CLAT 2018 Question Paper With Solution




Section: Verbal Ability

Question 1
In the paragraph below there are five sentences. In each sentence there are pairs of highlighted words (A, B). Select the most appropriate words to form correct sentences. Then from the options given select the correct option.

Internationally high rise walls serve as street A) paintings B) canvasses. In Delhi and Gurgaon artists have A) earmarked B) earmark a district and after civic authority A) compliance, B) grant transformed it into a throbbing art district. A walk through the A) instalment B) installations for public interaction is A) instituted B) envisaged. It is hoped that this will discourage defiling city’s public places.
AABABB
BBABAB
CBAABB
DABABA
C BAABB
In blank-1, the meaning is that ‘high rise walls’ serve as something to paint on i.e. ‘canvasses’.
In blank-2, the word ‘have’ indicates the use of the perfect tense. So we must use the third form of the verb i.e. ‘earmarked’.
In blank-3, compliance is the appropriate word. If the countable noun ‘grant’ were used we would have needed an article before it i.e. ‘a civic authority grant’.
In blank-4, ‘instalment’ is clearly out of context as it means ‘one of several payment due’ as one cannot take a walk through the ‘instalment’ but can do so through the ‘installations’.
In blank-5, ‘envisaged’ is a more logical fit as it is not possible to ‘institute’ a walk, while one can indeed ‘envisage’ (contemplate or conceive as a possibility) a walk!
Question 2
In the paragraph below there are five sentences. In each sentence there are pairs of highlighted words (A, B). Select the most appropriate words to form correct sentences. Then from the options given select the correct option.

Pie charts are another extremely effective A) visual B) graph presentation of data. They show what proportions make up a whole. Each segment should be A) cleared B) differentiated by shading, cross – hatching or colour and should be A) labelled B) articulated horizontally. A) Initially B) Conventionally, the largest slice begins at the 12 o’ clock position then slices are sequenced clockwise in A) descending B) clarified positions.
AABABA
BBBABA
CBABBA
DBAABA
A ABABA
Blank-1: In describing pie charts, we cannot call them as graph. Besides both pie charts and graphs are visual representations of data!
Blank-2: ‘Differentiated’ is a more logical fit than ‘cleared’. Each segment cannot be ‘cleared’ but must rather be ‘differentiated’ from each other.
Blank-3: The subject of this sentence is ‘Each segment’, so we can clearly see that it cannot be ‘articulated’ but can be ‘labelled’.
Blank-4: Since we are describing how a pie chart is constructed, the word ‘conventionally’ makes more sense. Also since we are already into the process of describing a pie chart, ‘initially’ is out of context.
Blank-5: The word ‘largest’ suggests that we the segments will be ordered from biggest to the smallest segment. So the appropriate word must be ‘descending’.
Question 3
In the paragraph below there are five sentences. In each sentence there are pairs of highlighted words (A, B). Select the most appropriate words to form correct sentences. Then from the options given select the correct option.

One of the predictable difficulties you can expect to A) encounter B) counter when you go to a different country to study or work is language. But difficulties may also result from A) culture B) cultural differences, which are often less A) conscious B) obvious at first and can be unexpected. A Dutch academic was one of the first persons to propose an A) influential B) dire theory of cultural A) diversity B) division.
AABABA
BABBAA
CAABBA
DABABB
B ABBAA
Blank-1: To ‘encounter’ is to ‘face or experience’ while to ‘counter’ is to ‘speak in opposition’. Clearly ‘encounter’ is appropriate here.
Blank-2: We need an adjective here, so the noun ‘culture’ can be ignored, while the adjective ‘cultural’ is the appropriate word.
Blank-3: The phrase following the blank ‘can be unexpected’ makes it obvious that ‘less obvious’ must precede it.
Blank-4: ‘dire’ means ‘extremely serious or urgent’ and is clearly out of context here. On the other hand ‘influential’ means ‘have a great influence’ and fits perfectly with a theory.
Blank-5: ‘diversity’ means ‘a range of different things’ while ‘division’ means ‘split’. Clearly ‘cultural diversity’ is the accepted phrase, while ‘cultural division’ would be out of context and meaningless.
Question 4
Identify the incorrect sentence/sentences.

A) It is important to monitor the groups.
B) Check that the instructions are clear, and tell the students to begin.
C) Inefficient bus service are a hazard.
D) Traffic in the city has reached unsustainable levels.
AA
BB
CC
DD
C C
Subject here is ‘Bus service’ which is a singular subject, but the verb ‘are’ is plural. Hence the correct sentence should be “Inefficient bus services are a hazard” or “Inefficient bus service is a hazard”.
Question 5
Identify the incorrect sentence/sentences.

A) The college has organized a science fare
B) This is to notify that a leather wallet has been lost
C) Shortly blood donation will begin a camp
D) The agenda of the meeting is available on the website.
AB
BC
CD
DA
B C
With respect to the verb ‘will begin’, the subject in the sentence is inappropriate – in fact blood donation is the description of the camp that will begin shortly. The correct sentence should be “Shortly, we will begin a blood donation camp”.
Question 6
Identify the incorrect sentence/sentences.

A) It is vastly reading is significant
B) Reading for pleasure is linked to parental support at an early age.
C) We can read intensively and extensively.
D) Basic literacy among the prison population is insignificant.
AC
BD
CB
DA
D A
The sentence structure here is faulty. The correct sentence should be “Reading it is vastly significant” or “It is vastly significant to read it”.
Question 7
Fill up the blanks numbered (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) in the passage given below with the most appropriate word from the options given for each blank.

The main objective of art and __(a)__ living is to develop __(b)__ sensibilities and skills of healthful living besides providing a __(c)__ ground for love of labour, __(d)__ social attitudes and moral values so as to enable the child to be __(e)__ to the ideas of others with humility and sincerity in thought, word and deed. Love for mankind and helping the needy would __(f)__ at this stage and its culmination would be in terms of attainment of selfless service.

'a' is
Aprofitable
Bpromising
Cproductive
Dpraise
C productive
The word we are looking for is an adjective for the noun ‘living’. Only ‘profitable’ and ‘productive’ are suitable in this regard, and ‘productive’ is clearly more appropriate here.
Question 8
Fill up the blanks numbered (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) in the passage given below with the most appropriate word from the options given for each blank.

The main objective of art and __(a)__ living is to develop __(b)__ sensibilities and skills of healthful living besides providing a __(c)__ ground for love of labour, __(d)__ social attitudes and moral values so as to enable the child to be __(e)__ to the ideas of others with humility and sincerity in thought, word and deed. Love for mankind and helping the needy would __(f)__ at this stage and its culmination would be in terms of attainment of selfless service.

'b' is
Anature
Bhealthy
Caesthetic
Dgenuine
C aesthetic
The word in this blank will be an adjective for the noun ’sensibilities’, so option a can be ruled out as it is a noun. ‘healthy’ will be redundant with the word ‘healthful’ coming later in the sentence. Also ‘aesthetic’ is a better adjective for sensibilities than ‘genuine’.
Question 9
Fill up the blanks numbered (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) in the passage given below with the most appropriate word from the options given for each blank.

The main objective of art and __(a)__ living is to develop __(b)__ sensibilities and skills of healthful living besides providing a __(c)__ ground for love of labour, __(d)__ social attitudes and moral values so as to enable the child to be __(e)__ to the ideas of others with humility and sincerity in thought, word and deed. Love for mankind and helping the needy would __(f)__ at this stage and its culmination would be in terms of attainment of selfless service.

'c' is
Anurturing
Bfruitful
Cattractive
Dinteresting
A nurturing
The word in this blank must be an adjective for ‘ground’. Most suitable amongst the options is the word ‘nurturing’ which means ‘taking care for and protecting someone or something while they are growing’.
Question 10
Fill up the blanks numbered (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) in the passage given below with the most appropriate word from the options given for each blank.

The main objective of art and __(a)__ living is to develop __(b)__ sensibilities and skills of healthful living besides providing a __(c)__ ground for love of labour, __(d)__ social attitudes and moral values so as to enable the child to be __(e)__ to the ideas of others with humility and sincerity in thought, word and deed. Love for mankind and helping the needy would __(f)__ at this stage and its culmination would be in terms of attainment of selfless service.

'd' is
Aclear
Bpositive
Cgrowing
Dnegative
B positive
This word is an adjective for ‘social attitudes’. The most appropriate word here would be ‘positive’.
Question 11
Fill up the blanks numbered (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) in the passage given below with the most appropriate word from the options given for each blank.

The main objective of art and __(a)__ living is to develop __(b)__ sensibilities and skills of healthful living besides providing a __(c)__ ground for love of labour, __(d)__ social attitudes and moral values so as to enable the child to be __(e)__ to the ideas of others with humility and sincerity in thought, word and deed. Love for mankind and helping the needy would __(f)__ at this stage and its culmination would be in terms of attainment of selfless service.

'e' is
Awelcome
Bclear
Creceptive
Dillegal
C receptive
‘to be receptive’ means ‘to be willing to consider or accept new suggestions and ideas’ which is the most appropriate in this context.
Question 12
Fill up the blanks numbered (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) in the passage given below with the most appropriate word from the options given for each blank.

The main objective of art and __(a)__ living is to develop __(b)__ sensibilities and skills of healthful living besides providing a __(c)__ ground for love of labour, __(d)__ social attitudes and moral values so as to enable the child to be __(e)__ to the ideas of others with humility and sincerity in thought, word and deed. Love for mankind and helping the needy would __(f)__ at this stage and its culmination would be in terms of attainment of selfless service.

'f' is
Adisappear
Breveal
Clink
Dgerminate
D germinate
We need a verb with a positive connotation in this blank. The qualities mentioned before (‘love for mankind and helping the needy’) can “germinate” i.e. ‘come into existence and develop’.
Question 13
Four alternative summaries are given in the text: Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

Develop Critical Thinking

The way we see the world and relate to others is intrinsically connected to our own set of values that govern the way we decide to live. However, the influence of fashion, consumerism, pop culture, broken homes, social unrest, and the media is all-pervasive. For many people, teachers and students alike, this influence goes unquestioned. Critical thinking, if successfully taught at this level, becomes the antidote for individual and social illiteracy. For the authors, critical thinking should constitute an indivisible part of the overall educational process. Facione (1995) comments: ‘Critical thinking lies at the root of civilisation. It is a cornerstone in the journey humankind is taking from beastly savagery to global sensitivity’.

Supporting the development of these skills involves reflective teaching and learning, which is highly complex and which some students may find difficult, or interpret as weakness on the part of the teacher. But in the long run, with patience on the part of the teacher, it will develop students who can view old or new material, from a variety of sources, through new eyes, using their skills to define their own stance and express it, often better in their second language, with an open-minded confidence.
AThe world view of the human being today is influenced by a lot of things. Critical thinking cannot be taught as it involves reflective teaching and could be misunderstood.
BCritical thinking must be part of an individual’s education but it is a difficult concept because it very often reflects a teacher as a dominating individual.
CCritical thinking is an important aspect of an individual’s literacy level and his social knowhow. It is part of civilization and eventually leads to global sensitivity. Students can look at information in a variety of ways.
DReflective teaching is another aspect of initial thinking and it could lead to individual and social illiteracy.
C Critical thinking is an important aspect of an individual’s literacy level and his social knowhow. It is part of civilization and eventually leads to global sensitivity. Students can look at information in a variety of ways.
The paragraph talks about the importance of critical thinking, difficulties that could be faced in teaching critical thinking and how it will benefit students. Choice “3” best captures this essence of the passage.
Question 14
Four alternative summaries are given in the text: Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

The construct of democracy rests on informed choice and governance on informed policy. Answers to critical questions are stranded in the arena of claims and counter claims. Measures of progress are simply not known or available. The debate to job creation is a mystery of sorts. The public are not aware that the Center and States spend crores on education, health and social services. Take education. Barely a few of ClassV students can read a Class II text, the poor are switching to private schools and over 33% of million- plus schools do not maintain a feasible pupil teacher ratio.
ABeing informed is an important aspect of any democracy. This information is not available especially in the area of education, health and social services.
BAnswers are often given but they need to be deciphered accurately. Job clarity is available but sometimes it is a mystery. There is confusion about information.
CHealth and social services is clearly communicated but education remains an area of ignorance. Claims and counter claims create even more confusion.
DCrores are spent on many areas of growth but there is no accountability for information. Parents are switching to private schools as the information on education is available there.
A Being informed is an important aspect of any democracy. This information is not available especially in the area of education, health and social services.
Choice “2” is eliminated as it contradicts the information given in the passage –“The debate to job creation is a mystery of sorts”. Choice “3” is also eliminated as nowhere in the passage it is mentioned that information about health and social services is clearly communicated. Choice “4” is eliminated as the passage doesn’t mentions that information on education is available in the private schools. Choice “1” is the best choice.
Question 15
The word given in each of the sentences is used contextually. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context.

VENERATE - We venerate aged priests and martyrs.
Arespect
Brevere
Cspurn
Dhonor
C spurn
To ‘venerate’ means to ‘regard with great respect’. Hence its opposite would be ‘spurn’ which means ‘to reject with disdain or contempt’.
Question 16
The word given in each of the sentences is used contextually. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context.

PRUDENCE - Prudence and sacrifice help us in meeting the future.
Acaution
Breckless
Cforesight
Djudgement
B reckless
The meaning of ‘prudence’ is ‘cautiousness’. Hence its opposite would be ‘reckless’ which means ‘rash or impetuous’.
Question 17
The word given in each of the sentences is used contextually. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context.

OSTENTATION - Ostentation in wealth and living styles can sometimes turn vulgar.
Apageantry
Bdisplay
Cmodesty
Dflourish
C modesty
The meaning of ‘ostentation’ is ‘pretentious or showy display of wealth and luxury’. Hence its opposite would be ‘modesty’.
Question 18
The word given in each of the sentences is used contextually. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context.

DOCTRINE - A doctrine is often refined by reasoning.
Aoffense
Bdogma
Cprecept
Dprinciple
A offense
The meaning of ‘doctrine’ is ‘a belief or set of ideas’. Hence its opposite would be ‘offense’ which means ‘a breach of a law or rule’.
Question 19
The word given in each of the sentences is used contextually. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context.

BENEVOLENCE : Every religion believes in the concept of benevolence.
Agenerosity
Bmalignity
Cliberality
Dbenignity
B malignity
The meaning of ‘benevolence’ is ‘kindness’. Hence its opposite would be ‘malignity’ which means ‘evil in nature, influence or effect’.
Question 20
Answer the question, based on the following information. Indicate which of the statements given with that particular question, is consistent with the information given in the passage below.

