Ajay. Thus Ajay is in a difficult situation and has no idea how to recover his money from Bandita.

Which of the following is correct?
AIf Ajay is allowed to recover the money, that will defeat the law framed for protecting the minors against fraudulent persons.
BIf Ajay is not allowed to recover that will cause him injustice as he has not paid oil' the entire sale price.
CIf Ajay is allowed to recover, Chaaru will benefit from both the money and the land.
DNone of the above.
D None of the above.
It is a fundamental principle of solving a legal reasoning question that the given facts must comply with principles but in the given case none of the principles seems to be in alignment with the given facts hence the correct option will be (d).
Question 19
Rules
A. The act of using threats to force another person to enter into a contract is called coercion.
B. The act of using influence on another and taking undue advantage of that person is called undue influence.
C. In order to prove coercion, the existence of the use of threat, in any form and manner, is necessary. If coercion is proved, the person who has been so threatened can refuse to abide by the contract.
D. In order to prove undue-influence, there has to be a pre-existing relationship between the parties to a contract. The relationship has to be of such a nature that one is in a position to influence the other. If it is proven that there has been undue influence, the party who has been so influenced need not enforce the contract or perform his obligations under the contract.

Facts
Aadil and Baalu are best friends. Aadil is the son of multimillionaire business person, Chulbal who owns Maakhan Pharmaceuticals. Baalu is the son of a bank employee, Dhanraj. One day, Aadil is abducted from his office by Baalu. Chulbul receives a phone call from Dhamaj telling him that if he does not make Baalu the CEO of NIaakhan Pharmaceuticals, Aadil will be killed. Chulbul reluctantly agrees to make the Baalu the CEO. Subsequently Chulbul and Baalu sign an employment contract. However as soon as Aadil is released and safely returns home, Chulbul tells Baala that he shall not enforce the employment contract. Baalu and Dhanraj are not sure as to what is to be done next.

As per the rules and the given facts, who coerces whom:
AAadil coerces Baalu.
BBaalu coerces Chulbul.Baalu coerces Chulbul.
CDhanraj coerces Chulbul
DNone of the above.
C Dhanraj coerces Chulbul
Coercion means that a threat to force another person must be there, and such threat must be issued to enter into a contract. Since a threat has been issued from Dhanraj to Chulbul; therefore the correct answer is (c).
Question 20
Rules
A. The act of using threats to force another person to enter into a contract is called coercion.
B. The act of using influence on another and taking undue advantage of that person is called undue influence.
C. In order to prove coercion, the existence of the use of threat, in any form and manner, is necessary. If coercion is proved, the person who has been so threatened can refuse to abide by the contract.
D. In order to prove undue-influence, there has to be a pre-existing relationship between the parties to a contract. The relationship has to be of such a nature that one is in a position to influence the other. If it is proven that there has been undue influence, the party who has been so influenced need not enforce the contract or perform his obligations under the contract.

Facts
Aadil and Baalu are best friends. Aadil is the son of multimillionaire business person, Chulbal who owns Maakhan Pharmaceuticals. Baalu is the son of a bank employee, Dhanraj. One day, Aadil is abducted from his office by Baalu. Chulbul receives a phone call from Dhamaj telling him that if he does not make Baalu the CEO of NIaakhan Pharmaceuticals, Aadil will be killed. Chulbul reluctantly agrees to make the Baalu the CEO. Subsequently Chulbul and Baalu sign an employment contract. However as soon as Aadil is released and safely returns home, Chulbul tells Baala that he shall not enforce the employment contract. Baalu and Dhanraj are not sure as to what is to be done next.

In the above fact situation:
AThere is undue influence exercised by Dhanraj on Baalu.
BThere is undue influence exercised by Aadil on Chulbul.
CThere is no undue influence.
DNone of the above.
C There is no undue influence.
For an undue influence there has to be a pre-existing relationship between the parties to a contract, and using such undue influence on another and taking undue advantage of that person; In this case there was no relationship between Baalu and Chulbul, therefore undue influence can never be established between them.
Question 21
Rules
A. The act of using threats to force another person to enter into a contract is called coercion.
B. The act of using influence on another and taking undue advantage of that person is called undue influence.
C. In order to prove coercion, the existence of the use of threat, in any form and manner, is necessary. If coercion is proved, the person who has been so threatened can refuse to abide by the contract.
D. In order to prove undue-influence, there has to be a pre-existing relationship between the parties to a contract. The relationship has to be of such a nature that one is in a position to influence the other. If it is proven that there has been undue influence, the party who has been so influenced need not enforce the contract or perform his obligations under the contract.

Facts
Aadil and Baalu are best friends. Aadil is the son of multimillionaire business person, Chulbal who owns Maakhan Pharmaceuticals. Baalu is the son of a bank employee, Dhanraj. One day, Aadil is abducted from his office by Baalu. Chulbul receives a phone call from Dhamaj telling him that if he does not make Baalu the CEO of NIaakhan Pharmaceuticals, Aadil will be killed. Chulbul reluctantly agrees to make the Baalu the CEO. Subsequently Chulbul and Baalu sign an employment contract. However as soon as Aadil is released and safely returns home, Chulbul tells Baala that he shall not enforce the employment contract. Baalu and Dhanraj are not sure as to what is to be done next.

Chulbul is:
AJustified in refusing to enforce the employment contract as Chulbul was coerced by Dhanraj.
BJustified in refusing to enforce the employment contract as Baalu was complicit in the coercive act
CNot juslilied in refusing to enforce the employment contract as Baalu was an innocent person and has not coerced Chulbul.
DBoth a) and b).
D Both a) and b).
It is evident from the facts that coercion has been used on Chulbul by Dhanraj, hence Chulbul is justified in refusing to enforce the employment contract as Chulbul was coerced by Dhanraj and in refusing to enforce the employment contract as Baalu was complicit in the coercive act. Correct option is (d).
Question 22
Rules
A. The act of using threats to force another person to enter into a contract is called coercion.
B. The act of using influence on another and taking undue advantage of that person is called undue influence.
C. In order to prove coercion, the existence of the use of threat, in any form and manner, is necessary. If coercion is proved, the person who has been so threatened can refuse to abide by the contract.
D. In order to prove undue-influence, there has to be a pre-existing relationship between the parties to a contract. The relationship has to be of such a nature that one is in a position to influence the other. If it is proven that there has been undue influence, the party who has been so influenced need not enforce the contract or perform his obligations under the contract.