A Holistic Viewpoint

It is now recognised by modern science that the universe at the subatomic level does not have solid material objects, but consists of only wavelike patterns which represent probabilities of interconnections between other interconnections, all of which together constitute an inseparable web of inter-relationships constituting the entire universe. Fritj of Capra therefore, views the universe not as “an assemblage of independent parts” but as “a dynamic web of inter-related events” in which each part of the web determines the structure of the whole. Geoffrey Chew views such inter-penetrating and interdependent relationships in the universe in terms of a “bootstrap” theory which implies that all forces in the universe are inseparably linked together, every part affects every other part, and the whole world is held together so to say, by bootstraps. David Bohm refers to a holographic concept which implies not only that every part is connected with every other part within the whole but also that, in a sense, each part contains the whole. This, according to David Bohm, recognises the “Undivided wholeness” of the entire universe instead of the classical idea of analysability of the world into separately and independently existent parts. Choose the appropriate option
Athere are many solid material objects in the universe
Bthe entire universe has a web of inter-relationships
Cthe universe comprises of a number of independent parts
Dthese independent parts determine the structure of the web
B the entire universe has a web of inter-relationships
Choices “1” and “3” can be easily eliminated as they contradict the information given in the passage. “all of which together constitute an inseparable web of inter-relationships constituting the entire universe” – choice “2” is consistent with what is given in the passage.
Question 21
Answer the question, based on the following information. Indicate which of the statements given with that particular question, is consistent with the information given in the passage below.

A Holistic Viewpoint

It is now recognised by modern science that the universe at the subatomic level does not have solid material objects, but consists of only wavelike patterns which represent probabilities of interconnections between other interconnections, all of which together constitute an inseparable web of inter-relationships constituting the entire universe. Fritj of Capra therefore, views the universe not as “an assemblage of independent parts” but as “a dynamic web of inter-related events” in which each part of the web determines the structure of the whole. Geoffrey Chew views such inter-penetrating and interdependent relationships in the universe in terms of a “bootstrap” theory which implies that all forces in the universe are inseparably linked together, every part affects every other part, and the whole world is held together so to say, by bootstraps. David Bohm refers to a holographic concept which implies not only that every part is connected with every other part within the whole but also that, in a sense, each part contains the whole. This, according to David Bohm, recognises the “Undivided wholeness” of the entire universe instead of the classical idea of analysability of the world into separately and independently existent parts. Choose the appropriate option
Athe holographic theory speaks of the exclusiveness of each part.
Bthe world can be analysed into separate independent parts.
Cthe classical idea recognizes the concept of wholeness.
Dthe boot strap theory speaks of interdependent relationships
D the boot strap theory speaks of interdependent relationships
Choices “2” and “3” can be easily eliminated as they contradict the information given in the passage. Holographic theory does not talk about the exclusiveness of each part – instead it states that not only that every part is connected with every other part within the whole but also that, in a sense, each part contains the whole. This leaves us with choice “4” which is the correct answer.
Question 22
In the following sentence a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence four different ways of paraphrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative among the four options.

The police searched everywhere but they drew a blank.
Aupset
Bdid not find any information
Ccame to an end
Ddrew a line
B did not find any information
The meaning of ‘draw a blank’ is ‘to not find any information’.
Question 23
In the following sentence a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence four different ways of paraphrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative among the four options.

She was accused of being close-minded and intolerant.
Adid not agree
Bkept to herself
Cnot open to new ideas
Dunwilling to discuss
C not open to new ideas
The meaning of ‘close-minded’ is ‘to not be open to new ideas’.
Question 24
In the following sentence a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence four different ways of paraphrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative among the four options.

Rehman likes to have a finger in every pie.
Alikes cooking
Bwants to do everything
Cobject to everything
Dcannot take decisions
B wants to do everything
The meaning of ‘have a finger in every pie’ is ‘to want to do everything’.
Question 25
In the question below, a related phrase is followed by a group of words. Select the group of words that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original phrase.

At one’s wits end
Acannot say anything funny
Bnot able to think logically
Cnot able to work
Dclarity of thought
B not able to think logically
The meaning of “at one’s wits end” is “to be in a state where one is not able to think logically”.
Question 26
In the question below, a related phrase is followed by a group of words. Select the group of words that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original phrase.

Gift of the gab
Aclever at work
Bflatter someone
Cpromise blatantly
Dfluent at speaking
D fluent at speaking
The meaning of ‘gift of the gab’ is ‘to be fluent at the art of speaking/making conversation’.
Question 27
In the question below, a related phrase is followed by a group of words. Select the group of words that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original phrase.

Die in harness
Adie while riding
Bdie at the height of one’s success
Cdie with help
Ddie when the work has been completed
B die at the height of one’s success
The meaning of “die in harness” is “to die when one is at the height of one’s success”.
Question 28
How is IOT a concept of connecting?
AIt is the internet in a different form.
BIt is the internet but connected to anything.
CIt is an analysing machine.
DIt is a data collection term.
B It is the internet but connected to anything.
IOT (Internet of things) has been explained in paragraph two as “Put in the simplest term it means anything that has an on and off button and is connected to the internet for receiving, analyzing, storing or sending data” – this explanation makes choice “2” the best answer.
Question 29
It is said that we look at time differently now, why?
AIt is connected to different devices.
BIt is in a different format.
CIt is connected to the aeroplane
DIt connects people.
A It is connected to different devices.
In paragraph three the author talks about smart watches. The author explains that these watches not only tell us time but give us information about other things like number of steps climbed, calories, heart rate and so forth. It is able to do so as it is connected to different devices and because of various functions these watches perform we have started looking at time differently. Of the given choices “1” is the best choice.
Question 30
IOT will help in simplifying patient - physician interaction because:
AIt helps reduce data.
BDoctors can remotely connect to patients
CIt improves connectivity.
DIt is a simple process.
B Doctors can remotely connect to patients
In paragraph 4, the author states that “Doctors can now remotely monitor and communicate with their patients and health care providers can benefit from this”. This makes “2” the best answer.
Question 31
How will IOT work in the sporting field?
AThrough sport fields with chips.
BThrough special machine.
CThrough minute wearable chips which are connected.
DThrough special moves by the sportsmen.
C Through minute wearable chips which are connected.
In para 5 the author provides instances where chips are attached to different devices in various sports which help to gather information that could be put to multiple uses – “Take for instance in the sporting field, minute chips are being attached to balls and bats..”
“Chips are also being put into wearable devices of sportsmen to detect sub-optimal action of any body parts to show signs of stress or strain which will help in the early detection of injuries and take preventive measures”-.
This makes choice “3” the best answer.
Question 32
Preventive measure is imperative because:
AIt can detect anything.
BIt identifies treatment needed.
CIt keeps them in touch.
DIt helps to identify stress and strain.
D It helps to identify stress and strain.
Preventive measure is mentioned in para 5 in sports context – “Chips are also being put into wearable devices of sportsmen to detect sub-optimal action of any body parts to show signs of stress or strain which will help in the early detection of injuries and take preventive measures”. So choice “4” is the best answer.
Question 33
One of the major concerns of IOT is:
ASecurity and privacy, data loss and tracking data
BOnly security and privacy.
COnly data loss.
DOnly tracking data.
A Security and privacy, data loss and tracking data
In paragraph 7 – “With billions of devices connected security becomes a big issue. How can people make sure that their data is safe and secure? This is one of the major concerns in the IOT that becomes a hot topic”.
Question 34
Technology and IOT has benefited education considerably because it has:
AHelped in improving the lesson.
BHelped keep track of all resources.
CHelped teachers to track.
DHelped with keeping up with the change in learning.
D Helped with keeping up with the change in learning.
In paragraph 8 the author consistently links education with learning – the author states that education/learning helps us to adapt to the changes around us.
Question 35
Teachers can use this data:
AOnly to teach with more resources.
BOnly to create a smart classroom.
COnly to reach out to the world.
DTo teach with more resources, create a smart classroom and reach out to the world
D To teach with more resources, create a smart classroom and reach out to the world
Last paragraph – “It ensures data quality being the top priority but also facilitates development of content allowing teachers to use this technology to create smart lesson plans and ensuring the reach of this content to any corner of the world”.
Question 36
Select a title that is most suitable for the passage
AIOT curse or boon
BIOT and our life tomorrow
CIOT is changing the way we learn
DIOT is all pervading
B IOT and our life tomorrow
Choices “2” and “4” are close ones. The author states that “IOT has had an impact across all fields, be it industries, government, small or large businesses and even for Personal Consumption”. This makes “4” a suitable choice. However the intensity of the impact is not been mentioned and this makes choice “2” a better choice. The author gives several instances where IOT can impact our lives in future – for example the use to which an alarm clock can be put to.
Question 37
To conclude, IOT has an impact on:
AEducation, sports, medicine and our daily lives
BEducation, sports only
CEducation only
DEducation and medicine only
A Education, sports, medicine and our daily lives
This is a very simple question to answer – the author has clearly stated that IOT impacts education, medicine, sports and our daily lives.
Question 38
Choose the option closest to the Capitalized word.

ANNIHILATE
Adevastate
Bdelay
Cinvestigate
Dretaliate
A devastate
To ‘annihilate’ is to ‘destroy utterly or obliterate’. Hence its synonym would be ‘devastate’.
Question 39
Choose the option closest to the Capitalized word.

FACILITATE
Alend
Bshare
Csupport
Dserve
C support
The meaning of ‘facilitate’ is ‘to make easy or easier’. Hence its synonym would be ‘support’.
Question 40
Choose the option closest to the Capitalized word.

CAMPAIGN
Alobby
Brun
Cagree
Dwork
A lobby
The meaning of ‘campaign’ is to ‘work in an organized way towards achieving a goal’. Hence its synonym would be ‘lobby’.

Section: Quantitative Aptitude

Question 1
The value of the expression
A2/15
B2
C7<sup>1</sup>/<sub>5</sub>
D15
D 15
This expression is a complicated one to evaluate.
Instead we would suggest a process of approximation.
Numerator:
Let 129/36 be 2. Let 41/8 be 4 and let 17/11 be 1.7.
Similarly, Let 51/9 be 5, 77/8 be 8 and 99/20 be 9.5.
Then the numerator = (2 + 4 x 1.7) ÷ (5 – 8/9.5) = (2 + 6.8) ÷ (5 – 0.8) = 8.8/4.2 = 2 approximately.
Denominator:
Let 31/5 be 3, 9/2 = 4.5 and 51/3 be 5.
Then denominator = (3 ÷ 4.5 of 5) = (3 ÷ 22.5) = 3/22.5 = 1/7.5
Fraction:
Hence the fraction will be approximately 2/(1/7.5) = 2 x 7.5 = 15
Question 2
The fractions 42/491, 30/313 and 35/367 are arranged in ascending order of magnitude as
A35/367, 30/313, 42/491
B42/491, 35/367, 30/313
C30/313, 35/367, 42/491
D42/491, 30/313, 35/367
B 42/491, 35/367, 30/313
Let us compare these fractions in pairs:
Consider 30/313 vs 42/491
i.e. 30/313 vs (30 + 12)/(313 + 178)
Now here we will use the approach of ratio of increments.
i.e. we need to compare the ratio of increments 12/178 with the first fraction 30/313
Now, 12/178 is approx 1/15 while 30/313 is approx 1/10, so 30/313 > 12/178
Since the ratio of increments is smaller the second fraction would be smaller!
i.e. 30/313 > 42/491
Now consider 30/313 vs 35/367
i.e. 30/313 vs (30 + 5)/(313 + 54)
We need to compare 30/313 with 5/54
Now 30/313 = 1/10.4 and 5/54 = 1/10.8
So, 30/313 > 5/54 i.e. the ratio of increments is again smaller.
i.e. 30/313 > 35/367
Hence, 30/313 will be the largest fraction. The only choice that shows this is option b.
Still, let us consider 35/367 vs 42/491
i.e. 35/367 vs (35 + 7)/(367 + 124)
We need to compare 35/367 with 7/124.
Here 35/367 = 1/10.4 while 7/124 = 1/18
Clearly 35/367 > 7/124 i.e. the ratio of increments is smaller
So, 35/367 > 42/491
Hence 30/313 > 35/367 > 42/491
Question 3
Let x be the greatest number of 4 digits, which when divided by 15, 20 and 28 leaves in each case the remainder 2. The sum of digits of x is
A19
B21
C23
D25
C 23
Using the identity, Dividend = Divisor x Quotient + Remainder
x = 15a + 2 or (x – 2) = 15a
x = 20b + 2 or (x – 2) = 20b
x = 28c + 2 or (x – 2) = 28c
So, (x – 2) is divisible by each of 15, 20 and 28.
i.e. least value of (x – 2) = LCM of (15, 20, 28) = 420
So x – 2 will be a multiple of 420
Or x = 420n + 2
For the greatest 4 digit value, simply divide 9999 by 420 to get a quotient of 23.
Hence largest 4 digit value of x = 420 x 23 + 2 = 9660 + 2 = 9662
Sum of digits of this value of x = 23
Question 4
A student was asked to simplify the expression:

His answer was 1/65. What is the difference between his answer and the correct one?
A1/65
B1/130
C1/26
D1/13
B 1/130
Remove the decimals: Numerator has 11 decimal digits, while denominator has 13. Hence:

Hence, the difference between his answer and the correct one is 1/65 – 1/130 = 1/130
Question 5
When 13511, 13903 and 14589 are divided by the greatest number ‘n’, the remainder in each case is ‘m’. The value of (n + m) is
A183
B182
C181
D179
A 183
Using the identity: Dividend = Divisor x Quotient + Remainder
13511 = n x a + m              ... (1)
13903 = n x b + m             ... (2)
14589 = n x c + m              ... (3)
Subtracting (1) from (2):
392 = n x (b – a)
Subtracting (2) from (3):
686 = n x (c – b)
Hence n is a factor of both 392 and 686.
So greatest value of n will be the HCF = 98
Dividing 13511 by 98 we get remainder m = 85
Hence, n + m = 98 + 85 = 183
Question 6
ABCD is a quadrilateral in which measures of angle D and angle C are 60 degree, and 100 degree respectively. If the internal bisectors of angle A and angle B meet at P, then measure of angle APB is
A80˚
B90˚
C100˚
D110˚
A 80˚

∠C + ∠D = 160˚
But ∠A + ∠B +∠C +∠D = 360˚
So, ∠A +∠B = 200˚           ... (1)
Now, in ∆APB, ∠PAB + ∠PBA + ∠APB = 180˚
But ∠PAB = ½ ∠A and ∠PBA = ½ ∠B
Hence, ½ ∠A + ½ ∠B + ∠APB = 180˚
i.e. ½ (∠A + ∠B) + ∠APB = 180˚
Using (1): ½ x 200˚ + ∠APB = 180˚
i.e. ∠APB = 180˚ – 100˚ = 80˚
Question 7
Suman saves 10% of her monthly salary. Now her expenditure increases by 30% and savings increases by 50%. The present increase in her salary is
A25%
B30%
C32%
D40%
C 32%
Let Suman’s salary be ₹100.
Then she usually saves = 10% of 100 = ₹10
So, usual expenditure = 100 – 10 = ₹90
Now, new expenses = 90 + 30% of 90 = ₹117
And, new savings = 10 + 50% of 10 = ₹15
Clearly Salary income = Expenditure + Savings
So new salary = New expenditure + new savings = 117 + 15 = ₹132
Hence, Suman’s salary increased by 32/100 x 100 = 32%
Question 8
A sum amounts to ₹9680 in 2 years and to ₹10648 in 3 years respectively at compound interest. What will be the amount if the same sum is invested for 12/5 years at the same rate of compound interest?
A₹9025
B₹9152
C₹9215
D₹9251
B ₹9152
Amount after 2 years = P(1 + R/100)2 = 9680        ... (1)
Amount after 3 years = P(1 + R/100)3 = 10648      ... (2)
So, on dividing (2) by (1) we get: (1 + R/100) = 10648/9680 = 11/10
Hence R = (11/10 – 1) x 100 = 10%
Using (1 + R/100) = 11/10 in (1): P = 9680 x 100/121 = ₹8000
Now, we want amount if ₹8800 is invested at 10% p.a. for 12/5 years.
CI for year-1 = 10% of 8800 = ₹880; Amount = 8000 + 800 = 8800
CI for remaining 2/5 years = (8800 x 10 x 2/5)/100 = ₹352
Hence Amount after 12/5 years = 8800 + 352 = ₹9152
Question 9
The marked price of an article is 20% more than the cost price. If the article is sold at a discount of 15% on its marked price, then the gain percent is
A5
B
C
D2
D 2
Let CP = ₹100
Then, MP = CP + 20% of CP = 100 + 20% of 100 = ₹120
But discount = 15%
So SP = MP – 15% of MP = 120 – 15% of 120 = ₹102
Hence profit = ₹2
Or % profit = 2/100 x 100 = 2%
Question 10
Reshma sells an article to Rekha at 37.5% profit, Rekha sells it to Madhu at 91/11% profit. Again Madhu sells it to Mitu at 25% loss. If Mitu pays ₹342 for the article, then what is the cost price of the article to Reshma?
A₹304
B₹266.50
C₹380
D₹384.75
A ₹304
Let Madhu’s cost price be ₹A.
Then, Mitu’s price = A – 25% of A = 342
i.e. A – A/4 = 342 or A = 342 x 4/3 = ₹456
Now let Rekha’s cost price be ₹B.
Then, B + 91/11% of B = 456
i.e. B + B/11 = 456
i.e. B = 456 x 11/12 = 38 x 11 = ₹418
Now let Reshma’s cost price be ₹C.
Then C + 37.5% of C = 418
i.e. C + 3C/8 = 418
i.e. C = 418 x 8/11 = 38 x 8 = ₹304
Question 11
The number of children in a camp is x and their average weight is 20 kg. If 5 children each weighing 12 kg, join the camp or if 10 children each weighing 21 kg leave the camp, the average weight in both the cases remain the same. The value of x is
A18
B16
C15
D14
C 15
Initial average weight of x children = 20
Hence total weight of children = 20x
When 5 children weighing 12 kg each join:
New total weight = 20x + 5 x 12 = 20x + 60
Hence average of the (x + 5) children = (20x + 60)/(x + 5) = 20(x + 3)/(x + 5)
When 10 children weighting 21 kg each leave:
New total weight = 20x – 10 x 21 = 20x – 210
Hence average of remaining (x – 10) children = (20x – 210)/(x – 10) = 10(2x – 21)/(x – 10)
Since both these new averages are the same:
20(x + 3)/(x + 5) = 10(2x – 21)/(x – 10)
i.e. 2(x + 3)(x – 10) = (2x – 21)(x + 5)
i.e. 2x2 – 14x – 60 = 2x2 – 11x – 105
i.e. 3x = 45 or x = 15
Question 12
In a 120 litre of solution of Acid and water, acid is 75%. A person takes out 20 litres of this solution and added 16.2 litres of acid and 3.8 litres of water in the remaining solution. What is the percentage of water in the final solution?
A22
B24
C25
D28
B 24
Initial Volume = 120 litres
Volume removed = 20 litres
Hence New Volume = 100 litres
However, note that acid concentration would still be 75% in the solution.
So acid in the solution = 75% of 100 = 75 litres
And water in the solution = 100 – 75 = 25 litres
Acid added = 16.2 litres and water added = 3.8 litres
Then final acid in solution = 75 + 16.2 = 91.2 litres
And final water in solution = 25 + 3.8 = 28.8 litres
Total solution volume = 120 litres
Hence % of water = 28.8/120 x 100 = 288/12 = 24%
Question 13
Twelve men and 5 women can complete a work in 2 days whereas 4 men and 3 women can complete the same work in 5 days. In how many days can 8 men complete the work?
A3
B4
C5
D6
B 4
Let word done by a man and women in a day (i.e. their rates) be M units/day and W units/day respectively.
Then, Work done by 12 men and 5 women in 2 days = (12M + 5W) x 2 units
And, Work done by 4 men and 3 women in 5 days = (4M + 3W) x 5 units
Since the work is the same one:
Work = 2(12M + 5W) = 5(4M + 3W)          ... (1)
i.e. 24M + 10W = 20M + 15W
i.e. 4M = 5W       ... (2)
Using (2) in (1): Work = 2(12M + 5W) = 2(12M + 4M) = 32M
Time taken by 8 men to do the same work = Work/Rate = 32M/8M = 4 days
Question 14
a and b are inversely proportional to each other and are positive. If a increases by 100%, then b decreases by
A50%
B75%
C100%
D200%
A 50%
For inverse proportion, b = k/a or b2/b1 = a1/a2
Now we are given a2 = a1 + 100% of a1 = 2a1
i.e. a1/a2 = 1/2
Hence, b2/b1 = 1/2 or b2 = b1/2
Hence % decrease in b = (b1 – b2)/b1 x 100 = (b1 – b1/2)/b1  x 100 = 50%
Question 15
Four pipes A, B, C and D can fill a tank with water in 15, 20, 30 and 60 hours respectively. Pipe A is opened at 4 a.m., B at 5 a.m., C at 6 a.m. and D at 7 a.m. When is the tank filled up completely?
A9:30 a.m.
B10:00 a.m.
C10:30 a.m.
D11:00 a.m.
D 11:00 a.m.
Let the Capacity of the tank (Work) be 60 units.
Using Rate = Work/Time we can calculate rates of the pipes as:
A = 60/15 = 4 units/hour
B = 60/20 = 3 units/hour
C = 60/30 = 2 units/hour
D = 60/60 = 1 unit/hour
Consider the sequence of pipes opening:
Pipe A works from 4 am to 5 am
Work done = 4 x 1 = 4 units
Pipes A and B work from 5 am to 6 am
Work done = (4 + 3) x 1 = 7 units
Pipes A, B and C work from 6 am to 7 am
Work done = (4 + 3 + 2) x 1 = 9 units
Total work done so far = 4 + 7 + 9 = 20 units
i.e. Work left = 60 – 20 = 40 units
Pipes A, B, C and D work from 7 am onwards
Rate = 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 10 units/hour
Hence time to fill the remaining tank = Work/Rate = 40/10 = 4 hours.
i.e. the tank will be filled up at 11 am.
Question 16
If a person travels at a speed of 40 km/hr he will reach his destination on time. He covered half the journey in 2/3 of the time. At what speed should he travel the remaining journey to reach the destination on time?
A48
B50
C60
D72
C 60
Let the usual time taken be 1 hour.
Then Distance = Speed x Time = 40 x 1 = 40 kms
But he has already covered 20 kms in 2/3 hours.
So speed required to reach destination on time = Remaining distance/Remaining time = 20/(1/3)
= 60 km/hr
Question 17
The parallel sides of a trapezium shaped field are 25 m and 10 m and non parallel sides are 14 m and 13 m. What is the area (in m2) of the field?
A204
B196
C156
D144
B 196

Construction: Draw a ine AE parallel to BC that intersects CD at E.



But area = ½ x ED x h = 84
i.e. ½ x 15 x h = 84 or h = 168/15 = 56/5 m
Hence area of trapezium = ½ (AB + CD) x h = ½ x (10 + 25) x 56/5 = ½ x 35 x 56/5 = 196 m2
Question 18
x2(a – b) + a2(b – x) + b2(x – a) is factored as
A(a – b)(x – a)(x – b)
B(a – b)(x – a)(x + b)
C(b – a)(x + a)(x – b)
D(a + b)(x – a)(x + b)
A (a – b)(x – a)(x – b)
x2(a – b) + a2(b – x) + b2(x – a)
= x2(a – b) + (b2 – a2)x + a2b – b2a
= x2(a – b) + (b – a)(b + a)x + ab(a – b)
= (a – b)[x2 – (a + b)x + ab]
= (a – b)[x2 – ax – bx + ab]
= (a – b)(x – a)(x – b)
Question 19
Three fair dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that the sum of numbers on their tops, is at least 6?
A5/108
B1/24
C103/108
D17/18
C 103/108
We want P(Sum of at least 6) = 1 – P(less than 6)
When three dice are thrown, the minimum sum is 3.
Hence P(Sum of atleast 6) = 1 – P(Sum = 3 or 4 or 5)
Sum = 3 - only 1 case i.e. 1 + 1 + 1
Sum = 4 i.e. 1 + 1 + 2 i.e. 3!/2! = 3 ways
Sum = 5 i.e. 1 + 1 + 3 or 1 + 2 + 2 i.e. 3!/2! + 3!/2! = 3 + 3 = 6 ways
Hence total favourable cases are 1 + 3 + 6 = 10 ways
Also total possibilities on 3 different dice = 6 x 6 x 6 = 216
Hence required probability = 1 – 10/216 = 206/216 = 103/108
Question 20
Six dice are stacked on the floor as shown in the figure below. On each dice, the sum of numbers on opposite faces is 7, i.e., if 1 is written on one face then 6 is written on the face opposite it and so on.

What is the maximum possible sum of numbers on the 21 visible faces?
A88
B89
C96
D147
B 89
The 3 possible ways of getting sum of 7 are 1 + 6, 2 + 5 or 3 + 4.
Now the 21 visible faces can be considered as follows:
1. 6 x 2 = 12 faces that are along the side of the stack

Since these are 6 back-to-back faces, their sum will be 6 x 7 = 42
2. Single square at the top with 2 back-to-back faces

Here the face marked X will have a side behind as well, so their sum will be 7.
3. Remaining faces = 7

Now in face marked 1 i.e. top-most face, maximum possible number will be 6.
In faces 2 and 3, maximum numbers will be 6 and 5
In faces 4 and 5, maximum numbers will be 6 and 5
In faces 6 and 7, maximum possible numbers will be 6 and 6.
Hence sum = 6 + 11 + 11 + 12 = 40
Hence maximum possible sum of the 21 faces = 42 + 7 + 40 = 89