Facts
Aadil and Baalu are best friends. Aadil is the son of multimillionaire business person, Chulbal who owns Maakhan Pharmaceuticals. Baalu is the son of a bank employee, Dhanraj. One day, Aadil is abducted from his office by Baalu. Chulbul receives a phone call from Dhamaj telling him that if he does not make Baalu the CEO of NIaakhan Pharmaceuticals, Aadil will be killed. Chulbul reluctantly agrees to make the Baalu the CEO. Subsequently Chulbul and Baalu sign an employment contract. However as soon as Aadil is released and safely returns home, Chulbul tells Baala that he shall not enforce the employment contract. Baalu and Dhanraj are not sure as to what is to be done next.

Baalu will succeed in getting the employment contract enforced if he can show that
AHe is the best friend of Aadil
BIt was his father, and not he, who used coercion against Chulbul.
CChulbul has promised his father to employ him.
DNone of the above.
B It was his father, and not he, who used coercion against Chulbul.
Here the parties to the contract are Baalu and Chulbul. Baalu will succeed in getting the employment contract enforced if he can show that it was his father, and not he, who used coercion against Chulbul. Therefore, the correct choice is (b).
Question 23
Rule A: When a State undertakes any measure, the effects of the measure must be the same for all those who are affected by it.

Facts
100 mountaineers embarked on an extremely risky climbing expedition in Leh. Weather conditions worsened five days into the expedition and the mountaineers are trapped under heavy snow. The government received information of this tragedy only two weeks after the unfortunate incident and has only 24 hours in which to send rescue helicopters. Weather stations across the world confirm that this particular region of Leh will experience blizzards of unprecedented intensity for almost two weeks after this 24 hour window rendering any helicopter activity in the region impossible and certain death for anyone left behind. The government has only five rescue helicopters with a maximum capacity of 50 people (excluding pilots and requisite soldiers) and these helicopters can fly only once in 24 hours to such altitudes.

As the Air Force gets ready to send the helicopters, an emergency hearing is convened in the Supreme Court to challenge this measure as this would leave 50 people to die.

If you were the judge required to apply Rule A, you would decide that:
AAs many lives must be saved as possible.
BIf everyone cannot be rescued, then everyone must be left behind.
CA measure cannot be upheld at the cost of 50 lives.
DIt must be left to those who are trapped to decide if they want half amongst them to be saved and leave the rest to die.
A As many lives must be saved as possible.
There is no choice of selectively saving a specific group or specific individuals. Therefore, we have to either save them all or save no one; in this way only it can be ensured that the effect is the same for all. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).
Question 24
Rule A: When a State undertakes any measure, the effects of the measure must be the same for all those who are affected by it.
Rule B: When a State undertakes any measure, everyone affected must have an equal chance to benefit from it.

Facts
100 mountaineers embarked on an extremely risky climbing expedition in Leh. Weather conditions worsened five days into the expedition and the mountaineers are trapped under heavy snow. The government received information of this tragedy only two weeks after the unfortunate incident and has only 24 hours in which to send rescue helicopters. Weather stations across the world confirm that this particular region of Leh will experience blizzards of unprecedented intensity for almost two weeks after this 24 hour window rendering any helicopter activity in the region impossible and certain death for anyone left behind. The government has only five rescue helicopters with a maximum capacity of 50 people (excluding pilots and requisite soldiers) and these helicopters can fly only once in 24 hours to such altitudes.

As the Air Force gets ready to send the helicopters, an emergency hearing is convened in the Supreme Court to challenge this measure as this would leave 50 people to die.

As the government prepares to send in rescue helicopters, which option would be acceptable only under Rule B and not Rule A:
AA lottery to choose the 50 survivors excluding those diagnosed with terminal illnesses from participating in the lottery.
BA lottery to decide the 50 survivors with single parents of children below five years of age automatically qualifying to be rescued.
CThe 50 youngest people should be rescued.
DNone of the above.
D None of the above.
In all the options provided, for Rule B to be applicable everyone should have an equal chance to benefit from the same. In all the given situations, however, there is no equal opportunity for all those trapped to benefit from the action of the government. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).
Question 25
Rule A: When a State undertakes any measure, the effects of the measure must be the same for all those who are affected by it.
Rule B: When a State undertakes any measure, everyone affected must have an equal chance to benefit from it.

Facts
100 mountaineers embarked on an extremely risky climbing expedition in Leh. Weather conditions worsened five days into the expedition and the mountaineers are trapped under heavy snow. The government received information of this tragedy only two weeks after the unfortunate incident and has only 24 hours in which to send rescue helicopters. Weather stations across the world confirm that this particular region of Leh will experience blizzards of unprecedented intensity for almost two weeks after this 24 hour window rendering any helicopter activity in the region impossible and certain death for anyone left behind. The government has only five rescue helicopters with a maximum capacity of 50 people (excluding pilots and requisite soldiers) and these helicopters can fly only once in 24 hours to such altitudes.

As the Air Force gets ready to send the helicopters, an emergency hearing is convened in the Supreme Court to challenge this measure as this would leave 50 people to die.

Choosing 50 survivors exclusively by a lottery would be:
APermissible under Rules A and B.
BImpermissible under Rule A and B.
CPermissible only under Rule B.
DPermissible only under Rule A.
C Permissible only under Rule B.
Lottery offers an equal opportunity for everyone to benefit from it as there is no chance of any bias or any special treatment provided to any group. Lottery would be permissible under rule B. Hence, (C) is the most appropriate option.
Question 26
Rule A: When a State undertakes any measure, the effects of the measure must be the same for all those who are affected by it.
Rule B: When a State undertakes any measure, everyone affected must have an equal chance to benefit from it.

Facts
100 mountaineers embarked on an extremely risky climbing expedition in Leh. Weather conditions worsened five days into the expedition and the mountaineers are trapped under heavy snow. The government received information of this tragedy only two weeks after the unfortunate incident and has only 24 hours in which to send rescue helicopters. Weather stations across the world confirm that this particular region of Leh will experience blizzards of unprecedented intensity for almost two weeks after this 24 hour window rendering any helicopter activity in the region impossible and certain death for anyone left behind. The government has only five rescue helicopters with a maximum capacity of 50 people (excluding pilots and requisite soldiers) and these helicopters can fly only once in 24 hours to such altitudes.

As the Air Force gets ready to send the helicopters, an emergency hearing is convened in the Supreme Court to challenge this measure as this would leave 50 people to die.