Section: General Knowledge

Question 1
Who wrote the memoir book “My Brief History”?
ADr. G. Madhavan Nair
BStephen Hawking
CAngeline Merkel
DRosalind Franklin
B Stephen Hawking
Stephen Hawking
Question 2
What is the Motto of the Commonwealth Games 2018?
APeople, Place, Passion
BShare the Dream
CCome out and play
DUnited by the moment
B Share the Dream
Share the Dream
Question 3
The 2024 Summer Olympics will be held in Paris, France for a third time. How many years before that, did the city host the Summer Olympics for the second time?
A100 YEARS
B96 YEARS
C92 YEARS
D88 YEARS
A 100 YEARS
100 YEARS
Question 4
Who won the Men’s Singles title in Australian Open 2018?
ADylan Alcott
BR. Nadal
CRoger Federer
DMarin Cilic
C Roger Federer
Roger Federer
Question 5
In which election was the Electronic Voting Machines tried out on an experimental basis in India?
AThe 1982 Kerala Legislative Assembly Elections.
BThe Karnataka State for the 1984, Legislative Assembly Elections.
CThe U.P State for the 1989, Lok Sabha Elections.
DThe 1987, Delhi Corporation Election in Karol Bagh constituency.
A The 1982 Kerala Legislative Assembly Elections.
The 1982 Kerala Legislative Assembly Elections.
Question 6
Recently a star, Icarus was seen by NASA’s Hubble Space Telescope. What was the approximate time taken by Icarus’ light to reach the Earth?
ANine billion years
BTen million years
CSeven trillion years
DOne hundred years
A Nine billion years
Nine billion years
Question 7
No. : 47 - Who won the first Gold Medal for India at the Commonwealth Games 2018?
APunam Yadav
BMirabai Chanu
CJitu Rai
DSanjita Chanu
B Mirabai Chanu
Mirabai Chanu
Question 8
Who is the first Indian to hold the post of Deputy Director General for Programmes at the World Health Organisation?
ARasha Omar
BVijayalakshmi Pandit
CSoumya Swaminathan
DKiran Bedi
C Soumya Swaminathan
Soumya Swaminathan
Question 9
Who is the first female fighter pilot of India?
APunit Arora
BAvani Chaturvedi
CMitali Madhumita
DPriya Jhingan
B Avani Chaturvedi
Avani Chaturvedi
Question 10
The Reserve Bank of India issued the 100 rupee coin to mark the birth centenary of which Carnatic Music Legend?
ADr. Balamurali Krishna
BDr. M.S. Subbulakshmi
CMuthuswami Deekshithar
DChembai Vaidynatha Bhagavathar
B Dr. M.S. Subbulakshmi
Dr. M.S. Subbulakshmi
Question 11
Which type of mango from Andhra Pradesh received a Geographical Indication (GI) Tag in 2017?
AAlphonso
BBanganapalle
CTotapuri
DHimsagar
B Banganapalle
Banganapalle
Question 12
The International Day of the Girl Child is observed by the UN on
AMarch 8
BAugust 12
COctober 16
DOctober 11
D October 11
October 11
Question 13
Where is the temple of Angkor Wat located?
ASingapore
BCambodia
CThailand
DIndonesia
B Cambodia
Cambodia
Question 14
Which one of the following States lifted the Santosh Trophy Football title 2018?
AKerala
BPunjab
CKarnataka
DUttar Pradesh
A Kerala
Kerala
Question 15
IRDA stands for
AInsurance Regulatory and Development Authority
BInternational Resources Development Agency
CIndian Roads Development Authority
DIndian Rural Development Authority
A Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
Question 16
The first Defence Minister of India was
AK.M. Cariappa
BV.K. Krishna Menon
CBaldev Singh
DKailash Nath Katju
C Baldev Singh
Baldev Singh
Question 17
Who is the legendary figure who won both a Nobel Prize and an Oscar?
ASatyajit Ray
BWilliam Goldman
CGabriel Garcia Marquez
DGeorge Bernard Shaw
D George Bernard Shaw
George Bernard Shaw
Question 18
The discipline that deals with map making is known as
ACryptography
BCarpology
CCartography
DLithography
C Cartography
Cartography
Question 19
The prize established, based on a donation from the Sveriges Riksbank in memory of Alfred Nobel, is the
APrize in Medicine
BPrize in Economic Sciences
CPeace Prize
DPrize in Literature
B Prize in Economic Sciences
Prize in Economic Sciences
Question 20
What is the significance of May 13, 1952 with regard to Indian polity?
AFirst sitting of the Lok Sabha
BFirst sitting of the Rajya Sabha
CFirst sitting of the Supreme Court of India
DFormation of the Election Commission of India
B First sitting of the Rajya Sabha
First sitting of the Rajya Sabha
Question 21
Which among the following is the earliest literary work in Tamil language?
AManimegalai
BSilappadikaram
CThirukkural
DTolkappiyam
D Tolkappiyam
Tolkappiyam
Question 22
Who has been appointed in 2018 as the Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India?
AS.N. Joshi
BRakesh Aggarwal
CK Vijay Raghavan
DVinod Kumar
C K Vijay Raghavan
K Vijay Raghavan
Question 23
Escape velocity of a rocket fired from the earth towards the moon is a velocity to get rid of the:
ACentripetal force due to Earth’s revolution
BEarth’s gravitational pull
CCentripetal force due to Earth’s rotation
DMoons gravitational pull
B Earth’s gravitational pull
Earth’s gravitational pull
Question 24
From which animal is catgut usually made of?
ASheep
BCamel
CCat
DRabbit
A Sheep
Sheep
Question 25
Who wrote the book Der Ursprung der Familie, des Privateigenthums und des Staats. The Origin of the Family, Private Property, and the State?
AFriedrich Engels
BLewis H. Morgan
CKarl Marx
DFriedrich Carl von Savigny
A Friedrich Engels
Friedrich Engels
Question 26
Name the part of the human body reclassified as an organ due to research conducted in the past decade.
AAlimentary
BMesentery
CEpithelium
DSpleen
B Mesentery
Mesentery
Question 27
The World’s first ‘negative emissions’ power plant has been built in
AIceland
BPoland
CFinland
DChina
A Iceland
Iceland
Question 28
Which platform has been launched by the Union Government on the occasion of the 2018 International Women’s Day?
AWomen Entrepreneurship Platform
BWomen Combat Platform
CWomen Power Platform
DWomen Literacy Platform
A Women Entrepreneurship Platform
Women Entrepreneurship Platform
Question 29
Who is the author of ‘The Coalition Years 1996-2012’?
AManmohan Singh
BPratibha Patil
CSharad Pawar
DPranab Mukherjee
D Pranab Mukherjee
Pranab Mukherjee
Question 30
What does ‘NITI’ in Niti Ayog stand for?
ANational Invitation To Invest in India
BNew India Transformation Initiative
CNational Institution for Transforming India
DNayi India Turant India
C National Institution for Transforming India
National Institution for Transforming India
Question 31
In commemoration of which of the following events, is May 1 celebrated in many places as the International Workers’ Day?
AThe Haymarket affair, Chicago
BFoundation Day of International Labour Organisation
CCommencement of the First International Labour Conference
DConcluding Day of the Russian Revolution
A The Haymarket affair, Chicago
The Haymarket affair, Chicago
Question 32
The National Social Security Board functioning under the Ministry of Labour and Employment is meant for recommending formulation of social security schemes for
AIndustrial workers
BWomen and Children
CGovernment employees
DUnorganised workers
D Unorganised workers
Unorganised workers
Question 33
The scarcity definition of economics is credited to
AAlfred Marshall
BLionel Robbins
CAdam Smith
DDennis Robertson
B Lionel Robbins
Lionel Robbins
Question 34
Name the digital payment app introduced by Google in 2017 for India.
ABHIM
BTez
CCitrus Pay
DMobiKwik
B Tez
Tez
Question 35
Which of the following countries runs bullet trains with the highest operational speed?
AChina
BGermany
CSouth Korea
DUSA
A China
China
Question 36
Who became the Chief Justice of the Federal Court of India on 14 August, 1947?
AMaurice Gwyer
BPatanjali Shastri
CH.J. Kania
DSrinivas Varadachariar
C H.J. Kania
H.J. Kania
Question 37
In which country outside India has the Energy Efficiency Services Limited, under the Ministry of Power, Government of India, launched the UJALA scheme in 2017?
AMalaysia
BSrilanka
CIndonesia
DMaldives
A Malaysia
Malaysia
Question 38
Which is the organisation that initiates and presents the National Film Awards in India?
AFilm and Television Institute of India
BCentral Board of Film Certification
CDirectorate of Film Festivals
DPrasar Bharati
C Directorate of Film Festivals
Directorate of Film Festivals
Question 39
In 2017, eBay India was merged with which of the following Companies?
AFlipkart
BAlibaba
CNaaptol
DSnapdeal
A Flipkart
Flipkart
Question 40
The world’s first fully Solar-powered Airport is
ACochin International Airport
BShanghai Pudong International Airport
CDubai International Airport
DSingapore Changi Airport
A Cochin International Airport
Cochin International Airport
Question 41
The winner of the Jnanpith Award 2017 is
AG. Sankara Kurup
BShankha Ghosh
CRaghuvir Chaudhari
DKrishna Sobti
D Krishna Sobti
Krishna Sobti
Question 42
What do the paintings of Ajanta caves primarily depict?
ARamayana
BPanchatantra
CJataka Tales
DMahabharata
C Jataka Tales
Jataka Tales
Question 43
Which country joined as the eighth member of the South Asia Sub-regional Economic Cooperation (SASEC) in February 2017?
AMyanmar
BNepal
CBhutan
DBangladesh
A Myanmar
Myanmar
Question 44
What is the theme of the 2018 World Wildlife Day?
AStop wildlife crime
BListen to the young voices
CBig cats: predators under threat
DThe future of wildlife is in our hands
C Big cats: predators under threat
Big cats: predators under threat
Question 45
In which athletics event did Bob Beamon hold the world record for 23 years?
ATriple Jump
BHigh Jump
CLong Jump
DSteeple Chase
C Long Jump
Long Jump
Question 46
Which State government has come up with a Water ATM Policy in April 2018?
AHaryana
BMaharashtra
CUttar Pradesh
DMadhya Pradesh
A Haryana
Haryana
Question 47
The military operation which annexed Hyderabad into the Indian Union was code - named as:
AOperation Meghdoot
BOperation Polo
COperation Viraat
DOperation Vijay
B Operation Polo
Operation Polo
Question 48
Which of the following movies won the Best Movie Oscar Award 2018?
AThe Shape of Water
BCall Me by Your Name
CDarkest Hour
DDunkirk
A The Shape of Water
The Shape of Water
Question 49
Who is the first woman Defence Minister of Independent India:
ANirmala Sitharaman
BIndira Gandhi
CSushma Swaraj
DSheela Dixit
B Indira Gandhi
Indira Gandhi
Question 50
What is the motto of the Supreme Court of India?
ASatyameva Jayate
BDharmo Rakshati Rakshitah
CSarve Jana Sukhino Bhavanthu
DYato Dharmastato Jayah
D Yato Dharmastato Jayah
Yato Dharmastato Jayah

Section: Logical Reasoning

Question 1
Find the missing group in the sequence:

X7D, V11G, T13J, ______, P19P
AQ15M
BR17M
CQ17L
DR15M
B R17M
First term of the group: X – 2 = V; V – 2 = T; so the first term of the missing group will be T – 2 = R
Second term of the group:7, 11, 13, __, 19; we can observe that all these numbers are prime numbers in ascending order so the missing number will be 17.
Final term of the group: D + 3 = G; G + 3 = J; so the final term will be J + 3 = M. SO the missing group is R17M.
Question 2
Find the missing number in the sequence:

9, 3, ____, 1/3, 1/9
A2
B6
C1/2
D1
D 1
First term / 3 = second term – that is, 9 / 3 = 3; So the missing term will be 3 / 3 = 1, third term will be 1 / 3 = 1/3 and the final term will be 1/3 divided by 3 = 1/9.
Question 3
Which word does not belong with the others?
AFlute
BClarinet
CSaxophone
DViolin
D Violin
Flute, Clarinet and Saxophone are musical instruments that are mouthpieces whereas violin is not a mouthpiece.
Question 4
Find the next group of alphabets:

CFI, DHL, ILO, LPT, ____ ?
AORU
BRUW
COQT
DOSV
A ORU
CFI – Letter C comes third in the series so CFI is 3,6,9; DHL (4,8,12); ILO (9,12,15); LPT(12,16,20). The odd value has the pattern +3, +3 and the even value has the pattern +4, +4. There is a link between the odd series. The last letter of the first term CFI, that is, “I” becomes the first letter of the third term ILO. The missing value falls in the odd series so it will follow +3 and +3. The first letter of this term will be the last letter of the third term = “O”. The missing term will be ORU.
Question 5
If “VOLKSWAGEN” is written as “UQKMRYZIDP” then “SWITZERLAND” is written as ______ ?
ARVHSYDFPMOD
BTXJUAFSMBOE
CRYHYVGQNZPE
DRYHVYGQNZPC
D RYHVYGQNZPC
V became U (-1) and O became Q (+2), so the logic is -1, +2, -1, +2 and so on. Similarly SWITZERLAND will become RYHVYGQNZPC.
Question 6
In an archery match, Suresh’s team got more scores than Mahesh’s team but not as many as Yogesh’s team. Yogesh’s team got more scores than Mukesh’s team. Mukesh’s team got less score than Mahesh’s team.

Which team is in second place in the descending order of scores?
AYogesh’s team
BMukesh’s team
CSuresh’s team
DMahesh’s team
C Suresh’s team
Mahesh < Suresh
Suresh < Yogesh
Mukesh < Yogesh, however there is no link between Yogesh and Suresh or Yogesh and Mahesh
With the last clue we get to know that Mukesh < Mahesh. Using all of these together we get the final relationship as follows: Mukesh < Mahesh < Suresh < Yogesh. So in descending order of scores, Suresh’s teeam is second.
Question 7
Choose the word that is not a necessary part of the underlined word.

Movie
AScene
BVideo
CDuration
DDialogue
D Dialogue
There could be a silent movie with no dialogue in it.
Question 8
The doctor is a person who looks after the sick people and prescribes medicines so that the patient recovers fast. In order to become a doctor, a person has to study medicine. Doctors lead a hard life. Their life is very busy. They get up early in the morning and go to the hospital. They work without taking a break. They always remain polite so that patients feel comfortable with them. Since doctors work so hard we must realise their value.

Based on the above paragraph, who among the following is/are doctor(s)?

i. Kumar Sharma wakes up early in the morning everyday and treats everyone with patience. He usually gives emergency aid to the persons who are injured in accidents.
ii. Rakesh studied medicine in Russia and practiced medicine there for 2 years. Later, stopped medical practice and turned into some business.
iii. Shalini works in Apollo Hospitals. She always remains polite so that patients feel comfortable. She is a specialist in providing quality care for the cancer patients.
AAll are doctors
BRakesh and Shalini are the doctors
CKumar Sharma and Rakesh are doctors
DOnly Rakesh is a doctor
D Only Rakesh is a doctor
It is difficult to conclude from the given information whether Kumar and Shalini studied medicine and hence the answer is 4.
Question 9
Who uses the Mahindra Car?
AVenkat
BAnu
CVidya
DDivya
C Vidya
This set would have been an extremely simple set but was unnecessarily transformed to a complicated set because of incorrect grammar.
Using “Manohar sits opposite to his friend who is using a Ford Car and sits at one of the extremes and the friend who uses a Honda car, is not Ravi who sits second to the right of Manohar” we can conclude that Manohar cannot sit on the extreme right side as then nobody can be to his right. Also, the second input as used by CLAT means that the person who sits second to the right of Manohar uses Honda car. The deductions can be shown as follows –

Using “Venkat sits exactly in the middle of Ravi and the friend who uses a Nissan car is not Manohar, Keerthi does not sit at the extreme end but uses a Tata car and sits opposite the friend who uses a Fiat Car. The one who uses a Maruthi car sits opposite to the friend who is to the immediate left of Keerthi” we can place Ravi. Ravi cannot be at the extreme right as then Venkat will be between him and Honda. Ravi could be next to Manohar but this possibility is ruled out because of information about Keerthi. Let us assume Ravi to be sitting next to Manohar. This would imply that Venkat will be the one using Honda and the fourth person from the right will be using Nissan as Venkat sits between Ravi and the one using Nissan. The table will look as follows:-

Now Keerthi, cannot be at the extreme ends. She is sitting opposite to the person using Fiat so positions third and fourth are ruled out for her, so she could only be sitting opposite Ravi. So far so good. But this placement will violate the condition that the person sitting to the left of Keerthi is sitting opposite to the person using Maruthi. As in that case the person will be sitting opposite to the person using Nissan. So this means this case is  not possible and hence Ravi could only be seated at the fourth position from right. Using the inputs that we used earlier the updated table will look like this.

Using “Tilak does not sit at any of the extremes, but sits opposite the friend who uses
a Chevrolet car, and is sitting adjacent to Divya and the friend who uses a Mahindra car”. From this input we will be able to place Tilak, next to Manohar. We can then also place Prasanth. He would face someone using Chevrolet. This someone is adjacent to person 1 and 3. The clue says this person is adjacent to Divya and one using Mahindra car. This means Divya cannot be using Mahindra car and also 1 and 3 will be Ford and Mahindra respectively. The updated table will look as follows:-

Using “The friend who uses a Toyota Car but not Anu, sits opposite Prasanth” we can get the placement of Toyota and Skoda.

Using “Vidya neither uses Chevrolet nor Toyota cars and the friend who uses a Toyota Car but not Anu” we can get the complete table.

Vidya uses Mahindra.
Question 10
Keerthi is how many places away from the one who uses the Ford car?
AOne
BThree
CFour
DTwo
B Three
This set would have been an extremely simple set but was unnecessarily transformed to a complicated set because of incorrect grammar.
Using “Manohar sits opposite to his friend who is using a Ford Car and sits at one of the extremes and the friend who uses a Honda car, is not Ravi who sits second to the right of Manohar” we can conclude that Manohar cannot sit on the extreme right side as then nobody can be to his right. Also, the second input as used by CLAT means that the person who sits second to the right of Manohar uses Honda car. The deductions can be shown as follows –

Using “Venkat sits exactly in the middle of Ravi and the friend who uses a Nissan car is not Manohar, Keerthi does not sit at the extreme end but uses a Tata car and sits opposite the friend who uses a Fiat Car. The one who uses a Maruthi car sits opposite to the friend who is to the immediate left of Keerthi” we can place Ravi. Ravi cannot be at the extreme right as then Venkat will be between him and Honda. Ravi could be next to Manohar but this possibility is ruled out because of information about Keerthi. Let us assume Ravi to be sitting next to Manohar. This would imply that Venkat will be the one using Honda and the fourth person from the right will be using Nissan as Venkat sits between Ravi and the one using Nissan. The table will look as follows:-
Now Keerthi, cannot be at the extreme ends. She is sitting opposite to the person using Fiat so positions third and fourth are ruled out for her, so she could only be sitting opposite Ravi. So far so good. But this placement will violate the condition that the person sitting to the left of Keerthi is sitting opposite to the person using Maruthi. As in that case the person will be sitting opposite to the person using Nissan. So this means this case is  not possible and hence Ravi could only be seated at the fourth position from right. Using the inputs that we used earlier the updated table will look like this.

Using “Tilak does not sit at any of the extremes, but sits opposite the friend who uses
a Chevrolet car, and is sitting adjacent to Divya and the friend who uses a Mahindra car”. From this input we will be able to place Tilak, next to Manohar. We can then also place Prasanth. He would face someone using Chevrolet. This someone is adjacent to person 1 and 3. The clue says this person is adjacent to Divya and one using Mahindra car. This means Divya cannot be using Mahindra car and also 1 and 3 will be Ford and Mahindra respectively. The updated table will look as follows:-

Using “The friend who uses a Toyota Car but not Anu, sits opposite Prasanth” we can get the placement of Toyota and Skoda.

Using “Vidya neither uses Chevrolet nor Toyota cars and the friend who uses a Toyota Car but not Anu” we can get the complete table.

Keerthi is three places to the left from the person using Ford.
Question 11
Who sits third to the left of the one who uses the Chevrolet?
AAnu
BMaya
CDivya
DVidya
B Maya
This set would have been an extremely simple set but was unnecessarily transformed to a complicated set because of incorrect grammar.
Using “Manohar sits opposite to his friend who is using a Ford Car and sits at one of the extremes and the friend who uses a Honda car, is not Ravi who sits second to the right of Manohar” we can conclude that Manohar cannot sit on the extreme right side as then nobody can be to his right. Also, the second input as used by CLAT means that the person who sits second to the right of Manohar uses Honda car. The deductions can be shown as follows –

Using “Venkat sits exactly in the middle of Ravi and the friend who uses a Nissan car is not Manohar, Keerthi does not sit at the extreme end but uses a Tata car and sits opposite the friend who uses a Fiat Car. The one who uses a Maruthi car sits opposite to the friend who is to the immediate left of Keerthi” we can place Ravi. Ravi cannot be at the extreme right as then Venkat will be between him and Honda. Ravi could be next to Manohar but this possibility is ruled out because of information about Keerthi. Let us assume Ravi to be sitting next to Manohar. This would imply that Venkat will be the one using Honda and the fourth person from the right will be using Nissan as Venkat sits between Ravi and the one using Nissan. The table will look as follows:-
Now Keerthi, cannot be at the extreme ends. She is sitting opposite to the person using Fiat so positions third and fourth are ruled out for her, so she could only be sitting opposite Ravi. So far so good. But this placement will violate the condition that the person sitting to the left of Keerthi is sitting opposite to the person using Maruthi. As in that case the person will be sitting opposite to the person using Nissan. So this means this case is  not possible and hence Ravi could only be seated at the fourth position from right. Using the inputs that we used earlier the updated table will look like this.

Using “Tilak does not sit at any of the extremes, but sits opposite the friend who uses
a Chevrolet car, and is sitting adjacent to Divya and the friend who uses a Mahindra car”. From this input we will be able to place Tilak, next to Manohar. We can then also place Prasanth. He would face someone using Chevrolet. This someone is adjacent to person 1 and 3. The clue says this person is adjacent to Divya and one using Mahindra car. This means Divya cannot be using Mahindra car and also 1 and 3 will be Ford and Mahindra respectively. The updated table will look as follows:-

Using “The friend who uses a Toyota Car but not Anu, sits opposite Prasanth” we can get the placement of Toyota and Skoda.

Using “Vidya neither uses Chevrolet nor Toyota cars and the friend who uses a Toyota Car but not Anu” we can get the complete table.

Maya sits three places to the left of the person using Chevrolet.
Question 12
Which one does not belong to the group?
AMaruthi
BSkoda
CHonda
DMahindra
D Mahindra
This set would have been an extremely simple set but was unnecessarily transformed to a complicated set because of incorrect grammar.
Using “Manohar sits opposite to his friend who is using a Ford Car and sits at one of the extremes and the friend who uses a Honda car, is not Ravi who sits second to the right of Manohar” we can conclude that Manohar cannot sit on the extreme right side as then nobody can be to his right. Also, the second input as used by CLAT means that the person who sits second to the right of Manohar uses Honda car. The deductions can be shown as follows –

Using “Venkat sits exactly in the middle of Ravi and the friend who uses a Nissan car is not Manohar, Keerthi does not sit at the extreme end but uses a Tata car and sits opposite the friend who uses a Fiat Car. The one who uses a Maruthi car sits opposite to the friend who is to the immediate left of Keerthi” we can place Ravi. Ravi cannot be at the extreme right as then Venkat will be between him and Honda. Ravi could be next to Manohar but this possibility is ruled out because of information about Keerthi. Let us assume Ravi to be sitting next to Manohar. This would imply that Venkat will be the one using Honda and the fourth person from the right will be using Nissan as Venkat sits between Ravi and the one using Nissan. The table will look as follows:-
Now Keerthi, cannot be at the extreme ends. She is sitting opposite to the person using Fiat so positions third and fourth are ruled out for her, so she could only be sitting opposite Ravi. So far so good. But this placement will violate the condition that the person sitting to the left of Keerthi is sitting opposite to the person using Maruthi. As in that case the person will be sitting opposite to the person using Nissan. So this means this case is  not possible and hence Ravi could only be seated at the fourth position from right. Using the inputs that we used earlier the updated table will look like this.

Using “Tilak does not sit at any of the extremes, but sits opposite the friend who uses
a Chevrolet car, and is sitting adjacent to Divya and the friend who uses a Mahindra car”. From this input we will be able to place Tilak, next to Manohar. We can then also place Prasanth. He would face someone using Chevrolet. This someone is adjacent to person 1 and 3. The clue says this person is adjacent to Divya and one using Mahindra car. This means Divya cannot be using Mahindra car and also 1 and 3 will be Ford and Mahindra respectively. The updated table will look as follows:-

Using “The friend who uses a Toyota Car but not Anu, sits opposite Prasanth” we can get the placement of Toyota and Skoda.

Using “Vidya neither uses Chevrolet nor Toyota cars and the friend who uses a Toyota Car but not Anu” we can get the complete table.

Mahindra is the only car in the group which is used bu a person facing south.
Question 13
Which is the car used by Maya?
AToyota
BChevrolet
CMahindra
DFord
A Toyota
This set would have been an extremely simple set but was unnecessarily transformed to a complicated set because of incorrect grammar.
Using “Manohar sits opposite to his friend who is using a Ford Car and sits at one of the extremes and the friend who uses a Honda car, is not Ravi who sits second to the right of Manohar” we can conclude that Manohar cannot sit on the extreme right side as then nobody can be to his right. Also, the second input as used by CLAT means that the person who sits second to the right of Manohar uses Honda car. The deductions can be shown as follows –

Using “Venkat sits exactly in the middle of Ravi and the friend who uses a Nissan car is not Manohar, Keerthi does not sit at the extreme end but uses a Tata car and sits opposite the friend who uses a Fiat Car. The one who uses a Maruthi car sits opposite to the friend who is to the immediate left of Keerthi” we can place Ravi. Ravi cannot be at the extreme right as then Venkat will be between him and Honda. Ravi could be next to Manohar but this possibility is ruled out because of information about Keerthi. Let us assume Ravi to be sitting next to Manohar. This would imply that Venkat will be the one using Honda and the fourth person from the right will be using Nissan as Venkat sits between Ravi and the one using Nissan. The table will look as follows:-
Now Keerthi, cannot be at the extreme ends. She is sitting opposite to the person using Fiat so positions third and fourth are ruled out for her, so she could only be sitting opposite Ravi. So far so good. But this placement will violate the condition that the person sitting to the left of Keerthi is sitting opposite to the person using Maruthi. As in that case the person will be sitting opposite to the person using Nissan. So this means this case is  not possible and hence Ravi could only be seated at the fourth position from right. Using the inputs that we used earlier the updated table will look like this.

Using “Tilak does not sit at any of the extremes, but sits opposite the friend who uses
a Chevrolet car, and is sitting adjacent to Divya and the friend who uses a Mahindra car”. From this input we will be able to place Tilak, next to Manohar. We can then also place Prasanth. He would face someone using Chevrolet. This someone is adjacent to person 1 and 3. The clue says this person is adjacent to Divya and one using Mahindra car. This means Divya cannot be using Mahindra car and also 1 and 3 will be Ford and Mahindra respectively. The updated table will look as follows:-

Using “The friend who uses a Toyota Car but not Anu, sits opposite Prasanth” we can get the placement of Toyota and Skoda.

Using “Vidya neither uses Chevrolet nor Toyota cars and the friend who uses a Toyota Car but not Anu” we can get the complete table.

Maya uses Toyota.
Question 14
In a queue, I am the last person while my friend is seventh from the front. If the person exactly between me and my friend is on the 23rd position from the front, what is my position in the queue?
A37
B36
C38
D39
D 39
The number of people from the 7th position (my friend’s position from the front) to the 23rd position is 16. Now from this position till the last person (that’s me) there will again be 16 people – as the one in the 23rd position is exactly between me and my friend. The number of people from the 7th position to the last position are 16 + 16 = 32. So the total people from the starting position till the last position will be 7 + 32 = 39.
Alternatively, you could solve this manually by making positions on a piece of paper.
Question 15
Read the statement and on the basis of that, choose the most appropriate course of action(s) given below the statement.

Statement:
Most of those who study in premier Medical colleges in India migrate to developed nations for better prospects in their professional pursuits.
Courses of Action:
I. All the students joining these colleges should be asked to sign a bond at the time of admission to the effect that they will remain in India at least for ten years after they complete their medical education.
II. All those students who desire to settle in the developed nations should be asked to pay the entire cost of their education which the government subsidised.
AOnly I follows
BOnly II follows
CBoth I and II follow
DNeither I nor II follows
B Only II follows
II seems reasonable here. Subsidies are given with the objective of helping the citizens and the nation as a whole. If the benefit in this case is used to serve other nation it is but reasonable that the aspirant bears the entire cost himself/herself.
Question 16
Read the statement and on the basis of that, choose the most appropriate course of action(s) given below the statement.

Statement:
Official data show more people died on Indian roads in 2016 than in 2015; UP and Tamil Nadu accounted for the largest numbers of fatalities.
Courses of Action:
I. Government should make a policy regulating the manufacturing of automobiles for private use.
II. Government should take steps to create awareness among the public about road safety.
III. Accidents can be avoided if the Government takes steps to make good roads.
IV. To eliminate accidents completely the Government should impose stringent punishments for traffic violations.
AOnly II and IV follow
BOnly II follows
COnly III and IV follow
DOnly IV follows
B Only II follows
This one is a bit subjective question. We suggest you use the elimination technique here. II is definitely a course of action so any choice that does not have II in it should be eliminated. So we are left with choice 1 and 2. In choice IV “to eliminate accidents completely” is a bit extreme and so choice 2 is correct.
Question 17
Read the statements and presume that whatever statements given are true. On the basis of that, choose the most appropriate conclusion(s) given below.

Statements:
Some rats are cows.
All cows are animals.
Conclusions:
I. All rats are animals
II. Some animals are rats
AOnly Conclusion I follows
BOnly Conclusion II follows
CBoth Conclusions I and II follow
DNeither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows.
B Only Conclusion II follows

As we can see only II is correct. To know more on how to solve these questions refer to Eptitude’s theory.
Question 18
Read the statements and presume that whatever statements given are true. On the basis of that, choose the most appropriate conclusion(s) given below.

Statements:
All the students are young.
All the teens are young.
Some men are teens.
Conclusions:
I. Some students are teens.
II. Some young are students.
III. Some young are men.
AOnly (I) follows
BOnly (II) and (III) follow
COnly (I) and (II) follow
DOnly (I) and (III) follow
B Only (II) and (III) follow

As we can see from the figure only choice II is correct. To know more on how to solve these questions refer to Eptitude’s theory.
Question 19
‘X’ started walking towards the west, after travelling 5 kilometres turned exactly to his right and walked 3 kms. Then he decided to walk exactly to his left. On reaching 2 kilometres, he heard a voice and walked back. Then he noticed that, his friend ‘Y’ was walking towards him from his right side. In which direction is ‘Y’ walking?
AEast
BWest
CNorth
DSouth
C North

As could be seen Y is walking towards North.
Question 20
If ‘DECEMBER’ is ‘AUGUST’, 'MARCH’ is ‘MAY’, ‘SEPTEMBER’ is ‘SEPTEMBER’ and ‘OCTOBER’ is ‘JULY’, then ‘JUNE’ is?
AFebruary
BApril
CJanuary
DNovember
B April
‘DECEMBER’ has 8 letters in it and August is the 8th month. So the logic is count the number of letters in the month and the month corresponding to that number is the answer. “MARCH” has 5 letters in it and so it is written as May which is the fifth month. By the same logic “JUNE” has 4 letters in it so it will be written as April.
Question 21
If the ophthalmologist generally goes for his rounds before the surgeons, but not unless any other doctor does, and the neurosurgeon is not the last to go for his rounds, what is the correct sequence of their visit?
AOrthopaedist, Neurosurgeon, Plastic surgeon, Ophthalmologist
BNeurosurgeon, Orthopaedist, Plastic surgeon, Ophthalmologist
COrthopaedist, Ophthalmologist, Neurosurgeon, Plastic surgeon
DOphthalmologist, Orthopaedist, Neurosurgeon, Plastic surgeon
C Orthopaedist, Ophthalmologist, Neurosurgeon, Plastic surgeon
Using the first clue we can infer that the ophthalmologist cannot go for the round in the evening as then he will be the last to go for the rounds. So, he went for the rounds in the morning.  Using the same clue both the Neurosurgeon and the Plastic surgeon will go for their rounds in the evening. Using “but not unless any other doctor does” we can infer that the Orthopaedist will also make rounds in the morning. The visits will look like as follows –
Question 22
Who were the doctors to visit the patient in the evening?
ANeurosurgeon and Plastic surgeon
BPlastic surgeon Ophthalmologist and Neurosurgeon
COrthopaedist and Neurosurgeon
DOphthalmologist and Orthopaedist and Plastic surgeon
A Neurosurgeon and Plastic surgeon
Using the first clue we can infer that the ophthalmologist cannot go for the round in the evening as then he will be the last to go for the rounds. So, he went for the rounds in the morning.  Using the same clue both the Neurosurgeon and the Plastic surgeon will go for their rounds in the evening. Using “but not unless any other doctor does” we can infer that the Orthopaedist will also make rounds in the morning. The visits will look like as follows –
Question 23
Samantha is your father’s mother’s grandson’s daughter. Therefore, Samantha is your
Aniece
Bsister
Cuncle
Dbrother
A niece

I and the grandson are siblings. So my brother’s daughter is my niece. Hence, the correct answer is 1.
Question 24
Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ...