If the government decides that it will either save everyone or save none, it would be:
APermissible under Rules A and B.
BImpermissible under Rule A and B.
CPermissible only under Rule A.
DPermissible only under Rule B.
A Permissible under Rules A and B.
Where there is no choice of selectively saving a specific group or specific individuals and you have to save all or none, (a) will be the most appropriate option. Rule A clearly provides for effects of the measure must be same and Rule B mention equal benefit hence both the rules are applicable.
Question 27
Rules
A. A person is an employee of another if the mode and the manner in which he or she carries out his work is subject to control and supervision of the latter.
B. An employer is required to provide compensation to his or her employees for any injury caused by an accident arising in the course of employment. The words 'in the course of the employment' means in the course of the work which the employee is contracted to do and which is incidental to it.

Facts
Messrs. ZafarAbidi and Co. (Company) manufactures bidis with the help of persons known as `pattadars'. The pattadars are supplied tobacco and leaves by the Company and are required to roll them into bidis and bring the bidis back to the Company. The pattadars are free to roll the bidis either in the factory or anywhere else they prefer. They are not bound to attend the factory for any fixed hours of work or for any fixed number of days. Neither are they required to roll up any fixed number of bidis. The Company verifies whether the bidis adhere to the specified instructions or not and pays the pattadars on the basis of the number of bidis that are found to be of right quality. Aashish Mathew is one of the pattadars of the Company. He was hit by a car just outside the precinct of the factory while he was heading to have lunch in a nearby food- stall. Aashish Mathew has applied for compensation from the Company.

Which of the following statements can most plausibly be inferred from the application of the rules to the given facts:
AAashish Mathew is an employee of the Company because the latter exercises control over the manner in which Aashish Mathew carries out his work.
BAashish Mathew is not an employee but an independent contractor as he does not have a fixed salary.
CAashish Mathew is an employee because the Company exercises control over the final quality of the bidis.
DVerification of the quality of bidis amounts to control over the product and not control over the mode and method of work and therefore, Aashish Mathew is not an employee of the Company.
B Aashish Mathew is not an employee but an independent contractor as he does not have a fixed salary.
Aashish Mathew is not an employee but an independent contractor as he does not have a fixed salary. They do the work as they deem fit and according to their own hours. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).
Question 28
Rules
A. A person is an employee of another if the mode and the manner in which he or she carries out his work is subject to control and supervision of the latter.
B. An employer is required to provide compensation to his or her employees for any injury caused by an accident arising in the course of employment. The words 'in the course of the employment' means in the course of the work which the employee is contracted to do and which is incidental to it.

Facts
Messrs. ZafarAbidi and Co. (Company) manufactures bidis with the help of persons known as `pattadars'. The pattadars are supplied tobacco and leaves by the Company and are required to roll them into bidis and bring the bidis back to the Company. The pattadars are free to roll the bidis either in the factory or anywhere else they prefer. They are not bound to attend the factory for any fixed hours of work or for any fixed number of days. Neither are they required to roll up any fixed number of bidis. The Company verifies whether the bidis adhere to the specified instructions or not and pays the pattadars on the basis of the number of bidis that are found to be of right quality. Aashish Mathew is one of the pattadars of the Company. He was hit by a car just outside the precinct of the factory while he was heading to have lunch in a nearby food- stall. Aashish Mathew has applied for compensation from the Company.

In case the patladars were compulsorily required to work in the factory for a minimum number of hours every day, then it would be correct to state that:
AThe injury was not caused by an accident in the course of employment
BAashish Mathew would not be an employee as the Company would have still not exercised control over the manner of work
CThe injury suffered by Aashish Mathew could not be held to be one caused by an accident.
DStipulations on place and hours of work relate to manner and mode of work and therefore, Aashish Mathew would be held to be an employee of the Company.
A The injury was not caused by an accident in the course of employment
Taking a bus would not be part of the course of employment as his taking a bus is in no way associated to rolling bidis. Therefore, the company would not be liable to pay him any compensation. As per the given principle, the act should be incidental to or within the course of normal work to be a part of the course of employment.
Question 29
Rules
A. A person is an employee of another if the mode and the manner in which he or she carries out his work is subject to control and supervision of the latter.
B. An employer is required to provide compensation to his or her employees for any injury caused by an accident arising in the course of employment. The words 'in the course of the employment' means in the course of the work which the employee is contracted to do and which is incidental to it.

Facts
Messrs. ZafarAbidi and Co. (Company) manufactures bidis with the help of persons known as `pattadars'. The pattadars are supplied tobacco and leaves by the Company and are required to roll them into bidis and bring the bidis back to the Company. The pattadars are free to roll the bidis either in the factory or anywhere else they prefer. They are not bound to attend the factory for any fixed hours of work or for any fixed number of days. Neither are they required to roll up any fixed number of bidis. The Company verifies whether the bidis adhere to the specified instructions or not and pays the pattadars on the basis of the number of bidis that are found to be of right quality. Aashish Mathew is one of the pattadars of the Company. He was hit by a car just outside the precinct of the factory while he was heading to have lunch in a nearby food- stall. Aashish Mathew has applied for compensation from the Company.

According to the facts and the rules specified, which of the following propositions is correct?
AThe Company is not liable to pay compensation as the injury to Aashish Mathew was not caused by an accident arising in the course of employment.
BThe Company is liable to pay the compensation.
CSince the injury did not arise in the course of employment, the Company would not be liable to pay the compensation even though Aashish Mathew is an employee of the company.
DThe Company is liable to pay the compensation as Aashish Mathew is a contracted pattadar with the company.
C Since the injury did not arise in the course of employment, the Company would not be liable to pay the compensation even though Aashish Mathew is an employee of the company.
Taking a bus would not be part of the course of employment as his taking a bus is in no way associated to rolling bidis. Therefore, the company would not be liable to pay him any compensation. As per the given principle, the act should be incidental to or within the course of normal work to be a part of the course of employment. Since the injury did not arise in the course of employment, the Company would not be liable to pay the compensation even though Aashish Mathew is an employee of the company.
Question 30
Rules
A. A person is an employee of another if the mode and the manner in which he or she carries out his work is subject to control and supervision of the latter.
B. An employer is required to provide compensation to his or her employees for any injury caused by an accident arising in the course of employment. The words 'in the course of the employment' means in the course of the work which the employee is contracted to do and which is incidental to it.