What number should come next?
A7
B10
C12
D13
B 10
The pattern is + 3 then - 2 and repeat. So the final term will be 12 – 2 = 10.
Question 25
In an interview for selection of two District Judges, four candidates, P, Q, R and S were shortlisted. All of them had 10 years standing as Lawyers. Who among them are most suitable?

I. P – Very academic not much interested in litigation practice, very honest and impatient.
II. Q – A patient listener, average in academics, thorough with Laws and sharp.
III. R – Jovial, Patient, good academic records and actively involved in politics.
IV. S – Shrewd, Quick tempered, punctual and Published several Legal articles
AP and Q
BQ and S
CR and S
DP and S
B Q and S
Again a subjective question. Q must definitely be one of the district judges. So choices 3 and 4 are out. So we have to now decide between P and S. S is a better choice as P is not interested in litigation so S is a better choice. Thus, 2 is the best answer.
Question 26
Find the odd one out
ABat
BVulture
CEagle
DOwl
A Bat
All others can see.
Question 27
Who will be standing at the 2nd position from the right in the photograph?
AVishal
BMansi
CGaurav
DAnirudh
A Vishal
From (iii) two cases are possible –

Now if we were to use iv, we will get the arrangement as follows:-

Case 1 is incorrect Sapna is to be to the right of Mansi. Hence case 2 is correct.
In the photograph Vishal will be standing at second position from the right.
Question 28
Who stands to the left of Anirudh?
ASapna
BGaurav
CMansi
DVishal
C Mansi
From (iii) two cases are possible –

Now if we were to use iv, we will get the arrangement as follows:-

Case 1 is incorrect Sapna is to be to the right of Mansi. Hence case 2 is correct.
As could be seen Mansi is standing to the left of Anirudh.
Question 29
Find the equivalent for ' ? '

Sphygmomanometer: Blood Pressure :: Pyrometer: ?
ATemperature
BBlood Flow
CUrine Flow
DAtmospheric Pressure
A Temperature
Sphygmomanometer is an instrument for measuring blood pressure, similarly pyrometer is an instrument used for measuring temperature.
Question 30
From morning 11 O’ clock to Evening 7 O’ clock, how many times the hour hand and minutes hand will overlap each other?
A9
B8
C7
D6
C 7
Minute hand’s speed is 6 degrees per minute.
Hour hand’s speed is 1/2 degrees per minute. They will overlap when relatively they have covered 360 degrees. Relative speed = 6 – ½ = 11/2. So time taken by the hands to overlap each other will be 360/ (11/2) = 720/11 minutes.
So in 8 hours (from morning 11 o’ clock to evening 7 p.m) they will overlap (8 x 60)/ (720/11) = 7 times.
Question 31
Find the odd one out
APolice station
BRailway station
CSupermarket
DAirport
A Police station
Police station
Question 32
Read the following carefully and answer the question given below.

Although women now constitute 30 percent of the global industrial force, legal hurdles and traditional barriers still hinder the vast majority of women in their efforts to achieve parity with men.

The paragraph best supports the statement
AThe Author claims that Feminism rules.
BEquality of men and women is still a myth.
CWomen should surpass men in all the fields.
DThe Author claims that women have to take more efforts.
B Equality of men and women is still a myth.
Choices 1 and 3 could be easily eliminated. 4 could be eliminated because of the word ‘claims’ – nowhere has the author claimed that women have to make more efforts – as it is most of them are not getting returns on their existing efforts.
Question 33
If TEACHER is coded as CAHEETR and STUDENT is coded as DUETNST, then what is the code for SUCCESS?
ACECSUSS
BCCEUSSS
CSCUSCES
DUCSECSS
B CCEUSSS
TEACHER is coded as CAHEETR. If you look at the new word you will observe that all the letters of word TEACHER are used, so we can safely assume that this is a case of rearrangement of letters. So the first term T has become the second last term of the new word, the last letter T remains the last letter in the new word as well and the third term “A” has become the second letter of the new word. We can confirm these deductions from STUDENT that is coded as DUETNST – since our findings apply on this word as well we will use them on the word SUCCESS. This will be coded in to _  C _ _ _ SS. We are left with only choices 2 and 4. In both the given words the fourth letter became the first letter – using that the first letter post coding should be C. Hence the correct choice will be 2.
Question 34
Who gifted the watch?
AShweta
BDarshan
CRitwik
DParul
A Shweta
Using (i), (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi) we get the table as shown below:-

Now using the second half of clue (iii) – Neither Ritwik nor Darshan gifted the jacket but the person who did gift it, received the goggles in return – from this we can infer that since Ritwik, Avantika and Darshan did not gift Jacket they would not have got goggles as a return gift. So only Parul could receive goggle as a return gift and hence would have gifted jacket to Chetan. Post these additions the table would look like as follows:-

We can see that Ritwik can only receive bag as a return gift and Avantika diary as a return gift. Shweta could have gifted only a watch as a gift. The updated table will look as follows:-

Now the only clue which has not been used till now is clue number (iv). The person who gifted the video game received a diary or a bag. This could be either Avantika (diary) or Ritwik (bag), but since Avantika gifted a shirt we can conclude that Ritwik gifted the video game and Darshan the headphone. The final table will look as below:-

So, Shwta gifted the watch.
Question 35
Who received goggles as a return gift?
AAvantika
BRitwik
CParul
DDarshan
C Parul
Using (i), (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi) we get the table as shown below:-

Now using the second half of clue (iii) – Neither Ritwik nor Darshan gifted the jacket but the person who did gift it, received the goggles in return – from this we can infer that since Ritwik, Avantika and Darshan did not gift Jacket they would not have got goggles as a return gift. So only Parul could receive goggle as a return gift and hence would have gifted jacket to Chetan. Post these additions the table would look like as follows:-

We can see that Ritwik can only receive bag as a return gift and Avantika diary as a return gift. Shweta could have gifted only a watch as a gift. The updated table will look as follows:-

Now the only clue which has not been used till now is clue number (iv). The person who gifted the video game received a diary or a bag. This could be either Avantika (diary) or Ritwik (bag), but since Avantika gifted a shirt we can conclude that Ritwik gifted the video game and Darshan the headphone. The final table will look as below:-

So, Parul received goggles as a return gift.
Question 36
Which among the following combination is correct?
AAvantika – Bag
BRitwik – Video Game
CRitwik – Diary
DParul – Watch
B Ritwik – Video Game
Using (i), (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi) we get the table as shown below:-

Now using the second half of clue (iii) – Neither Ritwik nor Darshan gifted the jacket but the person who did gift it, received the goggles in return – from this we can infer that since Ritwik, Avantika and Darshan did not gift Jacket they would not have got goggles as a return gift. So only Parul could receive goggle as a return gift and hence would have gifted jacket to Chetan. Post these additions the table would look like as follows:-

We can see that Ritwik can only receive bag as a return gift and Avantika diary as a return gift. Shweta could have gifted only a watch as a gift. The updated table will look as follows:-

Now the only clue which has not been used till now is clue number (iv). The person who gifted the video game received a diary or a bag. This could be either Avantika (diary) or Ritwik (bag), but since Avantika gifted a shirt we can conclude that Ritwik gifted the video game and Darshan the headphone. The final table will look as below:-

So, Ritwik – Videogame is the correct combination.
Question 37
Who gifted the headphones?
AShweta
BRitwik
CDarshan
DParul
C Darshan
Using (i), (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi) we get the table as shown below:-

Now using the second half of clue (iii) – Neither Ritwik nor Darshan gifted the jacket but the person who did gift it, received the goggles in return – from this we can infer that since Ritwik, Avantika and Darshan did not gift Jacket they would not have got goggles as a return gift. So only Parul could receive goggle as a return gift and hence would have gifted jacket to Chetan. Post these additions the table would look like as follows:-

We can see that Ritwik can only receive bag as a return gift and Avantika diary as a return gift. Shweta could have gifted only a watch as a gift. The updated table will look as follows:-

Now the only clue which has not been used till now is clue number (iv). The person who gifted the video game received a diary or a bag. This could be either Avantika (diary) or Ritwik (bag), but since Avantika gifted a shirt we can conclude that Ritwik gifted the video game and Darshan the headphone. The final table will look as below:-

So, Darshan gifted the headphone.
Question 38
Which among the following combination is correct?
AAvantika – Diary
BHeadphones – Diary
CRitwik – Goggles
DWatch – Bag
A Avantika – Diary
Using (i), (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi) we get the table as shown below:-

Now using the second half of clue (iii) – Neither Ritwik nor Darshan gifted the jacket but the person who did gift it, received the goggles in return – from this we can infer that since Ritwik, Avantika and Darshan did not gift Jacket they would not have got goggles as a return gift. So only Parul could receive goggle as a return gift and hence would have gifted jacket to Chetan. Post these additions the table would look like as follows:-

We can see that Ritwik can only receive bag as a return gift and Avantika diary as a return gift. Shweta could have gifted only a watch as a gift. The updated table will look as follows:-

Now the only clue which has not been used till now is clue number (iv). The person who gifted the video game received a diary or a bag. This could be either Avantika (diary) or Ritwik (bag), but since Avantika gifted a shirt we can conclude that Ritwik gifted the video game and Darshan the headphone. The final table will look as below:-

So, Avatika – diary is the correct combination.
Question 39
The one who received the bag in return, gifted which among the following items?
AWatch
BVideo game
CHeadphones
DJackets
B Video game
Using (i), (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi) we get the table as shown below:-

Now using the second half of clue (iii) – Neither Ritwik nor Darshan gifted the jacket but the person who did gift it, received the goggles in return – from this we can infer that since Ritwik, Avantika and Darshan did not gift Jacket they would not have got goggles as a return gift. So only Parul could receive goggle as a return gift and hence would have gifted jacket to Chetan. Post these additions the table would look like as follows:-

We can see that Ritwik can only receive bag as a return gift and Avantika diary as a return gift. Shweta could have gifted only a watch as a gift. The updated table will look as follows:-

Now the only clue which has not been used till now is clue number (iv). The person who gifted the video game received a diary or a bag. This could be either Avantika (diary) or Ritwik (bag), but since Avantika gifted a shirt we can conclude that Ritwik gifted the video game and Darshan the headphone. The final table will look as below:-

Ritwik received bag and he had gifted the video game.
Question 40
Examine the following expressions/activities/processes, and arrange them in the most logical sequence

1. Design, 2. Need, 3. Launching, 4. Research, 5. Testing, 6. Identify
A4, 1, 6, 2, 3, 5
B2, 6, 4, 1, 5, 3
C3, 5, 4, 1, 6, 2
D2, 4, 1, 5, 6, 3
B 2, 6, 4, 1, 5, 3
Ideally the first step before launching any product or service is identifying of a need. Since no choice starts with “Identify” our best answers are choices “2” and “4” as they start with need. Second now should be identify and so 2 is the best answer.