Facts
Messrs. ZafarAbidi and Co. (Company) manufactures bidis with the help of persons known as `pattadars'. The pattadars are supplied tobacco and leaves by the Company and are required to roll them into bidis and bring the bidis back to the Company. The pattadars are free to roll the bidis either in the factory or anywhere else they prefer. They are not bound to attend the factory for any fixed hours of work or for any fixed number of days. Neither are they required to roll up any fixed number of bidis. The Company verifies whether the bidis adhere to the specified instructions or not and pays the pattadars on the basis of the number of bidis that are found to be of right quality. Aashish Mathew is one of the pattadars of the Company. He was hit by a car just outside the precinct of the factory while he was heading to have lunch in a nearby food- stall. Aashish Mathew has applied for compensation from the Company.

Select the statement that could be said to be most direct inference from specified facts:
AThe injury to Aashish Mathew did not arise in the course of employment as he was not rolling bidis at the time when he was hit by the car.
BSince the Ashish Mathew is a contracted pattadar with the Company, it shall be presumed that the injury was caused by an accident in the course of employment.
CSince there was no relationship of employment between Aashish Mathew and the Company, the injury suffered by Aashish Mathew could not be held to be one arising in the course of employment' notwithstanding the fact that the concerned injury was caused while he was involved in an activity incidental to his duties.
DAs the concerned injury was caused to Aashish Mathew while he was involved in an activity incidental to his duties, the injury did arise in the course of employment.
C Since there was no relationship of employment between Aashish Mathew and the Company, the injury suffered by Aashish Mathew could not be held to be one arising in the course of employment' notwithstanding the fact that the concerned injury was caused while he was involved in an activity incidental to his duties.
Since there was no relationship of employment between Aashish Mathew and the Company, the injury suffered by Aashish Mathew could not be held to be one arising in the course of employment, notwithstanding the fact that the concerned injury was caused while he was involved in an activity incidental to his duties.
Question 31
Rules
A. A person is an employee of another if the mode and the manner in which he or she carries out his work is subject to control and supervision of the latter.
B. An employer is required to provide compensation to his or her employees for any injury caused by an accident arising in the course of employment. The words 'in the course of the employment' means in the course of the work which the employee is contracted to do and which is incidental to it.

Facts
Messrs. ZafarAbidi and Co. (Company) manufactures bidis with the help of persons known as `pattadars'. The pattadars are supplied tobacco and leaves by the Company and are required to roll them into bidis and bring the bidis back to the Company. The pattadars are free to roll the bidis either in the factory or anywhere else they prefer. They are not bound to attend the factory for any fixed hours of work or for any fixed number of days. Neither are they required to roll up any fixed number of bidis. The Company verifies whether the bidis adhere to the specified instructions or not and pays the pattadars on the basis of the number of bidis that are found to be of right quality. Aashish Mathew is one of the pattadars of the Company. He was hit by a car just outside the precinct of the factory while he was heading to have lunch in a nearby food- stall. Aashish Mathew has applied for compensation from the Company.

If the pattadars were compulsorily required to work in the factory for a minimum number of hours every day, then the Company would have been liable to pay compensation to Aashish Mathew if the latter:
AHad been assaulted and grievously hurt by his neighbour inside the factory precincts over a property dispute.
BHad slipped and fractured his arm while trying to commute on a city bus from his home to the factory.
CHad been injured while commuting on a bus provided by the Company and which he was required by his contract to use every day.
DHad been caught in the middle of a cross-fire between police and a gang of robbers while travelling to work on a city bus.
C Had been injured while commuting on a bus provided by the Company and which he was required by his contract to use every day.
Aashish Mathew would have to comply with the terms of taking the bus as the employment contract provided for and therefore be subject to the company's terms even in regard to transport. Therefore, the course of employment would start as soon as the term for compliance with the contract started. Therefore the correct answer is (c).
Question 32
Rules:
A. Whoever intending to take any moveable property out of the possession of any person without that person's consent, moves that property out of his or her possession, is said to commit theft.
B. A person who, without lawful excuse, damages any property belonging to another intending to damage any such property shall be guilty of causing criminal damage.
C. Damage means any impairment of the value of a property.

Facts:
Veena, an old lady of 78 years, used to live with her granddaughter Indira. Veena was ill and therefore bed-ridden for several months. In those months, she could not tolerate any noise and it 'became quite difficult to clean her room. After she died, Indira hired a cleaner, Lucky, to clean the room and throw away any rubbish that may be there.
There was a pile of old newspapers which Veena had stacked in a corner of her room. Lucky asked Indira if he should clear away the pile of old newspapers, to which she said yes. Lucky took the pile to a municipality rubbish dump. While Lucky was sorting and throwing away the newspapers, he was very surprised to find a beautiful painting in between two sheets of paper. He thought that Indira probably wouldn't want this old painting back, especially because it was I’m in several places and the colour was fading. He took the painting home, mounted it on a wooden frame and hung it on the wall of his bedroom. Unknown to him, the painting was an old, masterpiece, and worth twenty thousand rupees. Before mounting the painting, Lucky pasted it on a plain sheet of paper so that it does not tear any more. By doing so, he made its professional restoration very difficult and thereby reduced its value by half

Lucky's neighbour Kamala discovered that the painting belonged to Indira. With the motive of returning the painting to Indira, Kamala climbed through an open window into Lucky's room when he was away one afternoon and removed the painting from his house.

Has Lucky committed theft?
AYes, Lucky has committed theft of the newspapers and the painting.
BNo, Lucky has not committed theft because he had Veena's consent.
CYes, Lucky has committed theft of the painting, but not of the newspapers.
DNo, Lucky has not committed theft because he has not moved the painting out of Veena's possession.
B No, Lucky has not committed theft because he had Veena's consent.
Theft takes place where a person intends to take any movable property out of the possession of any person and without that person's consent and moves that property out of his or her possession. Here, Lucky was asked to take away the entire pile of rubbish by Veena. Lucky was not even aware of the painting inside the pile of newspapers. Therefore the correct answer is (b).
Question 33
Rules:
A. Whoever intending to take any moveable property out of the possession of any person without that person's consent, moves that property out of his or her possession, is said to commit theft.
B. A person who, without lawful excuse, damages any property belonging to another intending to damage any such property shall be guilty of causing criminal damage.
C. Damage means any impairment of the value of a property.

Facts:
Veena, an old lady of 78 years, used to live with her granddaughter Indira. Veena was ill and therefore bed-ridden for several months. In those months, she could not tolerate any noise and it 'became quite difficult to clean her room. After she died, Indira hired a cleaner, Lucky, to clean the room and throw away any rubbish that may be there.
There was a pile of old newspapers which Veena had stacked in a corner of her room. Lucky asked Indira if he should clear away the pile of old newspapers, to which she said yes. Lucky took the pile to a municipality rubbish dump. While Lucky was sorting and throwing away the newspapers, he was very surprised to find a beautiful painting in between two sheets of paper. He thought that Indira probably wouldn't want this old painting back, especially because it was I’m in several places and the colour was fading. He took the painting home, mounted it on a wooden frame and hung it on the wall of his bedroom. Unknown to him, the painting was an old, masterpiece, and worth twenty thousand rupees. Before mounting the painting, Lucky pasted it on a plain sheet of paper so that it does not tear any more. By doing so, he made its professional restoration very difficult and thereby reduced its value by half

Lucky's neighbour Kamala discovered that the painting belonged to Indira. With the motive of returning the painting to Indira, Kamala climbed through an open window into Lucky's room when he was away one afternoon and removed the painting from his house.

Is Lucky guilty of criminal damage?
ANo, Lucky is not guilty of criminal damage as he did not intentionally impair the value of the painting.
BYes, Lucky is guilty of criminal damage as he intentionally stuck the paper on to the painting
CNo, Lucky is not guilty of criminal damage as he does not have the painting in his possession anymore.
DNo, Lucky is not guilty of Criminal damage as he has not destroyed the painting.
A No, Lucky is not guilty of criminal damage as he did not intentionally impair the value of the painting.
As per Rule B, a person will be liable for criminal damage only when it is done to any property belonging to another without lawful excuse and that he must intend to damage such property. But in the given facts Lucky intended to stop the property from suffering any further damage and not to cause damage to the property. Therefore the correct answer is (a).
Question 34
Rules:
A. Whoever intending to take any moveable property out of the possession of any person without that person's consent, moves that property out of his or her possession, is said to commit theft.
B. A person who, without lawful excuse, damages any property belonging to another intending to damage any such property shall be guilty of causing criminal damage.
C. Damage means any impairment of the value of a property.

Facts:
Veena, an old lady of 78 years, used to live with her granddaughter Indira. Veena was ill and therefore bed-ridden for several months. In those months, she could not tolerate any noise and it 'became quite difficult to clean her room. After she died, Indira hired a cleaner, Lucky, to clean the room and throw away any rubbish that may be there.
There was a pile of old newspapers which Veena had stacked in a corner of her room. Lucky asked Indira if he should clear away the pile of old newspapers, to which she said yes. Lucky took the pile to a municipality rubbish dump. While Lucky was sorting and throwing away the newspapers, he was very surprised to find a beautiful painting in between two sheets of paper. He thought that Indira probably wouldn't want this old painting back, especially because it was I’m in several places and the colour was fading. He took the painting home, mounted it on a wooden frame and hung it on the wall of his bedroom. Unknown to him, the painting was an old, masterpiece, and worth twenty thousand rupees. Before mounting the painting, Lucky pasted it on a plain sheet of paper so that it does not tear any more. By doing so, he made its professional restoration very difficult and thereby reduced its value by half

Lucky's neighbour Kamala discovered that the painting belonged to Indira. With the motive of returning the painting to Indira, Kamala climbed through an open window into Lucky's room when he was away one afternoon and removed the painting from his house.

If Lucky had discovered the painting before leaving Indira's house rather than at the rubbish dump, would he have been guilty of theft in this case?
AYes, he would be guilty of theft of the newspapers and the paintings.
BNo, he would not be guilty of theft.
CYes, lie would be guilty of theft of the painting.
DNone of the above.
C Yes, lie would be guilty of theft of the painting.
If Lucky had discovered the painting before leaving Indira's house rather than at the rubbish dump and he would not have disclosed such discovery to Veena, in that case he would have been liable for theft of painting. Hence C is the correct option.
Question 35
Rules:
A. Whoever intending to take any moveable property out of the possession of any person without that person's consent, moves that property out of his or her possession, is said to commit theft.
B. A person who, without lawful excuse, damages any property belonging to another intending to damage any such property shall be guilty of causing criminal damage.
C. Damage means any impairment of the value of a property.

Facts:
Veena, an old lady of 78 years, used to live with her granddaughter Indira. Veena was ill and therefore bed-ridden for several months. In those months, she could not tolerate any noise and it 'became quite difficult to clean her room. After she died, Indira hired a cleaner, Lucky, to clean the room and throw away any rubbish that may be there.
There was a pile of old newspapers which Veena had stacked in a corner of her room. Lucky asked Indira if he should clear away the pile of old newspapers, to which she said yes. Lucky took the pile to a municipality rubbish dump. While Lucky was sorting and throwing away the newspapers, he was very surprised to find a beautiful painting in between two sheets of paper. He thought that Indira probably wouldn't want this old painting back, especially because it was I’m in several places and the colour was fading. He took the painting home, mounted it on a wooden frame and hung it on the wall of his bedroom. Unknown to him, the painting was an old, masterpiece, and worth twenty thousand rupees. Before mounting the painting, Lucky pasted it on a plain sheet of paper so that it does not tear any more. By doing so, he made its professional restoration very difficult and thereby reduced its value by half

Lucky's neighbour Kamala discovered that the painting belonged to Indira. With the motive of returning the painting to Indira, Kamala climbed through an open window into Lucky's room when he was away one afternoon and removed the painting from his house.

Is Kamala guilty of theft'?
ANo, Kamala is not guilty of theft since the person she took the painting from (Lucky) was not its lawful owner.
BNo, Kamala is not guilty of theft since she took the painting only with the motive of returning it to Indira.
CYes, Kamala is guilty of theft as she took the painting out of Lucky's possession without his consent.
DNone of the above
C Yes, Kamala is guilty of theft as she took the painting out of Lucky's possession without his consent.
Kamla has satisfied all the ingredients when taking the painting out of Lucky's possession. She had every intention to move the, object from Lucky's possession and she did the same without seeking any sort of permission from Lucky. Her intention to retransfer the painting back to Indira is not relevant as that is not material to the act of theft. Therefore the issue is that Kamla committed an act of theft with an honest motive, which was actualised by her through guilty intention of theft. Hence, the correct answer is (c).
Question 36
Rules:
A. Whoever intending to take any moveable property out of the possession of any person without that person's consent, moves that property out of his or her possession, is said to commit theft.
B. A person who, without lawful excuse, damages any property belonging to another intending to damage any such property shall be guilty of causing criminal damage.
C. Damage means any impairment of the value of a property.