Section: Legal Aptitude

Question 1
Article 51-A on Fundamental Duties was inserted into the Constitution of India through the
A41st Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976
B44th Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1978
C40th Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976
D42nd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976
D 42nd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976
42nd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976. This amendment is also called as “mini constitution”.
Question 2
The highest law officer in India is the
AAttorney General
BAdvocate General
CSolicitor General
DChief Justice of the Supreme Court of India
A Attorney General
Attorney General is the highest law officer in India.
Question 3
How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
A21
B22
C19
D18
B 22
There are 22 languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Question 4
A Panchayat Samiti at the block level in India is only a/an:
AAdministrative authority
BCo-ordinating and Supervisory authority
CConsultative Committee
DAdvisory body
B Co-ordinating and Supervisory authority
A Panchayat Samiti at the block level in India is only a Co-ordinating and Supervisory authority.
Question 5
Which of the following is NOT a fundamental duty as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
ATo uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
BTo join the Defence Forces of India
CTo defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
DTo value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
B To join the Defence Forces of India
To join the Defence Forces of India is NOT a fundamental duty.
Question 6
The Right to Education Act, 2009 (RTE) provides for free and compulsory education to:
AAll illiterate children of India
BAll citizens of India
CChildren aged between 6 and 14 years
DAll children up to the age of 10 years
C Children aged between 6 and 14 years
The Right to Education Act, 2009 (RTE) provides for free and compulsory education to Children aged between 6 and 14 years.
Question 7
The question below consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and another as ‘Reason’ (R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items from the codes given below.
Assertion (A): It is the legal and constitutional duty of the State to provide legal aid to the poor. Reason (R): No one should be denied justice by reason of his poverty.
ABoth A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation to A
BBoth A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation to A
CA is true but R is false
DA is false but R is true
A Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation to A
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation to A. No one should be denied justice by reason of his poverty because it is the legal and constitutional duty of the State to provide legal aid to the poor.
Question 8
Which was the law introduced by Sir William Bentinck to prohibit the practice of Sati?
ABengal Sati Regulation, 1829
BU.P. Sati Prohibition Act, 1828
CIndian Sati Prohibition Act, 1827
DRajasthan Sati (Prevention) Act, 1830
A Bengal Sati Regulation, 1829
Bengal Sati Regulation, 1829 was introduced by Sir William Bentinck.
Question 9
Legal Principle: Nothing is an ‘offence’, if committed by a child below seven years of age.
Fact Situation: Adil, aged six years, is a student of class one. He placed his sharpened pencil on the bench with its pointed end up when his classmate Ajay stood up to answer a question from the teacher. Ajay gets hurt when he sits on the pencil and Adil and his friends have a good laugh. Ajay’s father, on seeing his son injured when he returns home, wants action against Adil.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
AAdil has committed an ‘offence’.
BAdil has not committed any ‘offence’.
CChildish pranks cannot be investigated by the police.
DThe class teacher must be arrested.
B Adil has not committed any ‘offence’.
Adil has not committed any ‘offence’ because he is 6 years of age and therefore falls within the defence of minority as mentioned in the Principle.
Question 10
Legal Principle: The doctrine of basic structure in Constitutional jurisprudence means that the Constitution of India has certain basic features that cannot be taken away through amendments by the Parliament. The power of judicial review is a part of the basic structure and it helps the constitutional Courts to determine whether an amendment is against the basic structure or not.
Fact Situation: Parliament proposes an amendment to limit the power of appeal against conviction for the offence of Sedition, to be exercised only by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
AThe proposed amendment is against the doctrine of basic structure.
BThe proposed amendment is unconnected to the doctrine of basic structure.
CThe proposed amendment can be reviewed and struck down by the Constitutional Courts.
DThe proposed amendment is beyond the power of the Parliament.
C The proposed amendment can be reviewed and struck down by the Constitutional Courts.
The proposed amendment can be reviewed and struck down by the Constitutional Courts because the Court has the power of judicial review as a part of basic structure which ensures the validity of an amendment or any law passed by the Parliament.
Question 11
Who among the following was the first Chairman of the Constituent Assembly in India?
ADr. Rajendra Prasad
BDr. Sachchidananda Sinha
CHarendra Coomar Mookerjee
DDr. B.R. Ambedkar
B Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the first Chairman of the Constituent Assembly in India.
Question 12
Legal Principle: It is an offence to obstruct a public servant in the due discharge of his duty. Right of private defence is available to protect one’s person and property.
Fact Situation: Sidhu comes to the rescue of his uncle who is sought to be taken into a car by some men. In the process, he causes injury to some of them. Later, it turns out that the men were police persons in plain clothes trying to enforce a warrant against his uncle.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
ASidhu has committed the offence of obstructing a public servant in due discharge of his duty.
BSidhu has not committed an offence since he did not know that the men were from the police.
CSidhu’s uncle has resisted arrest and should be proceeded against.
DSidhu should not have tried to help his uncle without ascertaining the fact
B Sidhu has not committed an offence since he did not know that the men were from the police.
Sidhu has not committed an offence since he did not know that the men were from the police and therefore, he has not committed an offence to obstruct a public servant in the due discharge of his duty.
Question 13
Legal Principle: An employer is liable for the act of his servant performed during the course of employment.
Fact Situation: While working as a driver for Verma, Alok sometimes used to earn some side income by carrying parcels for others in Verma’s car without his knowledge or permission. While going to pick Verma from the airport one day, Alok stopped to deliver a parcel he was carrying with him. While he was delivering the parcel, which unknown to him was one of contraband goods, the police arrested Alok.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
AVerma is liable for the act of Alok since he is Verma’s driver.
BVerma is liable for the act of Alok since he had gone to pick Verma from the airport.
CVerma is not liable for the act of Alok since Alok himself did not know that he was carrying contraband goods.
DVerma is not liable for the act of Alok since carrying the parcel was not in the course of his employment.
D Verma is not liable for the act of Alok since carrying the parcel was not in the course of his employment.
Verma is not liable for the act of Alok since carrying the parcel was not in the course of his employment.
Question 14
Which law introduced the system of dyarchy in India during the British reign?
AThe Government of India Act, 1858
BThe Government of India Act, 1909
CThe Government of India Act, 1919
DThe Government of India Act, 1935
C The Government of India Act, 1919
The Government of India Act, 1919 introduced the system of dyarchy in India during the British reign.
Question 15
Legal Principle: The Latin maxim nemo bis punitur pro eodem delictomeans that nobody can be punished twice for the same offence.
Fact Situation: Sajan, a petty thief, is caught and thrashed thoroughly by the people before being handed over to the police. Sajan pleads before the magistrate that since he was already thrashed by the people he should not be again punished by the State.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
ASajan is right since nobody should be punished for the same offence twice.
BThrashing given by the people does not amount to legal punishment and so Sajan can be punished by the State.
CGiving a good thrashing to the thief is the best form of punishment to prevent future theft.
DThe Magistrate should take into consideration the thrashing received by Sajan while fixing his punishment.
B Thrashing given by the people does not amount to legal punishment and so Sajan can be punished by the State.
Thrashing given by the people does not amount to legal punishment  and is not recognized as a valid punishment in law and hence Sajan can be punished by the State.
Question 16
Legal Principle: The Latin maxim qui facit per alium, facit per se means that he who acts
through another, acts himself.
Fact Situation: Heema requests her minor sister Harika to purchase a bag for her from the local shop. Harika purchases the bag on credit telling the shop keeper that her sister will pay for it. Afterwards, Heema refuses to pay for the bag.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
ASince Heema has not purchased the bag herself she is not liable to pay for it.
BHarika being a minor the shop keeper should not have sold the bag to her.
CSince she purchased the bag through her sister, Heema is liable to pay for it.
DHarika being a minor should not have been entrusted by Heema for the purchase of the bag.
C Since she purchased the bag through her sister, Heema is liable to pay for it.
Since Heema purchased the bag through her sister, Heema is liable to pay for it and cannot afterwards refuse to pay for the bag.
Question 17
Legal Principle: Negligence is the absence of care by one party which results in some damage to another. Damage is an essential ingredient to constitute a tort of negligence.
Fact Situation: Mistry left his ladder on the public road while unloading it from a truck when he went to open the shutters of his shop. Saini who was riding his motorcycle had to swerve hard to avoid hitting the ladder as he came with speed on the road. Saini fell down but was miraculously not injured.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
AMistry is not liable for the tort of negligence since Saini was not injured though he fell down.
BMistry is liable for the tort of negligence since Saini fell down due to the presence of the ladder.
CMistry is not liable for the tort of negligence since Saini was speeding on the road.
DMistry is liable for the tort of negligence since he was careless in leaving the ladder on the road.
B Mistry is liable for the tort of negligence since Saini fell down due to the presence of the ladder.
Mistry is liable for the tort of negligence since Saini fell down due to the presence of the ladder which was negligently left by him on public road.
Question 18
Legal Principle: Every partner is liable alone and jointly with other partners for the debts of a partnership firm incurred for the business. Every partner is an agent of every other partner while being a principal in his own right in the business of the partnership.
Fact Situation: Varun is a partner in a firm with Chinmoy and Jaffar. Jaffar purchases a car for his personal purpose and obtains credit for the same in the name of the partnership behind the back of the other partners. He fails to pay the due amount on the expiry of the period of credit.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
AVarun, Chinmoy and Jaffar are liable to pay for the car since they are partners and the credit was obtained in the name of the firm.
BVarun and Chinmoy are not liable to pay for the car since Jaffar purchased it for his personal purpose.
CVarun, Chinmoy and Jaffar are liable as partners for all credit obtained in the name of the firm even if it is for the personal purpose of a partner.
DJaffar can use the credit of the firm to make purchases even for personal purposes since he is a partner in the partnership.
B Varun and Chinmoy are not liable to pay for the car since Jaffar purchased it for his personal purpose.
Varun and Chinmoy are not liable to pay for the car since Jaffar purchased it for his personal purpose and not for the partnership business.
Question 19
Legal Principle: Parents are not liable for wrongs committed by their children unless they provide the opportunity for such wrongful acts to be committed by their children.
Fact Situation: Sunil, a minor, takes the keys to his father’s car from the table top where his father keeps it, drives the car on the public road and hits a pedestrian who gets injured.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
ASince Sunil took the car without his father’s permission, his father is not liable for Sunil’s act resulting in the accident.
BSunil’s father is liable for the conduct of Sunil resulting in the accident since he left the car keys where his son could easily take it without permission.
CAccidents happen despite utmost care and hence neither Sunil nor his father is liable in the instant case.
DSunil’s father is not liable since he had kept his car locked and securely deposited its keys without negligence on his table top.
B Sunil’s father is liable for the conduct of Sunil resulting in the accident since he left the car keys where his son could easily take it without permission.
Sunil’s father is liable for the conduct of Sunil resulting in the accident since he left the car keys where his son could easily take it without permission.
Question 20
Legal Principle: No remedy lies in law where an injury is caused to a person without any
infringement of his legal right.
Fact Situation: Ashutosh started a tuition Centre right next to the one being run for the past twenty years by Gulshan. After Ashutosh started his Centre, a large number of students shifted from Gulshan’s tuition Centre to Ashutosh’s Centre forcing Gulshan to close down his establishment suffering huge losses. Can Gulshan initiate legal action against Ashutosh?
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
AAshutosh must compensate Gulshan for his loss consequent to the start of the new tuition centre.
BGulshan cannot blame Ashutosh if he cannot retain his students.
CAshutosh has not violated any legal right of Gulshan, though students shifted to Ashutosh’s Centre and though Gulshan suffered loss, after he shut down his tuition Centre.
DGulshan should have improved his quality with lower fees to retain his students in the light of competition brought in by Ashutosh.
C Ashutosh has not violated any legal right of Gulshan, though students shifted to Ashutosh’s Centre and though Gulshan suffered loss, after he shut down his tuition Centre.
Ashutosh has not violated any legal right of Gulshan, though students shifted to Ashutosh’s Centre and though Gulshan suffered loss, after he shut down his tuition Centre.
Question 21
Legal Principle: Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India states that no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Fact Situation: Ubaid refuses to give a sample of his blood after he is stopped by the police for driving over the speed limit. The police suspect him to be driving under the influence of alcohol, which is prohibited under the law.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
AUbaid is protected by Article 20(3) in his refusal to give a blood sample.
BUbaid is not protected by Article 20(3) as he was under the influence of alcohol.
CUbaid is not protected by Article 20(3) in his refusal to give a blood sample since he is not accused of any offence yet.
DRefusal to give a blood sample is a crime and Ubaid must be punished for the same.
C Ubaid is not protected by Article 20(3) in his refusal to give a blood sample since he is not accused of any offence yet.
Ubaid is not protected by Article 20(3) in his refusal to give a blood sample since he is not accused of any offence yet.
Question 22
The law which provides special powers to the Armed Forces in India is popularly known as:
AAFSPA
BPOTA
CTADA
DSARFAESI
A AFSPA
Armed Forces (Special Powers) Acts (AFSPA), are Acts of the Parliament of India that grant special powers to the Indian Armed Forces in what each act terms "disturbed areas".
Question 23
Legal Principle: The law states that a food business operator must be registered with or licensed by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) to run a food business.
Fact Situation: Kavita’s neighbours suffer food poisoning after consuming sweets gifted by her on the occasion of a celebration at her home. Kavita does not have a registration or license from the FSSAI.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
AKavita is in violation of the law since she does not have a FSSAI registration or license.
BKavita is not in violation of the law since she did not make the sweets she gave by way of gift.
CLaw does not apply in cases like this where transactions happen between neighbours.
DKavita need not take a license or register with FSSAI since she is not running a food business.
D Kavita need not take a license or register with FSSAI since she is not running a food business.
Kavita need not take a license or register with FSSAI since she is not running a food business since the principle provides that only the food business operator must be registered with or licensed by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) to run a food business.
Question 24
Legal Principle: An agreement entered into by way of a wager/bet is unenforceable in law.
Fact Situation: Thomas is very good at predicting outcomes of cricket matches. Raja and Hoja give him rupees thousand each to enable him to bet with others about the outcome of a cricket match. Thomas wins rupees three lakh after betting three thousand rupees.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
AThomas must share rupees three lakh with Raja and Hoja equally.
BThomas must return rupees thousand each to Raja and Hoja.
CThomas need not share the three lakh with Raja and Hoja since it is the outcome of an unenforceable agreement.
DIf Thomas does not pay them rupees two lakh each, Raja and Hoja can sue him to recover their share.
C Thomas need not share the three lakh with Raja and Hoja since it is the outcome of an unenforceable agreement.
Thomas need not share the three lakh with Raja and Hoja since it is the outcome of an unenforceable agreement.
Question 25
Legal Principle: ‘Audi alteram partem’ is a Latin phrase which means ‘hear the other side’. It is the principle that no person should be judged without a fair hearing.
Fact Situation: Sanjay, in Delhi, is accused of theft and brought before the Court. The magistrate discovers that Sanjay is mute.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
AThe principle is not applicable to Sanjay since he is mute.
BThe principle is applicable to Sanjay even though he cannot speak since he can be asked to write down his defence.
CThe Magistrate has to take all measures to understand what Sanjay has to convey about the accusation against him.
DSince it is a Latin principle it is not applicable in India.
C The Magistrate has to take all measures to understand what Sanjay has to convey about the accusation against him.
The Magistrate has to take all measures to understand what Sanjay has to convey about the accusation against him.
Question 26
Legal Principle: An essential condition in a contract for sale of goods is that the seller has title over the goods sold.
Fact Situation: Ranjan pays rupees two thousand and buys a watch from Mohit who runs a watch showroom and a repair shop. Jatin sees the watch with Ranjan and tells him that it is his watch and was only given to Mohit for repairs. If what Jatin says is true
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
ARanjan is now the owner of the watch since he paid rupees two thousand for it.
BRanjan is not the owner of the watch since Mohit did not have a title to it.
CMohit must pay Jatin rupees two thousand since he sold Jatin’s watch.
DMohit is the owner of the watch since he sold it to Ranjan.
B Ranjan is not the owner of the watch since Mohit did not have a title to it.
Ranjan is not the owner of the watch since Mohit did not have a title to it and an essential condition in a contract for sale of goods is that the seller has title over the goods sold.
Question 27
Legal Principle: The insurer agrees to pay no more than the actual amount of the loss.