Facts:
Veena, an old lady of 78 years, used to live with her granddaughter Indira. Veena was ill and therefore bed-ridden for several months. In those months, she could not tolerate any noise and it 'became quite difficult to clean her room. After she died, Indira hired a cleaner, Lucky, to clean the room and throw away any rubbish that may be there.
There was a pile of old newspapers which Veena had stacked in a corner of her room. Lucky asked Indira if he should clear away the pile of old newspapers, to which she said yes. Lucky took the pile to a municipality rubbish dump. While Lucky was sorting and throwing away the newspapers, he was very surprised to find a beautiful painting in between two sheets of paper. He thought that Indira probably wouldn't want this old painting back, especially because it was I’m in several places and the colour was fading. He took the painting home, mounted it on a wooden frame and hung it on the wall of his bedroom. Unknown to him, the painting was an old, masterpiece, and worth twenty thousand rupees. Before mounting the painting, Lucky pasted it on a plain sheet of paper so that it does not tear any more. By doing so, he made its professional restoration very difficult and thereby reduced its value by half

Lucky's neighbour Kamala discovered that the painting belonged to Indira. With the motive of returning the painting to Indira, Kamala climbed through an open window into Lucky's room when he was away one afternoon and removed the painting from his house.

Which of the following propositions could be inferred from the facts and the rules specified,
AKamala is guilty of criminal damage as the person she took the painting from (Lucky) was not its lawful owner.
BKamala is guilty of criminal damage as she took the painting without Lucky's consent.
CKamala is not guilty of criminal damage as the painting has not been completely destroyed.
DNone of the above.
D None of the above.
Here Kamla may be guilty of committing one offence of theft but that does not qualify her actions to amount to criminal damage as well. Therefore the correct answer is (d).
Question 37
Rules:
A. When land is sold, all `fixtures' on the land are also deemed to have been sold.
B. If a moveable thing is attached to the land or any building on the land, then it becomes a 'fixture'.

Facts:
Khaleeda wants to sell a plot of land she owns in Baghmara, Meghalaya and the sale value decided for the plot includes the fully-furnished palatial six-bedroom house that she has built on it five years ago. She sells it to Garret for sixty laky rupees. After completing the sale, she removes the expensive Iranian carpet which used to cover the entire wooden floor of one of the bedrooms. The room had very little light and Khalid used this light-colored radiant carpet to negate some of the darkness in the room. Garret, after moving in, realizes this and files a case to recover the carpet from Khalid.

As a judge you would decide in favour of:
AGarret because when the price was agreed upon, Khalid did not inform her about removing the carpet.
BGarret because the carpet was integral to the floor of the bedroom and therefore attached to the building that was sold.
CKhalid because a fully-furnished house does not entail the buyer to everything in the house.
DKhalid because by Virtue of' being a carpet it was never permanently fixed to the floor of the building.
D Khalid because by Virtue of' being a carpet it was never permanently fixed to the floor of the building.
Carpet is not an immovable property as it is neither permanently fixed nor attached to immovable thing. The carpet was merely kept on the floor; there was no attachment to the land direct or indirectly. Therefore it cannot qualify as being a fixture or immovable property. Hence the correct answer is (d).
Question 38
Rules:
A. When land is sold, all `fixtures' on the land are also deemed to have been sold.
B. If a moveable thing is attached to the land or any building on the land, then it becomes a 'fixture'.

Facts:
Khaleeda wants to sell a plot of land she owns in Baghmara, Meghalaya and the sale value decided for the plot includes the fully-furnished palatial six-bedroom house that she has built on it five years ago. She sells it to Garret for sixty laky rupees. After completing the sale, she removes the expensive Iranian carpet which used to cover the entire wooden floor of one of the bedrooms. The room had very little light and Khalid used this light-colored radiant carpet to negate some of the darkness in the room. Garret, after moving in, realizes this and files a case to recover the carpet from Khalid.

Assume that in the above fact scenario, Khalid no longer wants the carpet. She removes the elaborately carved door to the house after the sale has been concluded and claims that Garret has no claim to the door. The door in question was part of Khaleeda's ancestral home in Nagercoil, Tamil Nadu for more than 150 years before she had it fitted as the entrance to her Baghmara house.

As a judge you would decide in favour of.
AKhaleeda because while the rest of the building belongs to Khaleeda exclusively, the door is ancestral property and therefore the decision to sell it cannot be Khaleeda's alone.
BGurpreet because the door is an integral part of the building as it is attached to it.
CKhaleeda because the door can be removed from the buildittg and is therefore not attached to it.
DGurpreet because the contract is explicitly for the whole house and since the door is part of house, it cannot be removed subsequent to the sale.
B Gurpreet because the door is an integral part of the building as it is attached to it.
A door, so long as it is attached to immovable property, is also considered as immovable. The wall is permanently attached to the land by way of construction. Therefore a substantial amount of force would be required to unhinge the door and separate it from the land. Therefore, it qualifies as a "fixture" and will therefore be sold along with the land.
Question 39
Rules:
A. When land is sold, all `fixtures' on the land are also deemed to have been sold.
B. If a moveable thing is attached to the land or any building on the land, then it becomes a 'fixture'.

Facts:
Khaleeda wants to sell a plot of land she owns in Baghmara, Meghalaya and the sale value decided for the plot includes the fully-furnished palatial six-bedroom house that she has built on it five years ago. She sells it to Garret for sixty laky rupees. After completing the sale, she removes the expensive Iranian carpet which used to cover the entire wooden floor of one of the bedrooms. The room had very little light and Khalid used this light-colored radiant carpet to negate some of the darkness in the room. Garret, after moving in, realizes this and files a case to recover the carpet from Khalid.

Assume that in the above fact scenario, Khalid no longer wants the carpet. She removes the elaborately carved door to the house after the sale has been concluded and claims that Garret has no claim to the door. The door in question was part of Khaleeda's ancestral home in Nagercoil, Tamil Nadu for more than 150 years before she had it fitted as the entrance to her Baghmara house.