Fact Situation: Sunny insures his car worth rupees five lakh with X, an insurance company, for its value. He again insures the same car with Y, another insurance company, on the same terms. There is an accident and the car suffers a total loss. In his separate suits against X and Y, if Sunny recovers rupees five lakh from X, how much can he recover from Y?
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
ASunny can recover rupees five lakhs from Y.
BSunny cannot recover any amount from Y.
CSunny must pay Y, the rupees five lakhs he received from X.
DSunny cannot insure his car with both X and Y at the same time.
B Sunny cannot recover any amount from Y.
Sunny cannot recover any amount from Y because the actual amount of the loss has already been paid by insurance company X and Y is not liable to pay any more.
Question 28
Legal Principle: When there is an infringement of the legal right of a person, he gets a right to sue the wrongdoer for remedy irrespective of any actual loss caused.
Fact Situation: Saroj is prevented from voting at an election. The candidate she intended to vote for, wins the election.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
ASaroj’s legal right has been violated and she can sue the persons who prevented her from voting
BSince Saroj‘s candidate has won the election, her rights are not violated and she cannot sue.
CSince Saroj is not the candidate, her rights are not violated if she is prevented from voting.
DThis principle is not at all applicable in this case.
A Saroj’s legal right has been violated and she can sue the persons who prevented her from voting
Saroj’s legal right has been violated and she can sue the persons who prevented her from voting irrespective of any actual loss caused.
Question 29
Which of the following is the oldest law code in India?
AHammurabi’s code
BPrasarsmriti
CManusmriti
DNaradasmriti
C Manusmriti
Manusmriti is an ancient legal text among the many Dharmaśāstras of Hinduism. It was one of the first Sanskrit texts which has been translated during the British rule of India in 1794, by Sir William Jones, and used to formulate the Hindu law by the colonial government
Question 30
Legal Principle: A product cannot be sold in shops to consumers after its date of expiry.
Fact Situation: Lata, while shopping, notices that the milk packets on the shelves are due for expiry on that day. She objects to this to the shopkeeper, saying that since she was there to buy milk for the next day, keeping the milk on its date of expiry was against the law.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
ALata is right and the shopkeeper should take the milk packets off his shelves.
BThe shopkeeper should not sell the milk packets after the date of expiry is over.
CThe shopkeeper must remove the milk packets from the shelves and keep it refrigerated.
DMilk is not a product and hence the principle is not applicable in this case.
B The shopkeeper should not sell the milk packets after the date of expiry is over.
The shopkeeper should not sell the milk packets after the date of expiry is over because as per the principle a product cannot be sold in shops to consumers after its date of expiry.
Question 31
Legal Principle: Nuisance is the unlawful interference with a person’s enjoyment of his land or some rights over or in connection with it.
Fact Situation: Ashok, in his nineties, is hard of hearing and plays the radio very loudly throughout the day and on a daily basis. Raju, his neighbour, complaints that he cannot listen to his favourite TV show in his home due to the radio of Ashok.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
AListening to the radio is Ashok’s freedom.
BAshok is creating nuisance to his neighbour by playing the radio loud perpetually and disturbing Raju in being able to listen to the TV in his home.
CRaju is creating nuisance by complaining about Ashok’s enjoyment of hearing his radio.
DRaju should appreciate that Ashok is aged and hard of hearing.
B Ashok is creating nuisance to his neighbour by playing the radio loud perpetually and disturbing Raju in being able to listen to the TV in his home.
Ashok is creating nuisance to his neighbour by playing the radio loud perpetually and disturbing Raju in being able to listen to the TV in his home.
Question 32
Legal Principle: Agreements in restraint of trade are void and unenforceable.
Fact Situation: Manu has been working as a blacksmith in his village for many decades. Somu has been undergoing training with him for the past three years. After his training is over, Somu enters into an agreement with Manu that he will not start a competing business in the same village while Manu is alive.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
AThis agreement is void and unenforceable since it is a restraint on trade.
BThis agreement is valid and enforceable since Manu is Somu’s teacher.
CThis agreement is valid but not enforceable after Manu’s death.
DThis agreement is valid and enforceable since it is to protect Manu’s interest in consideration for teaching Somu to be a blacksmith.
A This agreement is void and unenforceable since it is a restraint on trade.
This agreement is void and unenforceable since it is a restraint on trade. Somu has been asked not to start a competing business which violates the given principle.
Question 33
What does FIR stand for under the Criminal Law?
AForensic Investigation Report
BFirst Investigation Report
CFirst Information Report
DFormal Interrogation Record
C First Information Report
First Information Report (FIR) is a written document prepared by the police when they receive informationabout the commission of a cognizable offence. ... Anyone can report the commission of a cognizable offence either orally or in writing to the police. Even a telephonic message can be treated as an FIR.
Question 34
Under which of the following enactments, is the use of mobile phone while driving made punishable?
AThe Information Technology Act
BThe Indian Penal Code
CThe Motor Vehicles Act
DThe Criminal Procedure Code
C The Motor Vehicles Act
The Motor Vehicles Act read with Motor Vehicle Rules doesnot allow the use of mobile phones while driving.
Question 35
Legal Principle: A person is liable to compensate others for harm caused by the escape of any inherently dangerous material that he keeps on his land.
Fact Situation: Ankit lights a bonfire in his courtyard to warm himself up during a cold winter evening. A strong wind suddenly blows some sparks from the fire, on to his neighbour’s house which catches fire and gets completely destroyed.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
AAnkit’s neighbour is liable to Ankit for distress caused by keeping a house that catches fire so quickly.
BAnkit is not liable because nobody could foresee that the sudden wind will blow the sparks to cause a fire.
CAnkit’s neighbour cannot make Ankit liable for the loss of his house since it was an accidental fire that destroyed it.
DAnkit is liable to compensate because the fire escaped from his premises to burn down his neighbour’s house.
D Ankit is liable to compensate because the fire escaped from his premises to burn down his neighbour’s house.
Ankit is liable to compensate because the fire escaped from his premises to burn down his neighbour’s house.
Question 36
Legal Principle: A characteristic feature of partnerships is the principle of mutual agency,
i.e., every partner is an agent for every other partner and will hence be able to bind them by his act, within the business of partnership.
Fact Situation: Ram and Shyam are partners of M/s R & S Trading Company which trades in rice varieties. Ram agrees to purchase ten tons of rice from Govind. Ram dies after the rice is delivered to the premises of M/s R & S Trading Company but before the payment of price is made. Is the agreement binding on Shyam?
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?
ABeing partners, Ram’s agreement to purchase rice for their partnership, is not binding on Shyam.
BSince Ram is no more, the agreement is not binding on Shyam.
CBeing partners, Ram’s agreement to purchase rice for their partnership, is binding on Shyam.
DThe agreement is binding on Ram and not on Shyam since the rice is delivered only to M/s R & S Trading Company and not to Shyam.
C Being partners, Ram’s agreement to purchase rice for their partnership, is binding on Shyam.
Being partners, Ram’s agreement to purchase rice for their partnership, is binding on Shyam because every partner is an agent for every other partner and will hence be able to bind them by his act, within the business of partnership.
Question 37
Who is an Ombudsman?
AA judicial officer designated to receive complaints against the violation of rights of citizens.
BAn official who is charged with representing the interests of the public by investigating and addressing complaints of maladministration or a violation of rights.
CAn elected representative of the people to investigate and address the complaints of maladministration or a violation of rights.
DA specially designated police officer assigned with the power to investigate and address the complaints of maladministration or a violation of rights.
B An official who is charged with representing the interests of the public by investigating and addressing complaints of maladministration or a violation of rights.
An official who is charged with representing the interests of the public by investigating and addressing complaints of maladministration or a violation of rights.
Question 38
Which authority in India notified the guidelines for the protection of persons assisting accident victims on Indian roads based on the Supreme Court direction?
AMinistry of Surface Transport, Govt. of India
BMinistry of Social Justice, Govt. of India
CMinistry of Road Transport and Highways, Govt. of India
DNational Human Rights Commission
C Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, Govt. of India
Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, Govt. of India otified the guidelines for the protection of persons assisting accident victims on Indian roads based on the Supreme Court direction
Question 39
Article 1 of a legal instrument reads: “All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights. They are endowed with reason and conscience and should act towards one another in a spirit of brotherhood”.
Which is the legal instrument being referred to above?
ANational Human Rights Act, 1995
BConstitution of India, 1951
CUniversal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948
DPhiladelphia Declaration, 1944
C Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948
Article 1 of Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948provides that All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights. They are endowed with reason and conscience and should act towards one another in a spirit of brotherhood.
Question 40
Examine the Statement and Conclusions given below and choose a suitable answer from the options given:
Statement:
It is a fundamental duty, which is unenforceable in a Court of Law that every citizen shall renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
Conclusions:
1. Reservation of seats for women in employment is violative of the principle stated.
2. Asking a lady inappropriate questions about her personal life is violative of the principle stated.
AOnly Conclusion 1 follows.
BOnly Conclusion 2 follows.
CConclusions 1 and 2 follow.
DNeither Conclusion 1 nor 2 follows.
B Only Conclusion 2 follows.
Asking a lady inappropriate questions about her personal life is violative of the fundamental duty, which is unenforceable in a Court of Law that every citizen shall renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women. Only Conclusion 2 follows.
Question 41
Examine the Statement and Conclusions given below and choose a suitable answer from the options given:
Statement:
A punishment is the imposition of an undesirable or unpleasant outcome upon a group or individual, meted out by an authority.
Conclusions:
1. Eye for an eye and tooth for a tooth is an example of punishment.
2. Imposition of fine on someone who inflicted bodily injury on another is justified by the statement.
AOnly Conclusion 1 follows.
BOnly Conclusion 2 follows.
CConclusions 1 and 2 follow.
DNeither Conclusion 1 nor 2 follows.
C Conclusions 1 and 2 follow.
Eye for an eye and tooth for a tooth is an example of punishment.  Imposition of fine on someone who inflicted bodily injury on another is justified as a punishment since it is the imposition of an undesirable or unpleasant outcome upon a group or individual, meted out by an authority.
Question 42
Examine the Statement and Conclusions given below and choose a suitable answer from the options given:
Statement:
Necessity knows no law.
Conclusions:
1. The act of a captain throwing some cargo into the ocean to save the ship from sinking is justified by the principle.
2. The act of a man out of poverty and starvation stealing some food from a hotel is justified by the principle.
3. The act of a tourist killing a tiger when it was attacking a villager is justified by the principle.
AOnly Conclusion 1 follows.
BOnly Conclusion 2 follows.
COnly Conclusion 1 and 3 follow.
DAll Conclusions follow.
C Only Conclusion 1 and 3 follow.
The act of a captain throwing some cargo into the ocean to save the ship from sinking is justified and the act of a tourist killing a tiger when it was attacking a villager is also justified because necessity knows no law.
Question 43
Examine the Statement and Conclusions given below and choose a suitable answer from the options given:
Statements:
1. Justice delayed is justice denied. Justice hurried is justice buried.
2. More than 3 crore cases are pending in the Indian Courts.
Conclusions:
1. People are not getting justice in India.
2. Disposal of cases by ‘Fast track courts’ results in injustice.
3. Cases must be disposed off within a reasonable time.
AOnly Conclusion 1 follows.
BOnly Conclusion 2 follows.
COnly Conclusion 3 follows.
DNo Conclusion follows.
C Only Conclusion 3 follows.
Cases must be disposed off within a reasonable time because justice delayed is justice denied. Justice hurried is justice buried. More than 3 crore cases are pending in the Indian Courts.
Question 44
Legal Principle: One of the principles of ‘Natural Justice’ states that, “No person shall be a judge in his own cause”.
Facts: A, a driver of B, a Branch Manager of ABC Bank was caught, suspecting theft, in the bank premises. The Bank management instituted an enquiry and made B the enquiry officer.
Which of the following statements is correct?
AAs B is a Bank Manager and not a judge, this principle is inapplicable.
BSince the suspected theft was in the bank premises, the manager is the only competent person to enquire. Hence, the principle is not applicable.
CSince B is the employer of A, B should not be conducting the enquiry on the basis of the given principle.
DThe principle will be applicable, only if the theft committed by A was in relation to the car.
C Since B is the employer of A, B should not be conducting the enquiry on the basis of the given principle.
Since B is the employer of A, B should not be conducting the enquiry on the basis of the given principle without following the principle of natural justice.
Question 45
Legal Principle: Justice should not only be done, but also seen to be done.
Facts: L, an honest Lawyer had 200 shares in Company X. Later, L was elevated to the High Court as a Judge and had to deal with Company matters. A dispute between Company X and its creditors came before L for decision.
Which among the following proposition is true?
AL, as an honest person will definitely judge the matter on the merits only. So, the principle cannot apply.
BA judge cannot excuse himself from taking up a case posted before him by the Court Registry.
CL should refrain from hearing the matter as he holds shares of the Company X.
DSince, L has only 200 shares he has no substantial interest in the company and hence can decide the matter.
C L should refrain from hearing the matter as he holds shares of the Company X.
L should refrain from hearing the matter as he holds shares of the Company X.
Question 46
Legal Principle: A person who keeps hazardous substances in his premises, is responsible for the fault if that substance escapes in any manner and causes damage.
Facts: A, an industrialist stored 1000 litres of liquid ammonia in a tank in his premises for his industrial use. There was a leakage from the tank due to which there was ammonia vapour in the surroundings. Many workers in other industries as well as his own industry and some members from the public suffered serious health hazards. Examine the liability of A, if any.
AA may be liable for the injury sustained by his workers only and not others.
BA is liable as he is responsible for the injury caused by the leakage of ammonia from his premises.
CA is not liable because there was no fault on his part for the escape of the dangerous substance.
DA is not liable because he did not expect a leakage from the tank.
B A is liable as he is responsible for the injury caused by the leakage of ammonia from his premises.
A is liable as he is responsible for the injury caused by the leakage of ammonia from his premises which is a hazardous substance and therefore A is responsible for the fault if that substance escapes in any manner and causes damage.
Question 47
Legal Principle: In the law of evidence, a person missing for long and not heard of, for over seven years is presumed to have died.
Facts: A, B and C are children of F and M. At the age of 20, A went out in search of a job and was not contacting the family. All attempts to trace A by the family failed. Eight years after the death of the parents, B and C entered into a partition and took equal share in the property of F and M. One year after this, A returned home with his wife and two children and claimed his share in the property. Whether A’s claim is legally sustainable?
ASince A was not heard of, for more than eight years, the legal presumption of death will apply and hence, he cannot claim a share in the property.
BIt was A’s duty to be in touch with the family at least once in a year. The failure of this duty will disentitle him from claiming property.
CA will succeed because he is a legitimate son of F and M.
DB and C are legally bound to give 1/3rd share of the property to A.
A Since A was not heard of, for more than eight years, the legal presumption of death will apply and hence, he cannot claim a share in the property.
Since A was not heard of, for more than eight years, the legal presumption of death will apply and hence, he cannot claim a share in the property.
Question 48
Legal Principle: ‘Gift' means transfer of certain existing property made voluntarily and
without consideration, by a donor, to a donee, and accepted by or on behalf of the donee during the lifetime of the donor.
Facts: Amit executed a gift deed for property ‘X’ in favour of Sooraj, who happened to be Amit’s loyal servant’s son settled in the U.S. Two months thereafter, Amit died without leaving a will regarding his assets. Amit’s children initiated steps to partition his entire property, including property ‘X’ among themselves. At that time, Sooraj came to India, and learning about the gift, claimed the property ‘X’.
ASooraj can legally get the property ‘X’, as soon as he gets to know about the gift.
BSooraj cannot legally claim the property ‘X’ because, the children of Amit have already initiated steps for partition.
CSooraj can claim the property ‘X’, because, his acceptance of the gift is implicit by his conduct of claiming the property as soon as he came to know about the gift.
DSooraj apparently did not comply with the essential requirements of a gift and hence, the entire property including property 'X', can be partitioned among the children of Amit.
D Sooraj apparently did not comply with the essential requirements of a gift and hence, the entire property including property 'X', can be partitioned among the children of Amit.
Sooraj apparently did not comply with the essential requirements of a gift and hence, the entire property including property 'X', can be partitioned among the children of Amit.
Question 49
The right to information under the Right to Information Act, 2005 is a:
ALegal Right
BFundamental Right
CHuman Right
DConstitutional Right
A Legal Right
Right to Information is an Act of the Parliament of India to provide for setting out the practical regime of the right to information for citizens and replaces the erstwhile Freedom of information Act, 2002. It is a legal right.
Question 50
The primary legislation relating to organ donation and transplantation, aimed at regulation of removal, storage and transplantation of human organs for therapeutic purposes and for prevention of commercial dealings in human organs in India, namely, the Transplantation of Human Organs Act, was passed in the year
A1994
B1998
C2004
D2014
A 1994
To provide for the regulation of removal, storage and transplantation of human organs for therapeutic purposes and for the prevention of commercial dealings in human organs and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. It was passed in 1994.
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