Amongst the following options, the most relevant consideration while deciding a case on the basis of the above two principles would be:
AWhether the moveable thing was included in the sale agreement.
BWhether the moveable thing was merely placed on the land or building
CWhether the moveable thing had become an inseparable part of the land or building.
DWhether the moveable thing could be removed.
B Whether the moveable thing was merely placed on the land or building
Carpet is not an immovable property as it is neither permanently fixed nor attached to immovable thing. The carpet was merely kept on the floor; there was no attachment to the land direct or indirectly. Therefore it cannot qualify as being' a fixture or immovable property. Hence the correct answer is (b).Carpet was merely placed on the land hence will not be considered as immovable or a fixture.
Question 40
Rules:
A. When land is sold, all `fixtures' on the land are also deemed to have been sold.
B. If a moveable thing is attached to the land or any building on the land, then it becomes a 'fixture'.

Facts:
Khaleeda wants to sell a plot of land she owns in Baghmara, Meghalaya and the sale value decided for the plot includes the fully-furnished palatial six-bedroom house that she has built on it five years ago. She sells it to Garret for sixty laky rupees. After completing the sale, she removes the expensive Iranian carpet which used to cover the entire wooden floor of one of the bedrooms. The room had very little light and Khalid used this light-colored radiant carpet to negate some of the darkness in the room. Garret, after moving in, realizes this and files a case to recover the carpet from Khalid.

Assume that in the above fact scenario, Khalid no longer wants the carpet. She removes the elaborately carved door to the house after the sale has been concluded and claims that Garret has no claim to the door. The door in question was part of Khaleeda's ancestral home in Nagercoil, Tamil Nadu for more than 150 years before she had it fitted as the entrance to her Baghmara house.

Rule C: If a moveable thing is placed on land with the intention that it should become an integral part of the land or any structure on the land it becomes a fixture.

Applying, Rules A and C, to the fact situations above, as a judge you would decide in favour of:
AKhaleeda in both situations.
BGurpreet only in 192.
CKhaleeda only in 193.
DGurpeet in both situations.
D Gurpeet in both situations.
Carpet cannot qualify as being' a fixture or immovable property. Carpet was merely placed on the land hence will not be considered as immovable or a fixture. The bedroom was lowly lit and the carpet contributed in making it radiant, but that itself does not make the carpet an integral part of the floor. Therefore the decision will be in Gurpreet's favour in both cases. Therefore the correct answer is (d).
Question 41
Rule A: An owner of land has the right to use the land in any manner he or she desires. The owner of land also owns the space above and the depths below it.

Rule B: Rights above the laud extend only to the point they are essential to any use or enjoyment of land.

Rule C: An owner cannot claim infringement of her property right if the space above his or her land is put to reasonable use by someone else at a height at which the owner would have to reasonable use of it and it does not affect the reasonable enjoyment of his or her land.
 
Ramesh's case: Ramesh owns an acre of land on the outskirts of Sullurpeta, Andhra Pradcsh. The Govemment of India launches its satellites into space frequently from Sriharikota, near Sullurpcla. The Government of India does not deny that once the satellite launch has traveled the distance of almost 7000 kilometres it passes over Ramesh's properly. Ramesh files a case claiming that the Government of India has violated his property rights by routing its satellite over his property, albeit 7000 kilometres directly above it.

Applying only Rule A to Ramesh's case, as a judge you would decide:
AIn favour of the Government of India because the transgression waz at a height at which Ramesh could not possibly have any use for.
BThat ownership of land does not mean that the owner's right extends infinitely into space above the land.
CIn favour of Ramesh because he has the right to infinite space above the land he owns
DIn favour of the Government of India because it would lead to the absurd result that Ramesh and most other property owners would have a claim against airline companies and other countries of the world whose satellites orbit the earth.
B That ownership of land does not mean that the owner's right extends infinitely into space above the land.
As per rule B, rights above the land extend only to the point where they are essential to any use or enjoyment of land. Ramesh can never be presumed to essentially enjoy 7000 Km above his land property. Option D is also correct but option B is direct and closest to the principle.
Question 42
Rule A: An owner of land has the right to use the land in any manner he or she desires. The owner of land also owns the space above and the depths below it.

Rule B: Rights above the laud extend only to the point they are essential to any use or enjoyment of land.

Rule C: An owner cannot claim infringement of her property right if the space above his or her land is put to reasonable use by someone else at a height at which the owner would have to reasonable use of it and it does not affect the reasonable enjoyment of his or her land.
 
Ramesh's case: Ramesh owns an acre of land on the outskirts of Sullurpeta, Andhra Pradcsh. The Govemment of India launches its satellites into space frequently from Sriharikota, near Sullurpcla. The Government of India does not deny that once the satellite launch has traveled the distance of almost 7000 kilometres it passes over Ramesh's properly. Ramesh files a case claiming that the Government of India has violated his property rights by routing its satellite over his property, albeit 7000 kilometres directly above it.

Shazia's case: Shazia owns a single storeyed house in Ahmedabad which has been in her family for more than 75 years. The foundation of the house cannot support another floor and Shazia has no intention of demolishing her family home to construct a bigger building. Javed and Sandeep are business partners and own three storey houses on either side of Shazia's house. Javed and Sandeep are also Ahmedabad's main distributors for a major soft drinke company. They have erected a huge hoarding advertising their products, with the ends supported on their roofs but the hoarding also passes over Shazia's house at 70 feet and casts a permanent shadow on her terrace. Shazia decides to hoist a huge Indian flag, going up to 75 feet, on her roof. She files a case, asking the court to order Javed and Sandeep to remove the hoarding for all these reasons.

Applying only Rule B to Shazia's case, you would decide in favour of
AJaved and Sandeep because Shazia can easily hoist a flag below 70 feet.
BShazia because she has the right to put her land to any use and the court catmot go into her intentions for hoisting a flag at 75 feet.
CShazia because she has the absolute right to the space above her land.
DJaved and Sandeep because hoisting a flag 75 feet above one's roof is not essential to the use and enjoyment of the land.
D Javed and Sandeep because hoisting a flag 75 feet above one's roof is not essential to the use and enjoyment of the land.
Principle B states that you have a proprietary right over the space above your land, only to the extent which is essential to the enjoyment of land. Hosting a flag 75 feet can never be assumed to be essential.
Question 43
Rule A: An owner of land has the right to use the land in any manner he or she desires. The owner of land also owns the space above and the depths below it.

Rule B: Rights above the laud extend only to the point they are essential to any use or enjoyment of land.

Rule C: An owner cannot claim infringement of her property right if the space above his or her land is put to reasonable use by someone else at a height at which the owner would have to reasonable use of it and it does not affect the reasonable enjoyment of his or her land.
 
Ramesh's case: Ramesh owns an acre of land on the outskirts of Sullurpeta, Andhra Pradcsh. The Govemment of India launches its satellites into space frequently from Sriharikota, near Sullurpcla. The Government of India does not deny that once the satellite launch has traveled the distance of almost 7000 kilometres it passes over Ramesh's properly. Ramesh files a case claiming that the Government of India has violated his property rights by routing its satellite over his property, albeit 7000 kilometres directly above it.

Shazia's case: Shazia owns a single storeyed house in Ahmedabad which has been in her family for more than 75 years. The foundation of the house cannot support another floor and Shazia has no intention of demolishing her family home to construct a bigger building. Javed and Sandeep are business partners and own three storey houses on either side of Shazia's house. Javed and Sandeep are also Ahmedabad's main distributors for a major soft drinke company. They have erected a huge hoarding advertising their products, with the ends supported on their roofs but the hoarding also passes over Shazia's house at 70 feet and casts a permanent shadow on her terrace. Shazia decides to hoist a huge Indian flag, going up to 75 feet, on her roof. She files a case, asking the court to order Javed and Sandeep to remove the hoarding for all these reasons.

Applying only Rules A and B to Shazia's case, you would decide:
AIn favour of Shazia only under Rule A.
BIn favour of Shazia under Rule A as well as B.
CAgainst Shazia under Rule B.
DAgainst Shazia under Rule A as well as B.
A In favour of Shazia only under Rule A.
Going by the Principle A, the case goes in favour of Shazia since hoarding also passes over Shazia's house at 70 feet and casts a permanent shadow on her terrace which is a clear violation of her right to space above her property. Deciding the case in light of Principle-B, the case will go against Shazia, since she has a proprietary right over the space above her land, only to the extent which is essential to the enjoyment of land. Hosting a flag 75 feet can never be assumed to be essential.
Question 44
Rule A: An owner of land has the right to use the land in any manner he or she desires. The owner of land also owns the space above and the depths below it.

Rule B: Rights above the laud extend only to the point they are essential to any use or enjoyment of land.

Rule C: An owner cannot claim infringement of her property right if the space above his or her land is put to reasonable use by someone else at a height at which the owner would have to reasonable use of it and it does not affect the reasonable enjoyment of his or her land.
 
Ramesh's case: Ramesh owns an acre of land on the outskirts of Sullurpeta, Andhra Pradcsh. The Govemment of India launches its satellites into space frequently from Sriharikota, near Sullurpcla. The Government of India does not deny that once the satellite launch has traveled the distance of almost 7000 kilometres it passes over Ramesh's properly. Ramesh files a case claiming that the Government of India has violated his property rights by routing its satellite over his property, albeit 7000 kilometres directly above it.

Shazia's case: Shazia owns a single storeyed house in Ahmedabad which has been in her family for more than 75 years. The foundation of the house cannot support another floor and Shazia has no intention of demolishing her family home to construct a bigger building. Javed and Sandeep are business partners and own three storey houses on either side of Shazia's house. Javed and Sandeep are also Ahmedabad's main distributors for a major soft drinke company. They have erected a huge hoarding advertising their products, with the ends supported on their roofs but the hoarding also passes over Shazia's house at 70 feet and casts a permanent shadow on her terrace. Shazia decides to hoist a huge Indian flag, going up to 75 feet, on her roof. She files a case, asking the court to order Javed and Sandeep to remove the hoarding for all these reasons.

Applying only Rule B and C to Ramesh's case, you would decide:
AIn favour of Ramesh only under Rule B.
BIn favour of Ramesh under Rule B as well as C.
CAgainst Ramesh under Rule C.
DAgainst Ramesh under Rule B as well as C.
C Against Ramesh under Rule C.
Principles B and C essentially state that you have a proprietary right over the space above your land, only to the extent which is essential or to an amount that is reasonable. Rights above the land extend only to the point they are essential to any use or enjoyment of land. Ramesh can never be presumed to essentially enjoy 7000 Km above his land property as a common man has nothing to do with air 7000 km. Therefore the correct answer is (d) as neither Principle A nor B favour Ramesh.
Question 45
Rule A: An owner of land has the right to use the land in any manner he or she desires. The owner of land also owns the space above and the depths below it.

Rule B: Rights above the laud extend only to the point they are essential to any use or enjoyment of land.

Rule C: An owner cannot claim infringement of her property right if the space above his or her land is put to reasonable use by someone else at a height at which the owner would have to reasonable use of it and it does not affect the reasonable enjoyment of his or her land.
 
Ramesh's case: Ramesh owns an acre of land on the outskirts of Sullurpeta, Andhra Pradcsh. The Govemment of India launches its satellites into space frequently from Sriharikota, near Sullurpcla. The Government of India does not deny that once the satellite launch has traveled the distance of almost 7000 kilometres it passes over Ramesh's properly. Ramesh files a case claiming that the Government of India has violated his property rights by routing its satellite over his property, albeit 7000 kilometres directly above it.

Shazia's case: Shazia owns a single storeyed house in Ahmedabad which has been in her family for more than 75 years. The foundation of the house cannot support another floor and Shazia has no intention of demolishing her family home to construct a bigger building. Javed and Sandeep are business partners and own three storey houses on either side of Shazia's house. Javed and Sandeep are also Ahmedabad's main distributors for a major soft drinke company. They have erected a huge hoarding advertising their products, with the ends supported on their roofs but the hoarding also passes over Shazia's house at 70 feet and casts a permanent shadow on her terrace. Shazia decides to hoist a huge Indian flag, going up to 75 feet, on her roof. She files a case, asking the court to order Javed and Sandeep to remove the hoarding for all these reasons.

Applying Rule C to Shazia's case, you would decide:
AIn her favour because hoisting a 75 feet high flag is reasonable.
BAgainst her because hoisting a 75 feet high flag is not reasonable.
CAgainst her because the hoarding is a reasonable use of the space above her land.
DIn her favour because the permanent shadow cast by the hoarding affects the reasonable enjoyment of her land.
B Against her because hoisting a 75 feet high flag is not reasonable.
Principle B states that you have a proprietary right over the space above your land, only to the extent which is essential to the enjoyment of land. Hosting a flag 75 feet can never be assumed to be essential. Shazia’s demand to fly a 75 feet flag in itself is unreasonable and not essential at all. Therefore the correct answer is (b).
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